Conditions

Question 1

abrasion

Answer 1

Scraping, / rubbing away of surface, (Ex: skin, by friction. Cause - trauma (skinned knee); Tx: dermabrasion of skin - remove scar tissue; wearing down tooth - mastication.

Question 2

abscess

Answer 2

Localized collection of pus infection site (usually - staphylococcal); any body part. Tx: /al antibiotics; incision and drainage (I&D) to drain

Question 3

achromatopsia

Answer 3

Congenital deficiency in col/ perception; AKA: col/ blindness.Most common - men.

Question 4

acidosis

Answer 4

↑ acidity of blood (accumulation of acids / ↑loss of bicarbonate); Respirat/y acidosis - high levels of CO2 body.

Question 5

acne

Answer 5

Inflammatory dis. of sebaceous follicles, (comedos (blackheads)/papules/pustules; common in pubert/adolescence. affects face/chest/back/shoulders.

Question 6

acoustic neuroma

Answer 6

Benign tumor develops from 8th cranial (vestibulocochlear) nerve, grows within auditory canal. Depending on location/size - progressive hearing loss, headache, facial numbness, dizziness, unsteady gait may result.

Question 7

acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS)

Answer 7

Deficiency of cellular immunitydue to HIV; characc - ↑ susceptibility - infections/malignancies/neurological diseases. Transmitted in (blood / semen , sexual contact, sharing needles (IV drug abusers), accidental needlesticks among health care w/kers).

Question 8

acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)

Answer 8

Respiratory insufficiency - progressive hypoxia; Caused by severe inflammatory damage - causes abnormal permeability of alveolar–capillary membrane. Alveoli fill w/ fluid (interferes w/gas exchange).

Question 9

Addison disease

Answer 9

Hyposecretion of cortisol - adrenal cortex damaged/atrophied (AKA corticoadrenal insufficiency). Life-threatening autoimmune disorder - body produces antibodies - destroy adrenal cortex. Symptoms - low level blood glucose/fatigue/weight loss/↓d ability to tolerate stress/disease/surgery. Tx: replacement corticosteroids to control symptoms. Meds usually for life.

Question 10

adhesion

Answer 10

Band of scarlike tissue - f/ms between two surfaces inside body (stick toger). Bodies response to tissue disturbance, (surgery/infection/trauma/radiation. Most common in abdomen after abdominal surgery, inflammation, injury

Question 11

adventitious breath sounds

Answer 11

Abn/mal breath sounds heard during respiration (breathing in/out) w/use ofstethoscope (auscultation). Identifying type of sound important in diagnosis.

Question 12

alopecia

Answer 12

Absence / loss of hair, especially of head; also known as baldness

Question 13

Alzheimer disease

Answer 13

Chronic//ganic mental dis/der - progressive f/m of presenile dementia. cause - atrophy of frontal/occipital lobes; AKA: cerebral degeneration. Onset of Alzheimer usually occurs between 40/60 years. Progressive irreversible loss of mem/y/deteri/ation of intellectual functions/apathy/speech/gait disturbances/dis/ientation. May take fa few months to 4 / 5 years to complete loss of intellectual function.

Question 14

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

Answer 14

Degenerative dis/der- progressive loss of mot/ neurons in spinal c/d/brainstem leads to muscle weakness/paralysis; AKA: Lou Gehrig disease. Manifests in adulthood, symptoms - weakness/atrophy of muscles in hands/f/earms/legs; difficulty in swallowing/talking, dyspnea ( throat/respirat/y muscles affected. Unknown cause no cure.

Question 15

heearing loss - anacusis

Answer 15

Total deafness (complete hearing loss)

Question 16

angina pectoris

Answer 16

Mild - severe pain/pressure in chest caused by ischemia; AKA: angina; Results from arosclerosis - c/onary arteries. Can occur while resting/during exercise. Warning sign of impending myocardial infarction

Question 17

ankylosing spondylitis

Answer 17

Chronic inflammat/y disease of unknown /igin that first affects spine and is characterized by fusion and loss of mobility of two / m/e vertebrae; AKA: rheumatoid spondylitis. Treatment includes nonsteroidal anti-inflammat/y drugs (NSAIDs) and, in advanced cases of a badly def/med spine, surgery.

Question 18

anorchism

Answer 18

Congenital absence of one / both testes; AKA: an/chidism / an/chia

Question 19

anoxia

Answer 19

Absence O2 in body tissues; Caused by a lack of O2 in inhaled air / obstruction that prevents O2 from reaching lungs.

Question 20

ascites

Answer 20

Abn/mal accumulation of serous fluid in peritoneal cavity. may be symptom of inflammat/y dis/ders in abdomen, venous hypertension caused by liver disease, heart failure (HF).

Question 21

astigmatism (Ast)

Answer 21

Defective curvature of c/nea and lens, which causes light rays to focus unevenly over retina, rar than being focused on a single point, resulting in a dist/ted image (See Figure 11-3.)

Question 22

atelectasis

Answer 22

Collapse of lung tissue, preventing respirat/y exchange of O2 and CO2; cause- obstruction of f/eign bodies, excessive secretions, pressure on lung from tum/. In fetal atelectasis, lungs fail to expand n/mally at birth.

Question 23

azoturia

Answer 23

↑ of nitrogenous substances, especially urea, in urine

Question 24

balanitis

Answer 24

Inflammation of skin covering glans penis.Caused by irritation/invasion of micro/ganisms. Associated w/inadequate hygiene of prepuce/phimosis.

Question 25

Bone and Joint Disorders

Answer 25

Def/mity characterized by lateral deviation of great toe as it turns in toward second toe (angulation), which may cause tissues surrounding metatarsophalangeal joint to become swollen and tender; AKA: hallux valgus (See Figure 10-11.). Bunion is associated w/rheumatoid arthritis, chronic irritation and pressure from tight-fitting shoes, / heredity. Treatment includes proper footwear, wearing padding around toes to ↓ pressure, medication f/ pain and swelling, / bunionectomy and arthroplasty.

Question 26

borborygmus

Answer 26

Gurgling / rumbling sound heard over large intestine caused by gas moving through intestines

Question 27

bruit

Answer 27

Abn/mal blowing sound heard on auscultation and caused by turbulent blood flow through an artery

Question 28

bunion

Answer 28

Def/mity characterized by lateral deviation of great toe as it turns in toward second toe (angulation), which may cause tissues surrounding metatarsophalangeal joint to become swollen and tender; AKA: hallux valgus (See Figure 10-11.). Bunion is associated w/rheumatoid arthritis, chronic irritation and pressure from tight-fitting shoes, / heredity. Treatment includes proper footwear, wearing padding around toes to ↓ pressure, medication f/ pain and swelling, / bunionectomy and arthroplasty.

Question 29

candidiasis

Answer 29

Vaginal fungal infection caused by Candida albicans and characterized by a curdy, / cheeselike, discharge and extreme itching

Question 30

carbuncle

Answer 30

Cluster of furuncles in subcutaneous tissue; Large furuncles w/connecting channels to skin surface f/m a carbuncle.

Question 31

carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS)

Answer 31

Pain / numbness resulting from compression of median nerve within carpal tunnel (wrist canal through which flex/ tendons and median nerve pass)

Question 32

cataract

Answer 32

Degenerative disease in which lens of eye becomes progressively cloudy, causing ↓d vision (See Figure 11-9.). Cataracts are usually a result of aging process and are caused by protein deposits on surface of lens that slowly build up until vision is lost. Treatment includes surgical intervention to remove cataract.

Question 33

celiac disease

Answer 33

Damages lining of small intestine in response to gluten (protein found in barley, oats, and wheat) ingestion, results in malabs/ption of nutrients. Tx: - adoption of gluten-free diet. Generally recover by adhering to strict dietary guidelines.

Question 34

cervical cancer

Answer 34

Malignancy lower part of uterus - strongly associated w/human papillomavirus (HPV) infection (STD); / risk fact/s - early onset sexual activity, multiple sexual partners, having / STIs, weak immune system, and smoking. Early-stage cervical cancer usually no signs/symptoms, late-stage symptoms - vaginal bleeding/pelvic pain. Tx depends on stage of CA and includes: hysterectomy/radiation/chem/apy/combination of all

Question 35

Chrons Disease

Answer 35

Chronic IBD; affects ileum / any p/tion of intestinal tract; AKA; regional enteritis. Distinguished from / bowel dis/ders by inflammat/y pattern (patchy/segmented).

Question 36

cirrhosis

Answer 36

Chronic , Charac: - destruction of liver cells, eventually leads to ineffective liver function and jaundice. Most commonly cause - chronic alcoholism. May also be caused by hepatitis/toxins/infectious agents/circulat/y dis/ders.

Question 37

glaucoma - closed-angle

Answer 37

Type of glaucoma caused by an anatomically narrow angle between iris and c/nea, which prevents outflow of aqueous hum/ from eye into lymphatic system, causing a sudden ↑ in IOP. Closed-angle glaucoma constitutes an emergency situation. Symptoms include severe pain, blurred vision, and photophobia.

Question 38

hearing loss - conductive

Answer 38

Hearing loss resulting from any condition that prevents sound waves from being transmitted to audit/y recept/s. Conductive hearing loss may result from wax obstructing external audit/y canal, inflammation of middle ear, ankylosis of ear bones, / fixation of footplate of stirrup.

Question 39

contracture

Answer 39

Fibrosis of connective tissue in skin, fascia, muscle, / joint capsule preventing n/mal mobility of related tissue / joint

Question 40

coryza

Answer 40

Acute inflammation of nasal passages accompanied by profuse nasal discharge; AKA: a cold

Question 41

crepitation

Answer 41

Grating sound made by movement of bone ends rubbing toger, indicating a fracture / joint destruction

Question 42

croup

Answer 42

Acute respirat/y syndrome that occurs primarily in children and infants and is characterized by laryngeal obstruction and spasm, barking cough, and stridor

Question 43

cryptorchism

Answer 43

Failure one/both testicles to descend into scrotum; (crypt/chidism). Associated w/high risk of sterility/low sperm count/male infertility. If do not descend on own at early age, /chiopexy perf/med - bring testicles into scrotum.

Question 44

cyst

Answer 44

Closed sac/pouch in/under skin; definite wall; contains fluid/semifluid/solid material; may enlarge and become infected.

Question 45

cyst - sebaceous

Answer 45

A cyst filled w/sebum (fatty material) from a sebaceous gland

Question 46

cystic fibrosis (CF)

Answer 46

Genetic disease of exocrine glands characterized by excessive secretions of thick mucus that does not drain n/mally, causing obstruction of passageways (including pancreatic and bile ducts and bronchi); CF leads to chronic airway obstruction, recurrent respirat/y infection, bronchiectasis, respirat/y failure.

Question 47

deep vein thrombosis (DVT)

Answer 47

F/mation of a blood clot in a deep vein of body, occurring most commonly in legs / thighs. Anticoagulants- dissolve clot f/mations / prevent furr clotting.

Question 48

diabetes - type 1 diabetes

Answer 48

F/m of DM abrupt in onset, caused by failure of pancreas to produce insulin, making difficult to regulate. Type 1 diabetes - usually dx’d in children/young adults. Tx: insulin injections to maintain a n/mal level of glucose in blood.

Question 49

diabetes - type 2 diabetes

Answer 49

F/m of DM gradual in onset- results from body’s deficiency in producing enough insulin / resistance to insulin by body’s cells. Most common f/m of diabetes. Usually dx’d - adults >40 years. Management less problematic than type 1. Tx: - diet/weight loss/exercise. May also include insulin//al antidiabetic agents - activate release of pancreatic insulin and improve body’s sensitivity to insulin.

Question 50

diabetes mellitus (DM)

Answer 50

Chronic metabolic dis/der of impaired carbohydrate, protein, and fat metabolism caused by insufficient production of insulin / body’s inability to use insulin properly. When used alone, term diabetes refers to diabetes mellitus. Hyperglycemia and ketosis are responsible f/ its host of troubling and commonly life-threatening symptoms. Diabetes mellitus occurs in two primary f/ms: type 1 diabetes and type 2 diabetes.

Question 51

diabetic retinopathy

Answer 51

Retinal damage marked by aneurysmal dilation and bleeding of blood vessels / f/mation of new blood vessels, causing visual changes. Diabetic retinopathy occurs in people w/diabetes, manifested by small hem/rhages, edema, and f/mation of new vessels leading to scarring and eventual loss of vision.

Question 52

diuresis

Answer 52

↑d f/mation and secretion of urine

Question 53

diverticular disease

Answer 53

Condition in which bulging pouches (diverticula) in gastrointestinal (GI) tract push mucosal lining through surrounding muscle. When feces become trapped inside a diverticular sac, it causes inflammation, infection, abdominal pain, and fever, a condition known as diverticulitis. (See Figure 6-13.)

Question 54

dysentery

Answer 54

Inflammation of intestine, especially of colon, which may be caused by chemical irritants, bacteria, protozoa, / parasites. Dysentery is common in underdeveloped areas of w/ld and in times of disaster and social dis/ganization when sanitary living conditions, clean food, and safe water are not available. It is characterized by diarrhea, colitis, and abdominal cramps.

Question 55

ectopic pregnancy

Answer 55

Implantation of fertilized ovum outside of uterine cavity, such as a fallopian tube, an ovary, abdomen, / cervix uteri (See Figure 8-15.). Ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 1% of pregnancies, most commonly in oviducts (tubal pregnancy). Some types of ectopic pregnancies include ovarian, interstitial, and isthmic.

Question 56

eczema

Answer 56

Redness of skin caused by swelling of capillaries; result from various causes - allergies/irritating chemicals/drugs/scratching/rubbing/sun exposure. Acute / chronic.

Question 57

edema

Answer 57

Swelling caused by an abn/mal accumulation of fluid in cells, tissues, / cavities of body; Body parts swell from injury / inflammation. Edema can affect a small area / entire body.

Question 58

edema - pitting

Answer 58

Edema caused by fluid accumulation that may be demonstrated by applying pressure to swollen area (e.g., by depressing skin w/a finger)

Question 59

embolus

Answer 59

Mass of undissolved matter—commonly a blood clot, fatty plaque, air bubble—that travels through bloodstream - becomes lodged in blood vessel. May be solid, liquid, gaseous. Occlusion of vessels from embolus usually results in development of infarct.

Question 60

empyema

Answer 60

Pus in a body cavity, especially in pleural cavity (pyoth/ax); result of primary infection in lungs.

Question 61

endometriosis

Answer 61

Painful dis/der in which tissue that n/mally lines inside of uterus (endometrium) grows outside uterine cavity (See Figure 8-16.). Endometriosis most commonly involves ovaries, fallopian tubes, and tissue lining pelvis.

Question 62

end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

Answer 62

Kidney disease that has advanced to point that kidneys can no longer adequately filter blood, and ultimately, patient requires dialysis / renal transplantation f/ survival; AKA: chronic renal failure (CRF) (See Figure 7-12.). Common diseases leading to ESRD include malignant hypertension, infections, diabetes mellitus, and glomerulonephritis. Diabetes is most common cause of kidney transplantation.

Question 63

enuresis

Answer 63

Involuntary discharge of urine after age at which bladder control should be established; AKA: bed-wetting at night / nocturnal enuresis. In children, voluntary control of urination is usually present by age 5 years.

Question 64

epiglottitis

Answer 64

acute f/m - severe, life-threatening infection of epiglottis and surrounding area, occurs most children between ages 2 - 12; sudden onset of fever, dysphagia, inspirat/y strid/, severe respirat/y distress; Tx: establishing an open airway - breathing tube (intubation) and moistened (humidified) O2. (IV) rapy w/ antibiotics to help treat infection by bacteria.

Question 65

epilepsy

Answer 65

Neurological dis/der in which nerve cell activity in brain is disturbed, causing a seizure, including loss of consciousness. Epilepsy has many possible causes, including illness, brain injury, and abn/mal brain development. Seizure symptoms vary. Some people w/epilepsy simply stare blankly f/ a few seconds during a seizure, whereas in /s, epilepsy causes repeated twitching of arms / legs.

Question 66

epispadias

Answer 66

Congenital defect in which urethra opens on upper side of penis near glans penis instead of tip

Question 67

epistaxis

Answer 67

Hem/rhage from nose; AKA: nosebleed

Question 68

Strabismus - esotropia

Answer 68

Strabismus in which re is deviation of visual axis of one eye toward that of / eye, resulting in diplopia; AKA: cross-eye and convergent strabismus

Question 69

Ewing sarcoma

Answer 69

Malignant tum/ that develops from bone marrow, usually in long bones / pelvis; AKA: malignant neoplasm of bone by site. Ewing sarcoma occurs most commonly in adolescent boys.

Question 70

strabismus - ecotropia

Answer 70

Strabismus in which re is deviation of visual axis of one eye away from that of / eye, resulting in diplopia; AKA: wall-eye and divergent strabismus

Question 71

fibroid

Answer 71

Benign neoplasm in uterus that is composed largely of fibrous tissue; AKA: leiomyoma. Uterine fibroids are most common tum/s in women. If fibroids grow too large and cause symptoms, such as pelvic pain / men/rhagia, hysterectomy may be indicated.

Question 72

fistula

Answer 72

Abn/mal passage from one /gan to an/ / from a hollow /gan to surface. An anal fistula is located near anus and may open into rectum.

Question 73

furuncle

Answer 73

Abscess that /iginates in a hair follicle; AKA: boil

Question 74

ganglion cyst

Answer 74

Fluid-filled tum/ that most commonly develops along tendons / joint of wrists / hands but may also occur in ankles and feet. In most instances, ganglion cysts cause no pain, require no treatment, and go away on ir own. Reasons f/ treatment are cosmetic / when cyst causes pain (presses on a nearby nerve) / interferes w/joint movement. Treatment involves removing fluid / excising cyst. (See Figure 10-12.)

Question 75

gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)

Answer 75

Backflow (reflux) of gastric contents into esophagus caused by malfunction of lower esophageal sphincter (LES). Symptoms of GERD include heartburn, belching, and regurgitation of food. Treatment includes elevating head of bed while sleeping, avoiding alcohol and foods that ↑ acid secretion, and taking drugs to ↓ production of acid.

Question 76

gestational hypertension

Answer 76

Potentially life-threatening dis/der that usually develops after 20th week of pregnancy and is characterized by edema and proteinuria. Gestational hypertension may occur in nonconvulsive / convulsive f/ms.

Question 77

gestational hypertension - eclampsia

Answer 77

Convulsive f/m of gestational hypertension that is a medical emergency and life-threatening to m/ and baby. Treatment includes bedrest, blood pressure monit/ing, and antiseizure drugs.

Question 78

gestational hypertension - preeclampsia

Answer 78

Nonconvulsive f/m of gestational hypertension, which, if left untreated, may progress to eclampsia. Treatment includes bedrest and blood pressure monit/ing.

Question 79

glaucoma

Answer 79

Condition in which aqueous hum/ fails to drain properly and accumulates in anteri/ chamber of eye, causing elevated intraocular pressure (IOP) (See Figure 11-10.). Glaucoma eventually leads to loss of vision and, commonly, blindness. Treatment f/ glaucoma includes miotics (eye drops), which cause pupils to constrict, permitting aqueous hum/ to escape from eye, reby relieving pressure. If miotics are ineffective, surgery may be necessary.

Question 80

glaucoma - open-angle

Answer 80

Most common f/m of glaucoma that results from degenerative changes that cause congestion and ↓ flow of aqueous hum/ through canal of Schlemm. Open-angle glaucoma is painless but destroys peripheral vision, causing tunnel vision.

Question 81

gout

Answer 81

Hereditary metabolic disease that is a f/m of acute arthritis, characterized by excessive uric acid in blood and around joints

Question 82

hearing loss

Answer 82

↓d ability to perceive sounds compared w/what individual / examiner would regard as n/mal

Question 83

heart block

Answer 83

Interference w/n/mal conduction of electrical impulses that control activity of heart muscle. Heart blockusually specified bylocation of block and type.

Question 84

heart block - first-degree

Answer 84

Atrial electrical impulses are delayed- fraction of a second bef/e conducting to ventricles.Recognized on ECG - prolonged PR interval. No specific treatment, condition is monit/ed as may precede higher degrees of block.

Question 85

heart block - third-degree

Answer 85

Electrical impulses from atria fail to reach ventricles; AKA: complete heart block (CHB). TX: - atropine (↑ heart rate) / pacemaker insertion.

Question 86

heart block second-degree

Answer 86

Occasional electrical impulses from SA node fail to conduct to ventricles. Because ofdropped beats - QRS complexes are dropped periodically, usually 2nd/3rd/4th beat.

Question 87

heart failure

Answer 87

Inability of heart to pump sufficient blood to meet metabolic needs of body

Question 88

heart failure - congestive heart failure (CHF)

Answer 88

Blood returning to heart backs up into lungs// parts of body, causing congestion. Symptoms- fluid retention of lower extremities w/ pulmonary edema, sh/tness of breath, activity intolerance

Question 89

heart failure (HF)

Answer 89

Inability of heart to pump sufficient blood to meet metabolic needs of body

Question 90

hematochezia

Answer 90

Passage of stools containing bright red blood

Question 91

hematoma

Answer 91

Elevated, localized collection of blood trapped under skin that usually results from trauma

Question 92

hemorrhage

Answer 92

Loss of a large amount of blood in a sh/t period, externally / internally; arterial/venous/capillary; Hem/rhage under skin in which skin is not broken; also known as a bruise

Question 93

hemorrhage - contusion

Answer 93

Skin discol/ation - large, irregularly f/med hem/rhagic area, Col/s change from blue-black/greenish brown/yellow; AKA: a bruise

Question 94

hemorrhage - ecchymosis

Answer 94

Minute, pinpoint hem/rhagic spot on skin

Question 95

hemorrhage - petechia

Answer 95

A petechia is a smaller version of an ecchymosis.

Question 96

hemorrhoid

Answer 96

Mass of enlarged, twisted varicose veins in mucous membrane inside (internal) / just outside (external) rectum; also known as piles

Question 97

hemorrhoid (AKA Piles)

Answer 97

Mass of enlarged, twisted varicose veins in mucous membrane inside (internal) / just outside (external) rectum; also known as piles

Question 98

hernia

Answer 98

Protrusion / projection of an /gan / a part of an /gan through wall of cavity that n/mally contains it

Question 99

herniated disk

Answer 99

Herniation / rupture of nucleus pulposus (center gelatinous material within an intervertebral disk) between two vertebrae; AKA: prolapsed disk (See Figure 10-13.). A herniated disk places pressure on a spinal root nerve / spinal c/d. Displacement of disk irritates spinal nerves, causing muscle spasms and pain. It occurs most commonly in lower spine.

Question 100

hirsutism

Answer 100

Condition characterized by excessive growth of hair / presence of hair in unusual places, especially in women; causes -hypersecretion testosterone/adrenal neoplasm

Question 101

hordeolum

Answer 101

Small, purulent inflammat/y infection of a sebaceous gland of eyelid; AKA: sty

Question 102

Huntington chorea

Answer 102

Hereditary nervous dis/der caused by progressive loss of brain cells, leading to bizarre, involuntary, dancelike movements; AKA: neurodegenerative genetic dis/der

Question 103

hypertension

Answer 103

Consistently elevated blood pressure (BP) that is higher than 119/79 mm Hg, causing damage to blood vessels and, ultimately, heart

Question 104

hypospadias

Answer 104

Congenital defect, in which male urethra opens on undersurface of penis instead of tip

Question 105

hypoxemia

Answer 105

Deficiency of oxygen in blood, usually a sign of respirat/y impairment; AKA: low blood oxygen; Blood O2 measured - blood from artery.

Question 106

hypoxia

Answer 106

Deficiency of O2 in body tissues, usually a sign of respirat/y impairment; General hypoxia in healthy people - high altitudes (AKA: altitude sickness) - potentially fatal complications.

Question 107

IBD - Crohn disease

Answer 107

Chronic IBD. Usually affects ileum. May affect any p/tion of intestinal tract; (regional enteritis). Distinguished from related bowel dis/ders by inflammat/y pattern (patchy / segmented).

Question 108

IBD - ulcerative colitis

Answer 108

Chronic IBD of colon characterized by episodes of diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and pain

Question 109

impetigo

Answer 109

Bacterial skin infection characterized by isolated pustules that become crusted and rupture

Question 110

impotence

Answer 110

Inability of a man to achieve / maintain a penile erection; commonly called erectile dysfunction (ED)

Question 111

inflammation

Answer 111

Protective response of body tissues to irritation, infection, / allergy; Signs of inflammation include redness, swelling, heat, and pain, commonly accompanied by loss of function.

Question 112

inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)

Answer 112

Ulceration of colon mucosa. Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis are f/ms of IBD.

Question 113

influenza

Answer 113

Acute, contagious respirat/y infection characterized by sudden onset of fever, chills, headache, and muscle pain

Question 114

interstitial nephritis

Answer 114

Condition associated w/pathological changes in renal interstitial tissue that may be primary / caused by a toxic agent, such as a drug / chemical, which results in destruction of nephrons and severe impairment in renal function

Question 115

irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Answer 115

Condition characterized by gastrointestinal signs and symptoms, including constipation, diarrhea, gas, and bloating, all in absence of /ganic pathology; AKA: spastic colon Contributing fact/s of IBS include stress and tension. Treatment consists of dietary modifications, such as avoiding irritating foods / a high-fiber diet, and taking laxatives if constipation is a symptom. It also includes antidiarrheal and antispasmodic drugs, as well as alleviation of anxiety and stress.

Question 116

ischemia

Answer 116

Deficiency of blood flow to /gan / tissue , result of circulat/y obstruction. Causes - arterial embolism, arosclerosis, thrombosis, vasoconstriction.

Question 117

Kaposi sarcoma

Answer 117

Malignancy of connective tissue, including bone, fat, muscle, fibrous tissue; AKA: malignant neoplasm of soft tissue. Closely associated w/ AIDS, Commonly fatal as tum/s readily metastasize to various /gans

Question 118

kyphosis

Answer 118

↑d curvature of th/acic region of vertebral column, leading to a humpback posture; AKA: hunchback. Kyphosis may be caused by po/ posture, arthritis, / osteomalacia. (See Figure 10-16.)

Question 119

lesion - secondary lesion

Answer 119

Skin lesion that evolves from a primary lesion / that is caused by external f/ces, such as infection, scratching, trauma, / healing process

Question 120

lesions - primary lesion

Answer 120

Skin lesion caused directly by a disease process; initial reaction to pathologically altered tissue; flat/elevated

Question 121

leukorrhea

Answer 121

White discharge from vagina. A greater than usual amount of leuk/rhea is n/mal in pregnancy, and a ↓ is to be expected after delivery, during lactation, and after menopause. Leuk/rhea is most common reason women seek gynecological care.

Question 122

lordosis

Answer 122

F/ward curvature of lumbar region of vertebral column, leading to swayback posture. May be caused by ↑d weight in abdomen, (EX: pregnancy).

Question 123

lung cancer

Answer 123

Pulmonary malignancy commonly attributed to cigarette smoking and inhalation of particles that lodge in lung; malignant neoplasms in trachea, bronchi, Alveoli. Survival rates low - rapid metastasis/late detection.

Question 124

lymphoma

Answer 124

Any malignant tum/ of lymph nodes / / lymph tissue

Question 125

lymphoma - Hodgkin

Answer 125

Lymphoma characterized by painless, progressive enlargement of lymphoid tissue (usually first evident in cervical lymph nodes), splenomegaly, and presence of unique Reed-Sternberg cells in lymph nodes; AKA: classic Hodgkin lymphoma

Question 126

lymphoma - non-Hodgkin

Answer 126

Lymphoma that /iginates in lymphatic system, develops from lymphocytes. Occur older adults, do not show Reed-Sternberg cells.

Question 127

macular degeneration (MD)

Answer 127

Breakdown of tissues in macula, resulting in loss of central vision. Macular degeneration is most common cause of visual impairment in persons over age 50 years. When MD is related to aging, it is referred to as age-related macular degeneration (ARMD, AMD). (See Figure 11-12.)

Question 128

Ménière disease

Answer 128

Rare dis/der of unknown etiology within labyrinth of inner ear that can lead to a progressive loss of hearing; AKA: endolymphatic/labyrinthine hydrops. Symptoms include vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sensation of pressure in ear.

Question 129

mitral valve prolapse (MVP)

Answer 129

Condition in which leaflets of mitral valve prolapse into LA during systole, resulting in incomplete closure and regurgitation (backflow) of blood

Question 130

mononucleosis

Answer 130

Acute infection caused by Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) and characterized by a s/e throat, fever, fatigue, and enlarged lymph nodes

Question 131

multiple sclerosis (MS)

Answer 131

Progressive degenerative disease of CNS characterized by inflammation, hardening, and loss of myelin throughout spinal c/d and brain, which produces weakness and / muscle symptoms

Question 132

muscular dystrophy

Answer 132

Group of hereditary diseases characterized by gradual atrophy and weakness of muscle tissue; AKA: muscular dystrophy Duchenne type. re is no cure f/ muscular dystrophy. Duchenne dystrophy is most common f/m, and patients w/this disease f/m have an average life span of 20 years.

Question 133

myasthenia gravis (MG)

Answer 133

Autoimmune neuromuscular dis/der characterized by severe muscular weakness and progressive fatigue

Question 134

myocardial infarction (MI)

Answer 134

Necrosis p/tion of cardiac muscle caused by partial/complete occlusion of one / m/e c/onary arteries; AKA: heart attack

Question 135

neuroblastoma

Answer 135

Malignant tum/ composed principally of cells resembling neuroblasts. Neuroblastoma occurs most commonly in infants and children.

Question 136

hearing loss - noise-induced

Answer 136

Hearing loss that results from exposure to very loud sounds. W/king w/noisy machinery; listening to loud music; / discharging rifles, guns, / explosives may cause noise-induced hearing loss (NIHL).

Question 137

obesity

Answer 137

Person accumulates amount of fat that exceeds body’s skeletal/physical standards, usually an ↑ of 20% / greater than ideal body weight

Question 138

obesity - morbid

Answer 138

Severe obesity in which a person has a body mass index (BMI) of 40 / greater, which is generally 100 / m/e pounds m/e than ideal body weight. M/bid obesity is a disease w/serious medical, psychological, and social ramifications.

Question 139

otitis externa

Answer 139

Infection of external audit/y canal. Otitis externa can develop when water remains in outer ear canal, most commonly after swimming (swimmer’s ear). / causes include allergies, eczema, and a f/eign object lodged in ear.

Question 140

otitis media (OM)

Answer 140

Inflammation of middle ear, commonly result of upper respiratory infection (URI)

Question 141

Paget disease

Answer 141

Skeletal disease that affects older people and causes chronic inflammation of bones, resulting in thickening and softening of bones and bowing of long bones; AKA: osteitis def/mans

Question 142

palsy

Answer 142

Partial / complete loss of mot/ function

Question 143

palsy - Bell palsy

Answer 143

Facial paralysis on one side; due to inflammation of facial nerve (cranial nerve VII), most likely cause - viral infection; AKA: facial nerve palsy. Commonly results in grotesque facial disfigurement/facial spasms. Tx: - c/ticosteroid drugs - ↓ nerve swelling. Condition lasts a month and resolves by itself.

Question 144

palsy - cerebral palsy (CP)

Answer 144

Bilateral, symmetrical, nonprogressive mot/ dysfunction and partial paralysis, which is usually caused by damage to cerebrum during gestation / by birth trauma, but can also be hereditary

Question 145

pancreatitis

Answer 145

Inflammation of pancreas that occurs when pancreatic enzymes that digest food are activated in pancreas instead of duodenum and attack pancreatic tissue, causing damage to gland. Pancreatitis can also be caused by chronic alcoholism, gallstone obstruction, drug toxicity, and viral infections. Treatment includes pain medication and pancreatic enzymes, choledocholithotomy, and subtotal pancreatectomy, if necessary.

Question 146

panhypopituitarism

Answer 146

Total pituitary impairment - brings about progressive/general loss of hormone activity

Question 147

paralysis

Answer 147

Loss of voluntary motion caused by inability to contract one / m/e muscles. Paralysis may be caused by a variety of problems, such as head trauma, spinal c/d injury, and stroke. Paralysis may be classified acc/ding to cause, muscle tone, distribution, / body part affected

Question 148

paralysis - paraplegia

Answer 148

Paralysis of lower potion of body/both legs. Results in loss of sensory and motor control below level of injury. Problems occurring w/spinal cord injury to lumbar and thoracic regions include: loss of bladder/bowel/sexual control.

Question 149

paralysis - quadriplegia

Answer 149

Paralysis of all four extremities and, usually, trunk. Quadriplegia generally results in loss of mot/ and sens/y functions below level of injury. Paralysis includes trunk, legs, and pelvic /gans, w/partial / total paralysis in upper extremities. higher trauma, m/e debilitating are mot/ and sens/y impairments.

Question 150

Parkinson disease

Answer 150

Progressive, degenerative neurological dis/der affecting p/tion of brain responsible f/ controlling movement; AKA: paralysis agitans. unnecessary skeletal muscle movements of Parkinson disease commonly interfere w/voluntary movement—f/ example, causing hand to shake (called “trem/”), most common symptom of Parkinson disease.

Question 151

patent ductus arteriosus

Answer 151

Failure of ductus arteriosus to close after birth, resulting in an abn/mal opening between pulmonary artery and aorta

Question 152

peritonitis

Answer 152

Bacterial / fungal infection of peritoneum that can result from any rupture (perf/ation) in abdomen / as a complication of / medical conditions. Treatment includes antibiotics and, in some cases, surgery. If left untreated, peritonitis can lead to severe, potentially life-threatening infection throughout body.

Question 153

pertussis

Answer 153

Acute infectious cough w/a sound like a “whoop”; AKA: whooping cough; Immunization of infants ( diphria, pertussis, tetanus (DPT) vaccine.

Question 154

pheochromocytoma

Answer 154

Rare adrenal gland tum/ that causes excessive release of epinephrine (adrenaline) and n/epinephrine (h/mones that regulate heart rate and blood pressure) and induces severe blood pressure elevation

Question 155

phimosis

Answer 155

Stenosis/narrowness of preputial orifice; foreskin cannot be pushed back over glans penis

Question 156

photophobia

Answer 156

Unusual intolerance and sensitivity to light. Photophobia occurs in such dis/ders as meningitis, eye inflammation, measles, and rubella.

Question 157

pleural effusion

Answer 157

Abn/mal presence of fluid in pleural cavity; Fluid may contain blood (hemoth/ax), serum (hydroth/ax), pus (pyoth/ax). Tx: - surgical puncture of chest w/ hollow-b/e needle (th/acentesis, th/acocentesis) to remove fluid.

Question 158

pleural mesothelioma

Answer 158

Aggressive, rare, develops in pleura (mesolium layer) caused primarily by inhalation of microscopic asbestos fibers.

Question 159

pleural rub

Answer 159

Grating sound of pleural linings rubbing against each / that is heard on auscultation; AKA: friction rub; diagnose pleurisy, pneumonia, condition occurs when pleural layers are inflamed , and lost lubrication.

Question 160

pneumothorax

Answer 160

Collection of air in pleural cavity, causing complete / partial collapse of a lung; Can occur w/ pulmonary disease (emphysema, lung CA, / TB) when pulmonary lesions rupture near pleural surface, / from open chest wound / perf/ation of chest wall - permits entrance air.

Question 161

poliomyelitis

Answer 161

Disease in which gray matter of spinal c/d is destroyed by a slow-acting virus, eventually leading to paralysis and muscular atrophy. Vaccines have made poliomyelitis, commonly known as polio, relatively uncommon in United States. Neverless, postpolio syndrome is a complication that develops in some patients, usually 30 or mor years after first infected. Muscles that were already weak may get weaker. Weakness may also develop in muscles that were not affected before.

Question 162

polyp

Answer 162

Small, stalklike growth that resembles a mushroom and protrudes upward / outward from a mucous membrane surface. Polyps detected during colonoscopy are excised (polypectomy) and biopsy specimen sent to lab/at/y f/ microscopic tissue examination. This test is used to screen f/ CA / abn/mal cells.

Question 163

presbycusis

Answer 163

Impairment of hearing that results from aging process

Question 164

psoriasis

Answer 164

Autoimmune disease characterized by itchy red patches covered w/silvery scales. genetically determined/lifelong condition. TX: control symptoms, include- topical treatments (lubricants/retinoids/c/ticosteroids/saltwater immersions); systemic treatments (UV light rapy/excimer light rapy).

Question 165

rales

Answer 165

Fine, crackling / bubbling sounds, heard during inspiration - fluid in alveoli; AKA: crackles; EXs bronchitis/pneumonia/heart failure (HF). Rales not clear after cough may indicate pulmonary edema/fluid in alveoli caused by HF / ARDS.

Question 166

Raynaud disease

Answer 166

Vascular disorder - fingers/toes become cold/numb/painful - result of temporary constriction of blood vessels in skin. Trigg’d by cold temperatures/emotional stress.

Question 167

retinal detachment

Answer 167

Separation of retina from ch/oid, which disrupts vision and results in blindness if not repaired. Retinal detachment may follow trauma, ch/oidal hem/rhages, / tum/s and may be associated w/diabetes mellitus.

Question 168

rheumatic heart disease

Answer 168

Streptococcal infection that causes damage to heart valves and heart muscle, most commonly in children and young adults

Question 169

rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

Answer 169

Chronic, systemic, inflammat/y disease affecting synovial membranes of multiple joints, eventually resulting in crippling def/mities (See Figure 10-14.). As RA develops, congestion and edema of synovial membrane and joint occur, causing f/mation of a thick layer of granulation tissue. This tissue invades cartilage, destroying joint and bone. Eventually, a fibrous immobility of joints (ankylosis) occurs, causing visible def/mities and total immobility.

Question 170

rhonchi

Answer 170

Sn/ing, rumbling sounds heard upon auscultation of chest during respiration; Indicate inflammation / congestion of bronchi caused by inflammation, mucus, f/eign body that partially obstructs bronchi.

Question 171

rotator cuff injury

Answer 171

Trauma to capsule of shoulder joint, which is reinf/ced by muscles and tendons; AKA: musculotendinous rotat/ cuff injury. Rotat/ cuff injuries that occur in sp/ts and in which re is a complete abduction of shoulder, followed by a rapid and f/ceful rotation and flexion of shoulder. This type of injury occurs most commonly in baseball when player throws ball.

Question 172

scabies

Answer 172

Contagious skin disease transmitted by itch mite

Question 173

sciatica

Answer 173

Severe pain in leg along course of sciatic nerve (travels from hip to foot)

Question 174

scoliosis

Answer 174

Abn/mal sideward curvature of spine to left / right. Scoliosis eventually causes back pain, disk disease, / arthritis. It is commonly a congenital disease but may result from po/ posture. (See Figure 10-16.)

Question 175

seizure

Answer 175

Abn/mal, uncontrolled discharge of electrical activity in brain, which is commonly a symptom of underlying brain pathology; AKA: convulsion. Chronic, recurrent seizures are a characteristic symptom of epilepsy.

Question 176

Seizure - absence (petit mal)

Answer 176

Seizure - few seconds/sudden/loss of consciousness. May be many during day

Question 177

Seizure - tonic-clonic (grand mal)

Answer 177

Seizure characterized by unconsciousness w/excessive mot/ activity and body alternating between excessive muscle tone w/rigidity (tonic) and involuntary muscular contractions (clonic) in extremities. Tonic-clonic seizures last about 1 to 2 minutes. / symptoms include tongue biting, difficulty breathing, and incontinence. recovery after a seizure is known as postictal period.

Question 178

hearing loss - sensorineural

Answer 178

Caused by permanent/temporary damage to sensory cells/nerve fibers of inner ear

Question 179

septicemia

Answer 179

Systemic disease caused by infection w/micro/ganisms and ir toxins in circulating blood; AKA: sepsis and blood poisoning. If a patient becomes “septic,” he / she will likely have low blood pressure leading to po/ circulation. Septicemia can develop as a result of body’s own defense system / from toxic substances made by infecting agent (e.g., a bacterium, virus, / fungus).

Question 180

sequestrum

Answer 180

Fragment of a necrosed bone that has become separated from surrounding tissue

Question 181

otis media (OM) - serous

Answer 181

Noninfectious inflammation of middle ear w/accumulation of serum (clear fluid). Treatment f/ serous OM may include myringotomy to aspirate fluid and surgical insertion of pressure-equalizing (PE) tubes. (See Figure 11-7.)

Question 182

sexually transmitted infections (STIs)

Answer 182

Any disease that may be acquired as result of sexual intercourse / intimate contact w/an infected individual; affects male / female reproductive systems

Question 183

shingles

Answer 183

Eruption of acute, inflammat/y, herpetic vesicles on trunk of body along a peripheral nerve that is caused by herpes zoster virus. Shingles is a viral infection that causes a painful rash and is same virus that causes chickenpox.

Question 184

skin lesion

Answer 184

Area of pathologically altered tissue caused by disease, injury, / a wound caused by external fact/s / internal disease; Evaluation helps establish diagnosis of skin dis/ders. Described as primary/secondary.

Question 185

spina bifida

Answer 185

Congenital neural tube defect characterized by incomplete closure of spinal canal; spinal c/d and meninges may / may not protrude through defect. Spina bifida usually occurs in lumbosacral area and has several f/ms. (See Figure 9-16.)

Question 186

spina bifida cystica

Answer 186

More severe type - involves protrusion of meninges (meningocele), spinal cord (myelocele), / both (meningomyelocele). severity of neurological dysfunction directly related to degree of nerve involvement.

Question 187

spina bifida occulta

Answer 187

Most common / least severe form w/out protrusion of spinal cord / meninges

Question 188

spondylolisthesis

Answer 188

Partial f/ward dislocation of one vertebra over one below it, most commonly 5th lumbar vertebra over 1st sacral vertebra; AKA: spinal c/d compression

Question 189

sprain

Answer 189

Trauma to joint causes injury to surrounding ligament, accompanied by pain/disability

Question 190

sterility

Answer 190

Inability of a woman to become pregnant / f/ a man to impregnate a woman

Question 191

STI - chlamydia

Answer 191

Sexually transmitted bacterial infection -causes cervicitis - women, urethritis/epididymitis in men. Chlamydial infection - highly prevalent, among most potentially damaging of all STIs. Antibiotics - cure nfection. Left untreated, leads to PID/infertility in women.

Question 192

STI - gonorrhea

Answer 192

Sexually transmitted bacterial infection of mucous membrane of genital tract in men and women. Gon/rheal infection results from anal, vaginal, / /al sex w/an infected partner. It can also be passed on from an infected m/ to her infant during birth process (as baby passes through vaginal canal). Gon/rhea and chlamydia commonly occur toger. Both partners are treated f/ se infections w/antibiotics.

Question 193

STI - herpes genitalis

Answer 193

Highly contagious viral infection of male and female genitalia that is transmitted by direct contact w/infected body secretions (usually through sexual intercourse) and differs from / STIs in that it can recur spontaneously once virus has been acquired; AKA: venereal herpes. Herpes genitalis is most commonly caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2. Treatment is symptomatic, which means that meds are given to ↓ symptoms of swelling and pain. re is no cure f/ genital herpes. A particularly life-threatening f/m of disease can occur in infants infected by virus during vaginal birth.

Question 194

STI - human papillomavirus (HPV)

Answer 194

Infection of genital areas of men and women, including penis, vulva, and anus, as well as rectal, cervical, and vaginal linings. re are over 40 types of HPV infections. One type, genital warts, causes CA of cervix in females and penile cancer in males. A vaccine that protects against four types of HPV is available f/ young males and females at age 11 years.

Question 195

STI - syphilis

Answer 195

Infectious, chronic STI characterized initially by skin lesions (chancres), typically on genitals, rectum, / mouth. Syphilis may exist w/out symptoms f/ years- cause long-term complications, including death, if not tx’d. - can be transmitted from mother to fetus, causing multiple, severe health problems f/ baby. Penicillin, intramuscularly / IV, is antibiotic of choice f/ tx. of all stages of syphilis.

Question 196

STI - trichomoniasis

Answer 196

Infection of vagina / male genital tract - commonly causes vaginitis/urethritis/cystitis. Most common asymptomatic STI. Tx: single /al dose of combined antibacterial/antiprotozoal medication.

Question 197

strabismus

Answer 197

Muscular eye dis/der - eyes turn from n/mal position (deviate in different directions). F/ms of strabismus referred to as tropias - direction being indicated by appropriate prefix, EXS: esotropia/exotropia.

Question 198

strain

Answer 198

Trauma to a muscle from overuse / excessive f/cible stretch in which great toe is angled laterally toward / toes.

Question 199

stridor

Answer 199

High-pitched, musical breathing sound made on inspiration and caused by obstruction in pharynx / larynx, commonly heard w/out use of a stethoscope; characteristic of croup. Also caused by allergic reaction, airway injury, throat abscess, laryngitis.

Question 200

subluxation

Answer 200

Partial / complete dislocation

Question 201

sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)

Answer 201

Completely unexpected and unexplained death of an apparently healthy infant; AKA: crib death; SIDS is most common cause of death occurring between second week and first year of life.

Question 202

otis media (OM) - suppurative

Answer 202

Inflammation of middle ear w/pus f/mation. Suppurative OM is a common affliction in infants and young children caused by h/izontal /ientation and small diameter of eustachian tube in such patients, which predisposes m to infection. If left untreated, complications include ruptured tympanic membrane, mastoiditis, labyrinthitis, hearing loss, and meningitis.

Question 203

systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

Answer 203

Chronic inflammat/y autoimmune disease , unusual antibodies in blood target tissues, butterfly rash on face. Sensitivity to sunlight, fatigue, joint pain. Tx: anti-inflammat/ies, immuno↓ives, c/ticosteroids. Rash gets w/se -exposed sunlight.

Question 204

talipes equinovarus

Answer 204

Congenital def/mity of foot; AKA: clubfoot (See Figure 10-15.). In talipes, heel never rests on ground. Treatment consists of applying casts to progressively straighten foot and surgical c/rection f/ severe cases.

Question 205

tinea

Answer 205

Fungal infection whose name commonly indicates body part affected; AKA: ringw/m; Exs: barbae (beard)/tinea c/p/is (body)/tinea pedis (athlete’s foot)/tinea versicol/ (skin)?and tinea cruris (jock itch).

Question 206

tinnitus

Answer 206

Ringing / tinkling noise heard constantly / intermittently in one / both ears, even in a quiet environment. Tinnitus may be a sign of injury to ear, some disease process, / toxic levels of some meds (e.g., aspirin).

Question 207

torticollis

Answer 207

Spasmodic contraction of neck muscles, causing stiffness and twisting of neck; AKA: wryneck. T/ticollis may be congenital / acquired.

Question 208

toxic shock syndrome (TSS)

Answer 208

Rare and sometimes fatal Staphylococcus infection that generally occurs in menstruating women, most of whom use vaginal tampons f/ menstrual protection. In TSS, n/mally harmless vaginal bacterium Staphylococcus aureus multiplies in old blood in tampon and releases toxins. tampon itself creates small tears in vaginal wall that allow toxins to enter bloodstream.

Question 209

transient ischemic attack (TIA)

Answer 209

Sh/t episodes neurological dysfunction caused by temp/ary interference w/blood supply to brain, lasting few minutes - few hours; AKA: ministroke TIAs may recur, each TIA ↑s risk of stroke. Neurological symptoms vary, depending on amount of ischemia and location of vessels involved. TIA does not destroy brain cells / cause permanent disability.

Question 210

ulcer

Answer 210

Lesion of skin / mucous membranes marked by inflammation, necrosis, and sloughing of damaged tissues; Causes - trauma/caustic chemicals/ intense heat/ cold, arterial/ venous stasis/cancers /drugs/ infectious agents

Question 211

ulcer - pressure ulcer

Answer 211

Skin ulceration caused by prolonged pressure, usually in a person who is bedridden; also known as decubitus ulcer / beds/e; skin overlying bony projection (hip/ ankle/ heel/ shoulder/ elbow.

Question 212

urticaria

Answer 212

Allergic reaction of skin characterized by eruption of pale red elevated patches that are intensely itchy; AKA: wheals / hives

Question 213

verruca

Answer 213

Rounded epidermal growths caused by a virus; AKA: wart; Exs: plantar warts/ juvenile warts/ venereal warts. Tx: cryosurgery/ electrocautery/ acids; may regrow if virus remains in skin.

Question 214

vertigo

Answer 214

Sensation of moving around in space / a feeling of spinning / dizziness. Vertigo - results from damage - inner ear structure - associated w/balance and equilibrium.

Question 215

vitiligo

Answer 215

Localized loss of skin pigmentation characterized by milk-white patches; AKA: leukoderma

Question 216

volvulus

Answer 216

Twisting of bowel on itself, causing obstruction. Volvulus usually requires surgery to untwist loop of bowel.

Question 217

wheezes

Answer 217

Continuous, high-pitched whistling sounds, usually heard during expiration and caused by narrowing of an airway; Occur in asthma, croup, hay fever, emphysema.

Question 218

Wilms tumor

Answer 218

Malignant neoplasm of kidney that occurs in young children, usually bef/e age 5 years; AKA: nephroblastoma. most common early signs of Wilms tum/ are hypertension, a palpable mass, pain, and hematuria.

Question 219

amniocentesis

Answer 219

Obstetric procedure that involves surgical puncture of amniotic sac under ultrasound guidance to remove amniotic fluid. In amniocentesis, cells of fetus found in fluid are cultured and studied to detect genetic abn/malities and maternal–fetal blood incompatibility.

Question 220

arterial blood gas (ABG)

Answer 220

Measurement of O2 and CO2 content of arterial blood by using various methods; Used to assess adequacy of ventilation / oxygenation and acid–base status of body.

Question 221

arthrocentesis

Answer 221

Puncture of a joint space w/a needle to remove fluid. Arthrocentesis is perf/med to obtain samples of synovial fluid f/ diagnostic purposes. It may also be used to instill meds and remove accumulated fluid from joints to ↓ pain.

Question 222

audiometry

Answer 222

Test that measures hearing acuity at various sound frequencies. In audiometry, an instrument called an audiometer delivers acoustic stimuli at different frequencies, and results are plotted on a graph called an audiogram.

Question 223

barium enema (BE)

Answer 223

Radiographic examination of rectum and colon after administration of barium (radiopaque contrast medium) into rectum; AKA: lower GI series. BE is used f/ diagnosis of obstructions, tum/s, and / abn/malities of colon. (See Figure 6-16.)

Question 224

barium swallow

Answer 224

Radiographic examination of esophagus, stomach, and small intestine after /al administration of barium (radiopaque contrast medium); AKA: upper GI series. Barium swallow is commonly perf/med in patients experiencing dysphagia. Structural abn/malities of esophagus, stomach, and small intestine may also be diagnosed by using this technique.

Question 225

biopsy (Bx, bx)

Answer 225

Removal of a small piece of living tissue from an /gan / / part of body f/ microscopic examination to confirm / establish a diagnosis, estimate prognosis, / follow course of a disease; Types of biopsy - aspiration biopsy/ needle biopsy/ punch biopsy/ shave biopsy/ frozen-section biopsy.

Question 226

blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Answer 226

Lab/at/y test that measures amount of urea (nitrogenous waste product) in blood and demonstrates kidneys’ ability to filter urea from blood f/ excretion in urine. An ↑ in BUN level may indicate impaired kidney function.

Question 227

bone density test (bone densitometry)

Answer 227

Low energy x-ray abs/ption of wrist, pelvis, and spinal column to measure bone density f/ purposes of diagnosis and management of osteop/osis; AKA: dual-energy x-ray abs/ptiometry (DEXA)

Question 228

bone marrow aspiration biopsy

Answer 228

Removal of living bone marrow tissue, usually taken from sternum / iliac crest. Bone marrow aspiration biopsy evaluates hematopoiesis- reveals number, shape, size of RBCs, WBCs, platelet precurs/s

Question 229

bone scan

Answer 229

Nuclear medicine procedure that visualizes bone(s) after intravenous injection of a radiopharmaceutical. A special scanning device detects areas of ↑d uptake of radiopharamaceutical to indicate abn/malities of bone, such as infection, inflammation, fractures, and tum/s.

Question 230

bronchoscopy

Answer 230

Visual exam of interi/ bronchi using bronchoscope (flexible fiber-optic instrument w/ light, can be inserted through nose / mouth ;may be perf/med - remove obstructions, obtain biopsy specimen, observe f/ pathological changes.

Question 231

cardiac catheterization (CC)

Answer 231

Insertion of cater into heart through vein/artery (usually arm (brachial approach) / leg (fem/al approach) . May inject contrast medium, take radiographs (angiography).Used mainly in diagnosing/evaluating congenital, rheumatic, c/onary arterial lesions, including MI.

Question 232

cardiac enzyme studies

Answer 232

Measure levels of enzymes/proteins in blood; levels ↑ w/ injury to heart muscle (Ex: heart attack). Determine angina, sh/tness of breath, abn/mal electrocardiography indicate a heart attack / imminent heart attack.

Question 233

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis

Answer 233

Lab/at/y test in which CSF obtained through a lumbar puncture is evaluated macroscopically f/ clarity and col/, microscopically f/ cells, and chemically f/ proteins and / substances. CSF analysis helps detect bacteria, viruses, and tum/ cells. analysis also helps diagnose tum/s, infection, / multiple sclerosis (MS).

Question 234

colposcopy

Answer 234

Examination of vagina and cervix w/an optical magnifying instrument (colposcope). Colposcopy is commonly perf/med after a Pap test to obtain biopsy specimens of cervix and identify abn/mal cervical tissue.

Question 235

computed tomography (CT)

Answer 235

Tomography - narrow beam of x-ray rotates in full arc around patient to acquire multiple views of body, computer interprets to produce cross-sectional images of internal /gan / tissue; AKA: computerized axial tomography (CAT) scanning. CT detects kidney stones, obstructions, renal masses, urinary dis/ders, lesions in lungs / th/ax, blood clots, pulmonary embolism. CT may be perf/med w/ / w/out contrast medium.

Question 236

craniotomy

Answer 236

Surgical procedure that creates an opening in skull to gain access to brain during neurosurgical procedures. A craniotomy is also perf/med to ↓ intracranial pressure, control bleeding, / remove a tum/.

Question 237

creatinine clearance

Answer 237

Lab/at/y test that measures rate at which creatinine is cleared from blood by kidney. Creatinine clearance is most common, most precise test that uses blood and urine samples to assess kidney function.

Question 238

culture and sensitivity (C&S)

Answer 238

Lab/at/y test of a body fluid placed on a culture medium to identify cause of an infection (usually a bacterium) and a sensitivity test that determines which antibiotic drug will w/k best to treat infection. A C&S test may be done on many different body fluids, such as urine, mucus, blood, pus, saliva, spinal fluid, / discharge from vagina / penis.

Question 239

digital rectal examination (DRE)

Answer 239

Examination of prostate gland by finger palpation through anal canal and rectum. DRE is usually perf/med during physical examination to detect prostate enlargement. It is also used to check f/ problems w//gans / / structures in pelvis and lower abdomen. (See Figure 8-21.)

Question 240

echocardiography

Answer 240

Uses ultrasound to evaluate heart / great vessels - diagnose cardiovascular lesions

Question 241

electrocardiography (ECG, EKG)

Answer 241

Creation/study of graphic rec/ds (electrocardiograms) produced by electric activity of heart muscle; AKA: cardiography. Valuable in diagnosing abn/mal heart rhythm / myocardial damage

Question 242

electroencephalography (EEG)

Answer 242

Diagnostic procedure in which electrodes on scalp rec/d patterns of electrical activity within brain. EEG helps evaluate seizure dis/ders, periods of unconsciousness, and sleep dis/ders; monit/s brain during brain surgery; and determines if a person is in a coma / is brain dead. (See Figure 9-17.)

Question 243

endoscopy

Answer 243

Visual examination of nteri/ of /gans/cavities w/ specialized lighted instrument (endoscope). /gan, cavity, / canal being examined dictates name of endoscopic procedure. A camera and video rec/der are commonly used during procedure to provide a permanent rec/d. Endoscopy can also help obtain tissue samples f/ biopsy, perf/m surgery, and monit/ course of a disease, as in assessment of healing of gastric ulcers. cavity / /gan examined dictates name of endoscopic procedure, such as gastroscopy and bronchoscopy. Use of a camera and video rec/der is common to provide a permanent rec/d.

Question 244

endoscopy - lower GI

Answer 244

Endoscopy of colon (colonoscopy), sigmoid colon (sigmoidoscopy), and rectum and anal canal (proctoscopy). Endoscopy of lower GI tract is used to identify pathological conditions in colon. It may also be used to remove polyps. When polyps are discovered in colon, y are removed and tested f/ CA.

Question 245

endoscopy - upper GI

Answer 245

Endoscopy of esophagus (esophagoscopy), stomach (gastroscopy), and duodenum (duodenoscopy). Endoscopy of upper GI tract is perf/med to identify tum/s, esophagitis, gastroesophageal varices, peptic ulcers, and source of upper GI bleeding. It is also used to confirm presence and extent of varices in lower esophagus and stomach in patients w/liver disease.

Question 246

enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)

Answer 246

Blood test - detects antibodies in blood, including screening f/ antibody to HIV. Positive result- probable virus exposure. Confirmed w/ Western blot test, which is m/e specific

Question 247

fasting blood glucose (FBG)

Answer 247

Measures glucose levels in blood after PT fasting (not eaten) (8 hours); AKA: fasting blood sugar (FBS). Helps determine if pancreas secreting normal amount of insulin and diagnose / pancreatic dis/ders (diabetes/hypoglycemia)

Question 248

fluoroscopy - radiographic procedure

Answer 248

Uses fluorescent screen instead of photographic plate to produce visual image from x-rays that pass through patient, resulting in continuous imaging of motion of internal structures and immediate serial images. It permits radiographer to observe /gans (digestive tract/heart) in motion. Also used during intrauterine fetal transfusion/biopsy/nasogastric tube placement/cardiac caterization.

Question 249

glucose tolerance test (GTT)

Answer 249

Screening test - patient fasts f/ 8 - 12 HRS., ingests glucose, and n undergoes blood draws determine how quickly glucose is cleared from blood; AKA: /al glucose tolerance test (OGTT). GTT helps diagnose diabetes w/higher accuracy compared w// blood glucose tests. It also helps diagnose gestational diabetes / rarer dis/ders of carbohydrate metabolism.

Question 250

Holter monitor

Answer 250

Device w/n - records prolonged electrocardiograph readings (24 hours) on portable tape rec/der of normal daily activities. Record of cardiac arrhythmia otherwise not discovered with an ECG of only a few minutes’ duration. PT keeps an activity diary to compare daily events w/ electrocardiographic tracings.

Question 251

insulin pump therapy

Answer 251

A small, computerized device continuously delivering precise doses of insulin through a cater placed under skin. pump replaces need f/ frequent injections by delivering precise doses of insulin 24 hours per day to match body’s needs closely. A health care professional determines programmed rate. (See Figure 9-19.)

Question 252

intravenous fluorescein angiography (IVFA)

Answer 252

Imaging technique used to study retinal blood vessels and circulation of blood in retina using photographs of retina after injection of a flu/escent dye. IVFA produces images that show retinal blood flow and an angiogram that helps detect vascular changes in diabetic retinopathy, macular degeneration, and retinal vascular disease, as well as / types of macular disease.

Question 253

laparoscopy

Answer 253

Visual examination of abdominal cavity w/a laparoscope through one / m/e small incisions in abdominal wall, usually at umbilicus (See Figure 8-19.). Laparoscopy is used f/ inspection of ovaries and fallopian tubes, diagnosis of endometriosis, destruction of uterine leiomyomas, myomectomy, and gynecological sterilization.

Question 254

lipid panel

Answer 254

Panel of blood tests measuring cholesterol components to assess risk of heart disease.Consists of total cholesterol, high-density lipoprotein (HDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL), triglycerides.

Question 255

lumbar puncture (LP)

Answer 255

Insertion of a needle into subarachnoid space of spinal column at level of fourth intervertebral space to withdraw CSF to perf/m various diagnostic and rapeutic procedures; AKA: spinal tap / spinal puncture. In lumbar puncture, CSF flows through needle and is collected and sent to lab/at/y f/ analysis. rapeutic procedures include withdrawing CSF to ↓ intracranial pressure, introducing a local anestic to induce spinal anessia, and administering intracal meds.

Question 256

lymphangiography

Answer 256

Radiographic examination of lymph glands / lymphatic vessels after injection of contrast medium; Identifies enlarged lymph nodes, lymphomas, areas of blocked lymphatic drainage. Because lymph nodes filter /trap CA cells, this test commonly used to determine lymph flow in areascontaining malignancy.

Question 257

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Answer 257

Radiographic procedure that uses electromagnetic energy to produce multiplanar cross-sectional images of body; MRI does not require a contrast medium; however, one may be used to enhance visualization of internal structures

Question 258

magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Answer 258

Electromagnetic energy produce multiplanar cross-sectional images of body. MRI of brain produces cross-sectional, frontal, sagittal plane views. Considered superi/ to CT f/ detecting most CNS abn/malities, particularlyof brainstem / spinal c/d, musculoskeletal system, pelvic area. A contrast medium not required but may be used to enhance visualization. ,. MRI produces scan of chest and lungs.

Question 259

magnetoencephalography (MEG)

Answer 259

Noninvasive functional imaging technique in which magnetic f/ces associated w/ electrical activity of brain are rec/ded externally on scalp. When data from an MEG are superimposed on an anatomical image of brain, typically an MRI scan, it produces a functional, anatomical image of brain called magnetic source imaging (MSI). MSI aids in presurgical evaluation of patients w/epilepsy to identify and localize areas of epileptic activity. MSI results in a high-resolution image that provides a direct measure of brain function.

Question 260

mammography

Answer 260

Radiography of breast used to diagnose benign and malignant tum/s

Question 261

nuclear scan - renal nuclear scan

Answer 261

Nuclear scan that determines renal function and shape

Question 262

nuclear scan

Answer 262

Radiographic technique that produces images of an /gan / area of body by introducing a radionuclide substance (tracer / radiopharmaceutical) that releases a low level of radiation; AKA: nuclear scanning, radionuclide imaging, and nuclear medicine scan. Nuclear scan uses a very small amount of radioactivity and is not known to cause harm. amount of radioactivity used in a nuclear scan is very small and is not known to cause harm. Can help determine renal function and shape

Question 263

otoscopy

Answer 263

Visual exam - external auditory canal / tympanic membrane by using an otoscope

Question 264

Papanicolaou (Pap) test

Answer 264

Microscopic analysis of cells taken from cervix and vagina to detect presence of carcinoma. Cells are obtained f/ a Pap test via insertion of a vaginal speculum and use of a swab to scrape a small tissue sample from cervix and vagina.

Question 265

otoscopy - pneumatic

Answer 265

Otoscopic procedure that assesses ability of tympanic membrane to move in response to a change in air pressure. In pneumatic otoscopy, ↑ and ↓ in pressure cause healthy tympanic membrane to move in and out. Lack of movement indicates ↑d impedance / eardrum perf/ation.

Question 266

polysomnography (PSG)

Answer 266

Test that diagnoses sleep dis/ders by rec/ding various aspects of sleep, such as eye and muscle movements, respiration, and EEG patterns; Electrodes on head, face, fingers brain waves, heart rate, breathing, including eye / leg movements

Question 267

positron emission tomography (PET)

Answer 267

Radiographic technique that combines CT w/radiopharmaceuticals to produce a cross-sectional (transverse) image of distribution of radioactivity (through emission of positrons) in a section of body, revealing areas where radiopharmaceutical is metabolized and where metabolism is deficient. PET aids in diagnosis of neurological dis/ders, such as brain tum/s, epilepsy, stroke, and Alzheimer disease, as well as abdominal and pulmonary dis/ders.

Question 268

pulmonary function tests (PFTs)

Answer 268

Group of tests that measure capacity of lungs and volume of air during inhalation and exhalation; diagnose lung diseases, measure severity of lung impairments, check progress of lung disease treatment

Question 269

pyelography

Answer 269

Radiographic study of kidney, ureters, and, usually, bladder after injection of a contrast agent. A contrast medium is injected into a vein (intravenous pyelography) / through a cater placed through urethra, bladder, / ureter and into renal pelvis (retrograde pyelography).

Question 270

pyelography - intravenous pyelography (IVP)

Answer 270

Radiographic imaging in which a contrast medium is injected intravenously and serial x-ray films are taken to provide visualization of entire urinary tract; AKA: intravenous urography (IVU) / excret/y urography (EU). In IVP, x-ray image produced is known as a pyelogram / urogram.

Question 271

pyelography - retrograde pyelography (RP)

Answer 271

Radiographic imaging in which a contrast medium is introduced through a cystoscope directly into bladder and ureters using small-caliber caters. RP provides detailed visualization of urinary collecting system (pelvis and calyces of kidney as well as ureters). It helps locate any urinary tract obstruction. It may also serve as a substitute f/ IVP when a patient is allergic to contrast medium.

Question 272

radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU) test

Answer 272

Imaging procedure measures levels of radioactivity in thyroid gland after /al / intravenous administration of radioactive iodine. RAIU helps determine thyroid function by monit/ing thyroid’s ability to take up (uptake) iodine from blood.

Question 273

tuning fork test - Rinne

Answer 273

Tuning f/k test that evaluates bone conduction of sound in one ear at a time; AKA: air and bone conduction hearing test. Rinne test is useful f/ differentiating between conductive hearing loss and sens/ineural hearing loss.

Question 274

skin test

Answer 274

Method f/ determining induced sensitivity (allergy) by applying / inoculating a suspected allergen / sensitizer into skin and determining sensitivity (allergy) to specific antigen by an inflammat/y skin reaction to it; most common skin tests - intradermal, patch, scratch tests.

Question 275

slit-lamp examination

Answer 275

Eye evaluation - stereoscopic (three-dimensional) view of eye’s interior w/use of a binocular microscope (slit lamp) of a high-intensity light source - accentuate anatomical structure of eye, allowing close inspection. slit lamp provides greater magnification (10–25 times) and illumination than most handheld devices.

Question 276

spirometry (pulomonary function test (PFT’s)

Answer 276

Lung function test - measures/rec/ds volume/rate of inhaled/exhaled air; Assess pulmonary function w/spirometer; Most useful assessing f/ obstructive lung diseases - asthma/COPD

Question 277

stool guaiac

Answer 277

Lab/at/y test perf/med on feces to detect presence of blood in stool (bowel movement) that is not apparent on visual inspection; AKA: hemoccult test

Question 278

stress test

Answer 278

ECG is rec/ded under controlled exercise conditions (typically using a treadmill) to determine heart’s response to physical exertion (stress). May show abn/mal ECG tracings that do not appear during an ECG taken when patient is resting.

Question 279

stress test - nuclear

Answer 279

Stress test that uses a radioisotope to evaluate c/onary blood flow. Radioisotope is injected aight of exercise. Area not receiving sufficient O2 is visualized by ↓d uptake of isotope.

Question 280

thalamotomy

Answer 280

Partial destruction of thalamus to treat psychosis, intractable pain, / involuntary movements, including trem/s in Parkinson disease

Question 281

tissue typing

Answer 281

Determines histocompatibility of tissues used in grafts and transplants w/ recipient’s tissues and cells; also known as histocompatibility testing

Question 282

tomography

Answer 282

Any of several radiographic procedures in which specialized machines produce a film representing a detailed cross section, / slice (cut), of an area, tissue, / /gan. identify space-occupying lesions - in liver, brain, pancreas, gallbladder. Types - include PET , CT, SPECT.

Question 283

tonometry

Answer 283

Test to measure ↑d intraocular pressure (IOP) to detect glaucoma. Tonometry is perf/med w/ slit lamp, but also uses a sens/ to depress c/nea / a sh/t burst of air directed at c/nea to measure IOP.

Question 284

transrectal ultrasound (TRUS) and biopsy of the prostate

Answer 284

ultrasound probe inserted into rectum - obtain image of prostate gland / collect multiple needle biopsy specimens of gland tissues where abnormalities are detected. High-frequency sound waves are rec/ded and transf/med into video / photographic images of prostate gland. If CA is identified, physician will be able to grade CA and determine its aggressiveness / likelihood of spreading.

Question 285

transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

Answer 285

Minimally invasive endoscopic surgery that removes pituitary tum/s through nasal cavity via sphenoid sinus (transsphenoidal) w/out affecting brain tissue. Although most tum/s can be removed via transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, some large tum/s may need to be removed via transfrontal craniotomy (entry through frontal bone of skull).

Question 286

trephination

Answer 286

Excision of a circular disk of bone using a specialized saw, called a trephine, to reveal brain tissue during neurosurgery / to ↓ intracranial pressure

Question 287

troponin I

Answer 287

Blood test measures protein released into blood by damaged heart muscle (not skeletal muscle). Highly sensitive and specific indicat/ of recent MI.

Question 288

tuning fork test

Answer 288

Hearing test that uses a turning f/k (instrument that produces constant pitch when struck) that is struck and n placed against / near bones on side of head to assess nerve and bone conduction of sound. re are two types of tuning f/k tests: Rinne test and Weber test.

Question 289

Ultrasonography - Doppler

Answer 289

Assess blood flow through blood vessels /heart; AKA: ultrasonography using sound pitch. Detects alterations in blood flow caused by plaque / blood clots in arteries / veins. Diagnose deep vein thrombosis (DVT), varicose veins, aneurysms, carotid artery occlusion, / vessel abn/malities.

Question 290

ultrasonography (US)

Answer 290

Radiographic procedure - small transducer passed over skin transmits high-frequency sound waves (ultrasound) that bounce off body tissues and rec/ded to produce an image of an internal /gan / tissue. Pelvic US is used to evaluate female reproductive /gans and fetus during pregnancy. Transvaginal US places sound probe in vagina, instead of across pelvis / abdomen, producing a sharper examination of n/mal and pathological structures within pelvis. US does not use ionizing radiation (x-ray). It is used to evaluate fetal development; examine internal structures of abdomen, brain, and heart; diagnose musculoskeletal dis/ders; and evaluate blood flow. (See Figure 2-11B.) rec/d produced by US is called a sonogram / echogram. US provides images of urinary tract structures and detects such abn/malities as tum/s, obstructions, and polycystic kidney disease. It also helps measure postvoid residual urine (urine that remains in bladder after urinating).

Question 291

visual acuity (VA) test

Answer 291

Examination that identifies smallest letters that can be c/rectly read on standardized Snellen vision chart from a distance of 20 feet. VA is expressed as a ratio. First number isdistance at which a person reads chart, second number is distance at which a person w/n/mal vision can read same chart. F/ example, 20/20 indicates that person c/rectly reads at 20 feet letters that can be read by a person w/n/mal vision at 20 feet. N/mal vision - 20/20.

Question 292

voiding cystourethrography (VCUG)

Answer 292

Radiography of bladder and urethra while bladder fills and empties. VCUG involves placement of a radiopaque liquid (that can be seen on a radiograph) in bladder through a cater. Radiographs taken bef/e, during, and after voiding reveal interi/ abn/malities of urethra and bladder and help determine wher urine flow is n/mal when bladder empties.

Question 293

tuning fork test - Weber

Answer 293

Tuning f/k test that evaluates bone conduction of sound in both ears at same time; AKA: conductive and sens/ineural hearing loss test. During Weber test, hearing sound equally in both ears indicates n/mal hearing.

Question 294

x-ray

Answer 294

High-energy electromagnetic waves (x-rays) pass through body onto a photographic film to produce an image of internal structures of body f/ diagnosis and rapeutic purposes; AKA: radiograph; Soft body tissues, such as stomach / liver, appear black / gray on x-ray; dense body tissues, such as bone, appear white, making it useful in diagnosing fractures. Figure 2-11A is a chest radiograph showing widening of mediastinum.

Question 295

endaterectomy - carotid

Answer 295

Endarterectomy of occluded carotid artery. ↓ risk of stroke on PT w/ mod/severe stenoses of artery, w/ w/out history of transient ischemic attacks (TIAs).

Question 296

??

Answer 296

Bariatric surgery in which upper stomach near esophagus is stapled vertically to ↓ it to a small pouch and a band is inserted that restricts and delays food from leaving pouch, causing a feeling of fullness

Question 297

allograft

Answer 297

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one person to an/ person; AKA: homograft

Question 298

anastomosis

Answer 298

Connection between two vessels, such as surgical joining of two ducts, blood vessels, / bowel segments, to allow flow from one to / (See Figure 2-14.)

Question 299

angioplasty

Answer 299

Endovascular procedure (under x-ray visualization) - widens / opens blocked c/onary arteries, rest/e blood flow to heart muscle; AKA: c/onary angioplasty. ↓s chest pain caused by ↓ blood flow to heart and minimizes damage to heart muscle caused by heart attack. C/onary artery stent may be placed to prevent closure of c/onary artery from arosclerotic lesion.

Question 300

angioplasty - percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (PTCA)

Answer 300

Balloon cater inserted/threaded thru fem/al /radial artery into blocked c/onary artery (narrowed because of arosclerosis). Balloon inflated and compresses plaque outward against wall of artery. Widens artery, rest/es blood flow. AKA: percutaneous c/onary intervention

Question 301

appendectomy

Answer 301

Surgical removal of infected appendix (appendicitis). Common emergency surgery - appendix must be removed quickly through RLQ incision. Delay in treatment - result in rupture of appendix, causing peritonitis - fecal matter enters peritoneal cavity. re are two types of appendectomies, but if no rupture has occurred, less invasive laparoscopic appendectomy is usually perf/med.

Question 302

appendectomy - laparoscopic

Answer 302

Less invasive appendectomy (1 - 3 tiny incisions) . Laparoscope has a small video camera/surgical tools, - placed into one of incisions while surgeon looks at TV monit/ to guide tools inside abdomen. Appendix removed through one of incisions. Laparoscopic surgery may ↓ recovery time.

Question 303

appendectomy - open

Answer 303

Excision of appendix through a 2- to 4-inch incision in RLQ of abdomen

Question 304

arthroplasty

Answer 304

Surgical reconstruction / replacement of a painful, degenerated joint to rest/e mobility in RA / osteoarthritis / to c/rect a congenital def/mity

Question 305

autograft

Answer 305

Transplantation of healthy tissue from one site to an/ site in same individual

Question 306

bariatric surger - vertical banded gastroplasty

Answer 306

Upper stomach near esophagus stapled vertically - ↓ it to small pouch; band inserted restricts/delays food from leaving pouch, causing a feeling of fullness

Question 307

bariatric surgery

Answer 307

Group of procedures that treat m/bid obesity. Commonly employed bariatric surgeries include vertical banded gastroplasty and RGB.

Question 308

bariatric surgery - Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (RGB)

Answer 308

Stomach stapled (↓ it to small pouch); jejunum shortened & connected to small pouch, causes base of duodenum at nonfunctioning portion of stomach to form a “Y” configuration (↓ pathway food through intestine, - reducing abs/ption of cal/ies/fats; AKA: gastric bypass w/gastroenterostomy. RGB performed laparoscopically/open procedure (laparotomy - large incision - middle of abdomen. RGB - most commonly perf/med weight loss surgery.

Question 309

bone marrow transplant (BMT)

Answer 309

Infusion (transplant) of healthy bone marrow stem cells - ↑ blood cell production, diseased bone marrow is destroyed by radiation/chem/apy drugs. Treat leukemia / lymphoma. Can be autologous (from patient’s own bone marrow) / allogenic (from a compatible don/).

Question 310

brachytherapy

Answer 310

Radiation oncology procedure where radioactive “seeds” are placed directly within / near a tum/ in prostate to destroy malignant cells

Question 311

cardioversion

Answer 311

Delivery of brief discharges of electricity that pass across chest to stop cardiac arrhythmia and rest/e n/mal sinus rhythm; AKA: defibrillation. Defibrillat/ is electrical device used f/ cardioversion

Question 312

cataract surgery

Answer 312

Excision of lens affected by cataract. Extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE) and phacoemulsification are two primary ways to remove cataracts. In both surgeries, central part of lens is removed/replaced w/ artificial intraocular lens (IOL) implant.

Question 313

cataract surgery - extracapsular cataract extraction (ECCE)

Answer 313

Excision of anteri/ segment of lens capsule along w/ lens, allowing f/ insertion of an IOL implant

Question 314

cataract surgery - phacoemulsification

Answer 314

Excision of lens - insert ultrasonic probe (sound waves break lens into particles - suctioned out of eye and IOL is implanted

Question 315

catheter ablation

Answer 315

Uses of radiofrequency energy to destroy small area of heart tissue causing arrhythmias; AKA: radiofrequency ablation

Question 316

catheterization (Cath)

Answer 316

Insertion of a cater (hollow flexible tube) into body cavity//gan to instill a substance/remove fluid, (most commonly thru urethra into bladder to withdraw urine. Caters - two basic types: a straight cater - used only f/ sh/t-term drainage; Foley cater-used f/ sh/t-term and long-term (indwelling) drainage.

Question 317

cauterize

Answer 317

Burning abn/mal tissue w/electricity/freezing/heat/chemicals (silver nitrate); Cauterization is usually perf/med to destroy damaged / diseased tissues / coagulate blood vessels.

Question 318

cerclage

Answer 318

Obstetric procedure - nonabs/bable suture used f/ holding cervix closed - prevent spontaneous ab/tion - woman who has an incompetent cervix

Question 319

chemical peel

Answer 319

Chemicals - remove outer layers skin - treat acne scarring/general keratoses, Cosmetic purposes - remove fine wrinkles on face; AKA: chemabrasion

Question 320

circumcision

Answer 320

Surgical removal of f/eskin/prepuce of penis, usually perf/med on male as infant

Question 321

cochlear implant

Answer 321

Electronic transmitter surgically implanted into cochlea of deaf person - rest/e hearing

Question 322

corneal transplant

Answer 322

Surgical transplantation of don/ c/nea (from cadaver) into eye of recipient; AKA: keratoplasty

Question 323

coronary artery bypass graft (CABG)

Answer 323

Bypass surgery creates new routes around narrowed/blocked arteries - allow sufficient blood flow to deliver O2/nutrients to heart muscle; AKA: c/onary artery bypass surgery (CABG). ↓ angina, ↓risk of death caused by c/onary artery disease. Arteries / veins from elsewhere in body are grafted to c/onary arteries to bypass arosclerotic narrowings / improve blood supply to c/onary circulation supplying myocardium.

Question 324

corticosteroids

Answer 324

Treat skin inflammation through anti-inflammat/y action

Question 325

craniotomy

Answer 325

Surgical procedure that creates an opening in skull to gain access to brain during neurosurgical procedures. A craniotomy is also perf/med to ↓ intracranial pressure, control bleeding, / remove a tum/.

Question 326

cryosurgery

Answer 326

Use of subfreezing temperature, commonly w/ liquid nitrogen, destroys abn/mal tissue - unwanted/cancerous/infected tissue

Question 327

cutaneous laser

Answer 327

Removal of acne scars/nevi/tattoos/fine wrinkles on skin through use of sandpaper/wire brushes// abrasive materials on epidermal layer

Question 328

débridement

Answer 328

Removal of f/eign material/dead/damaged tissue, especially in a wound, used to promote healing and prevent infection

Question 329

defibrillator

Answer 329

Device designed to administer defibrillating electric shock to rest/e n/mal SA; Two types: automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillat/s (AICDs) and automatic external defibrillat/s (AEDs).

Question 330

defibrillator - automatic external defibrillator (AED)

Answer 330

P/table computerized defibrillat/ that analyzes patient’s heart rhythm and delivers an electrical shock to ↑ a heart in cardiac arrest (CA)

Question 331

defibrillator - cardioverter-defibrillator (AICD)

Answer 331

P/table computerized defibrillat/ that analyzes patient’s heart rhythm and delivers an electrical shock to ↑ a heart in cardiac arrest (CA)

Question 332

defibrillator- automatic implantable

Answer 332

An AICD is implanted, usually in chest, in a patient who is at high risk f/ developing a serious arrhythmia. It has leads (wires) that go to heart, sense its rhythm, and deliver an electrical shock, if needed.

Question 333

dermabrasion

Answer 333

Removal of acne scars/nevi/tattoos/fine wrinkles through use of sandpaper/wire brushes// abrasive materials on epidermal layer

Question 334

dialysis

Answer 334

Mechanical filtering process used to clean blood of high concentrations of metabolic waste products, draw off excess fluids, and regulate body chemistry when kidneys fail to function properly. Two primary methods of dialysis are used to dialyze blood: hemodialysis and peritoneal dialysis.

Question 335

dialysis - hemodialysis (HD)

Answer 335

Process removing excess fluids/toxins from blood by continually shunting (diverting) patient’s blood from body into dialysis machine f/ filtering, and returning clean blood to patient’s body via tubes connected to circulat/y system

Question 336

dialysis - peritoneal dialysis (PD)

Answer 336

Uses peritoneum in abdomen as membrane - fluid/dissolved substances are Ex∆’d w/blood. Used to remove excess fluid/c/rect electrolyte problems/remove toxins in pt’s w/kidney failure.

Question 337

ear irrigation

Answer 337

Process of flushing external ear canal w/sterile water/sterile saline solution to treat patients who complain of f/eign body / cerumen (ear wax) impaction

Question 338

endarterectomy

Answer 338

Surgical removal of lining of an artery. Perf/med on almost any maj/ artery (carotid / fem/al )when diseased / blocked.

Question 339

endotracheal intubation

Answer 339

Insertion of endotracheal tube (ETT) through mouth/nose into trachea (windpipe) just above bronchi - provide air when unable to brea on own (airway obstruction/respirat/y failure) administer O2/medication/anessia. Lighted laryngoscope used to hold airway open/visualize vocal c/ds bef/e insertion of tube.

Question 340

episiotomy

Answer 340

Surgical incision of perineum to enlarge vaginal opening during birth process. Aids a difficult delivery - prevent rupture of tissues.

Question 341

excimer laser

Answer 341

high-intensity ultraviolet B (UVB) light dose, very specific wavelength, handheld wand, energy delivered precisely to affected areas w/out harming healthy skin around; AKA: exciplex laser; laser light never touches surrounding skin - ↓s risk of UV radiation exposure. Excimer lasers treat mild /mod ps/iasis; require fewer, less vig/ous txs than / light rapies.

Question 342

excimer laser

Answer 342

High-intensity ultraviolet B (UVB) light dose - very specific wavelength, and handheld wand allows energy to be delivered precisely to affected areas w/out harming healthy skin around m; AKA: Exciplex laser; Laser light never touches surrounding skin - ↓s risk of UV radiation exposure. Excimer lasers help treat mild/mod ps/iasis; require fewer/less vig/ous treatments than / light rapies.

Question 343

Excision of a lens affected by a cataract

Answer 343

Excision of anteri/ segment of lens capsule along w/ lens, allowing f/ insertion of an IOL implant.

Question 344

fulguration

Answer 344

Tissue destruction by means of a high-frequency electric current; AKA: electrodesiccation; remove tum/s /lesions within / on body.

Question 345

hysterosalpingo-oophorectomy

Answer 345

Surgical removal of a uterus, a fallopian tube, and an ovary

Question 346

incision and drainage (I&D)

Answer 346

Surgical procedure to release pus / pressure built up under skin, such as in an abscess, and remove its contents

Question 347

insulin pump therapy

Answer 347

Computerized device continuously delivers precise doses of insulin through cater placed under skin. Replaces need f/ frequent injections - delivers precise doses 24HR/day. HC profdetermines rate.

Question 348

iridectomy

Answer 348

Excision of p/tion of iris- ↓s intraocular pressure in pt’s. w/glaucoma. Usually perf/med to create opening through w/ aqueous hum/ can drain.

Question 349

laser photocoagulation

Answer 349

Argon laser - treat diabetic retinopathy - seals leaking blood vessels in retina; AKA: retinal photocoagulation. Laser uses argon to produce blue-green wavelengths - abs/bed by cells under retina and red hemoglobin in blood but pass through fluid in eye w/out damaging structures. Laser photocoagulation also used to treat macular degeneration/repair a detached retina.

Question 350

laser-assisted in situ keratomileusis (LASIK)

Answer 350

Excimer laser - c/rect err/s of refraction (myopia/hyperopia/astigmatism) - reshapes c/nea - improving visual acuity. LASIK - permanent alternative to c/rective/contact lenses. Many pt’s. find improvement up to 20/20 vision.

Question 351

lithotripsy

Answer 351

Procedure f/ eliminating stone w/in gallbladder?urinary system. Crush stone surgically/noninvasive method - ultrasonic shock waves(shatter it).. Crushed fragments expelled / washed out.

Question 352

lithotripsy - extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy (ESWL)

Answer 352

Use of shock waves - noninvasive method to destroy stones in gallbladder/biliary ducts. Ultrasound used to locate stone/stones and monit/ ir destruction. Pt. usually undergoes course of /al dissolution drugs - ensure complete removal of stones/stone fragments.

Question 353

lumpectomy

Answer 353

Excision of a small/primary breast tum/ (“lump”) and some of n/mal tissue surrounding it. Lymph nodes may also be removed if located withinbreast tissue taken during surgery. All tissue removed via biopsy to determine if cancer cells are present in n/mal tissue surrounding tum/. Lumpectomy is most common f/m of breast CA surgery today.

Question 354

lymphangiectomy

Answer 354

Removal of a lymph vessel

Question 355

mastectomy

Answer 355

Complete/partial excision of one/both breasts, most commonly perf/med - remove malignant tum/. Mastectomy may be simple/radical/modified - depending on extent of malignancy and amount of breast tissue excised.

Question 356

mastectomy - radical

Answer 356

Excision of entire breast, all underarm lymph nodes/chest wall muscles under breast

Question 357

mastectomy - total

Answer 357

Excision of entire breast/nipple/areola/involved overlying skin; AKA: simple mastectomy. Lymph nodes removed if included in breast tissue being removed.

Question 358

modified radical mastectomy

Answer 358

Excision of an entire breast, including lymph nodes in underarm (axillary dissection). Most women who have mastectomies - have modified radical mastectomies.

Question 359

Mohs surgery

Answer 359

Procedure in which layers of cancer-containing skin are progressively excised and examined until only cancer-free tissue remains; AKA: micrographic surgery.

Question 360

myringotomy

Answer 360

Incision of eardrum - ↓ pressure/release pus/serous fluid from middle ear/insert PE tubes (tympanostomy tubes) in eardrum via surgery. PE tubes provide ventilation/drainage of middle ear when recurring ear infections don’t respond to antibiotic treatment. Used when persistent/severely negative middle ear pressure present.

Question 361

nasogastric (NG) intubation

Answer 361

Insertion nasogastric tube thru nose into stomach. Nasogastric intubation - used to ↓ gastric distention (removing gas/gastric secretions/food).Also used to instill medication/food/fluids/obtain specimen f/ lab analysis.

Question 362

postural drainage

Answer 362

Use of body positioning assist in removal of secretions from specific lobes of lung/bronchi/lung cavities

Question 363

reconstructive breast surgery

Answer 363

Reconstruction of breast removed - due to CA// disease. Reconstruction possible immediately after mastectomy - patient awakens from anessia w/breast mound in place.

Question 364

reconstructive breast surgery - tissue (skin) expansion

Answer 364

Common breast reconstruction technique - balloon expander inserted beneath skin/chest muscle; saline solution injected to ↑ size; expander is n replaced w/ m/e permanent implant

Question 365

reconstructive breast surgery - transverse rectus abdominis muscle (TRAM) flap

Answer 365

Surgical creation of skin flap (using skin/fat from lower 1/2 of abdomen). Passed under skin to breast area, shaped into natural-looking breast, sutured into place. One of most popular reconstruction options.

Question 366

sclerotherapy

Answer 366

Chemical injection into varicose vein - causes inflammation/f/mation of fibrous tissue, which closes vein. When vein closes - can no longer fill w/ blood - treated varicose vein fades

Question 367

sequestrectomy

Answer 367

Excision of a sequestrum (segment of necrosed bone)

Question 368

skin graft

Answer 368

Surgical procedure to transplant healthy tissue to an injured site

Question 369

skin graft - autograft

Answer 369

Transplant healthy tissue one site to an/ in same individual

Question 370

skin graft - synthetic

Answer 370

Transplantation of artificial skin produced from collagen fibers, lattice pattern; Recipient’s body does not reject syntic skin (produced artificially), healing skin grows into it as graft gradually disintegrates;

Question 371

skin graft - xenograft

Answer 371

Transplantation (dermis only) from f/eign don/ (pig) and transferred to human; AKA: heterograft; Temp/ary graft to protect against infection/fluid loss.

Question 372

skin resurfacing

Answer 372

Repair damaged skin - acne scars/fine/ deep wrinkles/ tattoos. / improve skin tone irregularities - using topical chemicals/abrasion/laser; In cosmetic surgery, skin resurfacing - dermabrasion, chemical peels, cutaneous lasers

Question 373

synthetic

Answer 373

Transplant - artificial skin produced from collagen fibers arranged in lattice pattern

Question 374

thalamotomy

Answer 374

Partial destruction of thalamus to treat psychosis, intractable pain, / involuntary movements, including trem/s in Parkinson diseas

Question 375

transsphenoidal hypophysectomy

Answer 375

Minimally invasive endoscopic surgery removes pituitary tum/s through nasal cavity via sphenoid sinus (transsphenoidal) w/out affecting brain tissue. Some large tum/s may be removed via transfrontal craniotomy (entry throughfrontal bone of skull).

Question 376

transurethral resection of the prostate (TURP)

Answer 376

??

Question 377

trephination

Answer 377

Excision of a circular disk of bone using a specialized saw, called a trephine, to reveal brain tissue during neurosurgery / to ↓ intracranial pressure

Question 378

tubal ligation

Answer 378

Although most tum/s can be removed via transsphenoidal hypophysectomy, some large tum/s may need to be removed via transfrontal craniotomy (entry through frontal bone of skull).

Question 379

ureteral stent

Answer 379

Placement thin tube into ureter - prevent/treat obstruction of urine flow from kidney. Indwelling stents need constant monit/ing (may lead to infection/blockage/stones f/mation.. Removed/∆’d periodically - avoid infection.

Question 380

valvuloplasty

Answer 380

Plastic/rest/ative surgery on heart valve - c/rect prolapse/stenosis; special type - balloon valvuloplasty - insertion of balloon cater to open stenotic heart valve. Inflation of balloon ↓ constriction.

Question 381

vitrectomy

Answer 381

Removal of vitreous gel from middle of eye; replaced w/clear artificial fluid. Used f/ retinal detachment/failure of blood to clear from vitreous gel/scar tissue on retina (complication of diabetic retinopathy)/tears / holes in macula.

Question 382

xenograft

Answer 382

Transplant (dermis only) from f/eign don/ (usually pig), to human; AKA - heterograft

Question 383

anesthetics

Answer 383

Partial/complete loss of sensation, w/ / w/out loss of consciousness. General anestics/brain - produce complete loss feeling w/ loss of consciousness. Local anestics act /nerves/nerve tracts - affect only a local area.

Question 384

antacids

Answer 384

Neutralize acids in stomach

Question 385

antiarrhythmics

Answer 385

Counteract cardiac arrhythmias (dysrhythmias); stabilize hearts electrical conduction system

Question 386

antibiotics

Answer 386

Kill bacteria that cause skin infections. Cause (UTIs). Pill/liquid f/m. Injection.intravenously if a severe kidney infection.

Question 387

anticoagulants

Answer 387

Prevent blood clot f/mation; ↓ risk of stroke / DVT. Used postoperatively to prevent clot f/mation.

Question 388

Anticonvulsants

Answer 388

Prevent/↓ severity of epileptic// convulsive seizures; AKA: antiepileptics

Question 389

antidiarrheals

Answer 389

Control loose stools, ↓ diarrhea by - abs/b excess H2O in bowel / slowing peristalsis in intestinal tract

Question 390

antidiuretic

Answer 390

Controls fluid balance in body - ↓ urination. antidiuretic - opposite effect diuretics

Question 391

antiemetics

Answer 391

Control nausea/vomiting - blocking nerve impulses to vomiting center of brain

Question 392

antifungals

Answer 392

Kill fungi that infect skin. Vaginal fungal infection (candidiasis)

Question 393

antiglaucoma agents

Answer 393

↓ intraocular pressure- lowers amount of aqueous hum/ in eyeball, ↓ its production / increasing its outflow

Question 394

antihypertensives

Answer 394

Treat hypertension (high blood pressure). Prevent complications of HPB (stroke / MI). Iinclude beta blockers, diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibit/s.

Question 395

antiparkinsonian agents

Answer 395

Control trem/s/muscle rigidity (Parkinson disease); ↑ dopamine levels in brain

Question 396

antipruritics

Answer 396

↓ severe itching

Question 397

antipsychotics

Answer 397

Alter neurotransmitters in brain to alleviate symptoms of psychosis, paranoia, and schizophrenia

Question 398

antispasmodics

Answer 398

↓ spasms of ureter/bladder/urethra - relaxi smooth muscles lining of walls - allows n/mal emptying of bladder

Question 399

antivirals

Answer 399

Inhibit development specific viruses; Treat HIV infection and AIDS.

Question 400

beta blockers

Answer 400

↓ heart rate and dilate arteries by blocking beta recept/s. Treat angina, arrhythmias, hypertension

Question 401

bone reabsorption inhibitors

Answer 401

↓ reabs/ption of bone; treat weak/fragile bones (osteop/osis/Paget disease)

Question 402

bronchodilators

Answer 402

↑ airflow - dilate constricted airways through relaxation of smooth muscles surrounding bronchioles/bronchi; Treat asthma, emphysema, COPD, exercise-induced bronchospasm. Metered dosages of meds; Spacer - reservoir f/ medication

Question 403

contraceptives

Answer 403

Prevent ovulation (avoid pregnancy) Most common female contraceptives - /al contraceptive pills (OCPs), AKA birth control pills.

Question 404

corticosteroids

Answer 404

↓ inflammation in airways, reducing swelling/mucus production, breathing easier; Treat chronic lung conditions - Exs: COPD/asthma

Question 405

diuretics

Answer 405

Block sodium from absorbing back into blood. Block reabsorption of Na by kidneys, ↑ amount of salt/H20 excreted in urine. Diuretics ↓ fluid buildup inbody (Ex: fluid in lungs) - symps of heart failure, by increasing secretion of urine. Treat hypertension / heart failure. Diuretics promote ↓ of fluid retained in body tissues/prevent edema. Diuretics ↑ sodium excretion/potassium excretion.

Question 406

erectile agents

Answer 406

Treat erectile dysfunction (impotence); ↑s blood flow to penis (erection)

Question 407

estrogens

Answer 407

Treat symptoms of menopause (hot flashes, vaginal dryness) through HRT

Question 408

gold salts

Answer 408

Treat rheumatoid arthritis (RA) - inhibites activity in immune system - prevent disease progression

Question 409

gonadotropins

Answer 409

↑ sperm count in infertility cases

Question 410

H2 blockers

Answer 410

Block H2 recept/s in stomach - prevent release of acid; Treat heartburn/peptic ulcers/GERD

Question 411

hormone replacement therapy (HRT)

Answer 411

Correct deficiency in hormones - estrogen/testosterone/thyroid h/mone. /al admin / injection of syntic h/mones.

Question 412

immunosuppressants

Answer 412

↓ immune response - prevent organ rejection in transplant / slow progress of autoimmune disease

Question 413

laxatives

Answer 413

↓ constipation and facilitate passage of feces through lower GI tract

Question 414

miotics

Answer 414

Cause pupil to constrict. Miotics are used to treat glaucoma/

Question 415

mucolytics

Answer 415

Liquefy sputum / ↓ its viscosity so that it can be coughed up m/e easily

Question 416

mydriatics

Answer 416

Pupil dilation - prepare eye for internal exam. Mydriatics provide accurate measurements for prescribing corrective lenses.

Question 417

nebulized mist treatments (NMTs)

Answer 417

Fine spray (nebulizer) - deliver meds directly into lungs.

Question 418

Neutralize acids in the stomach

Answer 418

Control loose stools; ↓ diarrhea; absorb excess H2O in bowel / slowing peristalsis - intestinal tract

Question 419

nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Answer 419

↓ mild /mod pain/ ↓ inflammation of musculoskeletal conditions - sprains/strains/inflammat/y dis/ders (RA/ osteoarthritis/ bursitis/ gout/ tendinitis)

Question 420

Oral hypoglycemics

Answer 420

↑ insulin secretion in pancreatic cells; F/ non–insulin-dependent diabetes, w/some pancreatic function

Question 421

oxytocics

Answer 421

Induce lab/; ↑s strength/frequency of uterine contractions

Question 422

potassium supplements

Answer 422

Replace potassium loss caused by diuretic drugs

Question 423

spermicides

Answer 423

Destroy sperm - creates ↑ acidic environment in uterus. Used as method of B.C..

Question 424

statins

Answer 424

↓ cholesterol levels; ↓ prod. of chol. in liver - blocks enzyme that prod. it

Question 425

thrombolytics

Answer 425

Dissolve blood clots, prevent furr damg - heart muscle; AKA: clot busters. Manage stroke / stop other/wise deadly heart attack

Question 426

vertigo and motion sickness drugs

Answer 426

↓ sensitivity of inner ear to motion; prevent nerve impulses from inner ear reaching vomiting center of brain

Question 427

wax emulsifiers

Answer 427

Loosen/remove impacted cerumen (ear wax)