Chapters 4 - 11 From Presentations

Question 1

Upper respiratory tract

Answer 1

Nose
Septum
Pharynx (throat)
Larynx (voice box)
Trachea (windpipe)

Question 2

Lower respiratory tract

Answer 2

• Lungs
‒ Alveoli
• Bronchi
‒ Bronchioles
Diaphragm
• Lungs extend from
collarbone to diaphragm in
thoracic cavity.
• Muscular partition
separating thoracic cavity
from abdominal cavity.

Question 3

Nose

Answer 3

Air enters and leaves.
‒ Cilia sweep foreign material
toward throat for
elimination.

Question 4

Pharynx (throat)

Answer 4

Airway connection to larynx.
‒ Serves as passageway for air
from nose and food from
mouth.

Question 5

• Larynx (voice box)

Answer 5

Contains structures that
make vocal sounds possible.
‒ Connected to the trachea.

Question 6

Trachea (windpipe)

Answer 6

Branches in two tubes called
bronchi.
‒ Serves as passageway for air
to the bronchi.

Question 7

Lungs

Answer 7

Left lung has two lobes.

‒ Right lung has three lobes.

Question 8

Bronchi enter a lung and
subdivide into smaller
branches called
bronchioles

Answer 8

Bronchioles are the smallest
branches of the bronchi and
terminate at the alveoli.

Question 9

Alveoli

Answer 9

Air sacs of lungs provide breathing (ventilation).

Question 10

Diaphragm

Answer 10

Aids in the process of breathing.
‒ Contracts and descends with each inhalation
(inspiration).

Question 11

Respiration

Answer 11

• External, exchange of air at the lungs.
• Internal, exchange of gases at the cellular level
within organs of the body.

Question 12

Other functions, with help of cardiovascular

system

Answer 12

Provides oxygen to body cells.
• Eliminates the waste product carbon dioxide (C O2
)

Question 13

What is the main function of the respiratory

system?

Answer 13

Provides oxygen (O2
) and removes C O2
from body cells.

Question 14

2. Name the structures of the upper
respiratory tract (U R T).

Answer 14

2. Nose, pharynx, larynx, and trachea

Question 15

3. What are the structures of the lower

respiratory tract ?

Answer 15

3. Bronchi, bronchioles, alveoli, and lungs

Question 16

4. Name the smaller branches of the bronchi.

Answer 16

4. Bronchioles

Question 17

What are the tiny air sacs in the lungs

called?

Answer 17

Alveoli (alveolus, singular)

Question 18

What do abbreviations O2
and C O2
mean?

Answer 18

O2
means oxygen; C O2
means carbon
dioxide.

Question 19

What other body system helps the
respiratory system transport O2
 and remove
C O2
 from body cells?

Answer 19

Cardiovascular system helps transport O2
and remove C O2
from body cells.

Question 20

Define Combining Forms

nas/o, rhin/o:

Answer 20

nose

Question 21

Define Combining Forms

tonsill/o:

Answer 21

tonsils

Question 22

Define Combining Forms

adenoid/o:

Answer 22

adenoid

Question 23

Define Combining Forms

pharyng/o:

Answer 23

pharynx (throat)

Question 24

Define Combining Forms

laryng/o:

Answer 24

larynx

Question 25

Define Combining Forms

trache/o:

Answer 25

trachea

Question 26

Define Combining Forms

pneum/o, pneumon/o:

Answer 26

air, lung

Question 27

Define Combining Forms

pulmon/o:

Answer 27

lung

Question 28

Define Combining Forms

bronch/o, bronchi/o:

10. bronchiol/o:
11. thorac/o:
12. phren/o:

Answer 28

bronchus (plural, bronchi)

10. bronchioles
11. chest
12. diaphragm

Question 29

Define Suffixes

• ectasis:
  14. -osmia:
  15. -pnea:

Answer 29

dilation, expansion

14. smell
15. breathing

Question 30

The plural form of alveolus is ________.

2. The plural form of bronchus is _______.
3. The plural form of pleura is __________.

Answer 30

alveoli

2. bronchi
3. pleurae

Question 31

Build Medical Words

1. inflammation of the bronchi: /
2. paralysis of the larynx (voice box): /o/
3. visual examination of the bronchi: /o/
4. incision of the trachea: /o/

Answer 31

1. bronch/itis
2. laryng/o/plegia
3. bronch/o/scopy
4. trache/o/tomy

Question 32

Build Medical Words

5. instrument for examining the larynx:
   /o/
6. disease of the chest: /o/
7. rapid breathing: tachy/

Answer 32

5. laryng/o/scope
6. thorac/o/pathy
7. tachy/pnea

Question 33

Build Medical Words

8. excision of tonsils:
9. resembling mucus:
10. surgical repair of the nose:
11. specialist in (treatment of) lungs:

Answer 33

8. tonsill/ectomy
9. muc/oid
10. rhino/plasty
11. pulmon/o/logist

Question 34

Build Medical Words

12. swallowing air:
13. without (absence of) breathing:
14. creation of an opening (mouth) in the
    trachea (windpipe):
15. excision of the larynx (voice box):

Answer 34

12. aer/o/phagia
13. a/pnea
14. trache/o/stomy
15. laryng/ectomy

Question 35

Sleep Apnea

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 35

Potentially life-threatening condition.
• During normal nocturnal sleep, person’s breathing
ceases, followed by snorting and gasping.

Occurs more often in men than in women.
• Associated with obesity, hypertension, or an
airway-obstructive condition.
• Can be categorized as obstructive or central.
‒ Most common is obstructive sleep apnea in which air
is unable to flow in or out of the upper airway.
‒ In central sleep apnea, the brain does not send proper
signals to the muscles that control breathing.

Question 36

In obstructive sleep apnea

Answer 36

the person stops
breathing multiple times each night. Causes
include:
‒ airway obstruction resulting from a soft palate
‒ excess neck tissue
‒ tonsil enlargement

Question 37

Sleep Apnea in premature infants

Answer 37

the immature central nervous
system (C N S) fails to maintain a consistent
respiratory rate, and there are long pauses
between regular breathing.

Question 38

Sleep Apnea Treatment

Answer 38

Weight loss is encouraged.
• Tonsillectomy and adenoidectomy (T&A).
• Uvulopalatopharyngoplasty (U P P).
• C P A P apparatus or dental appliances to keep
airway open in adults; home apnea monitor for
infants.

Question 39

1. Mrs. J. is diagnosed with sleep apnea and
   asks the nurse to explain this disorder.

2. Patient X presents for an excision of
tonsils and adenoids as a treatment of
sleep apnea. The abbreviation for the
surgical procedure to remove tonsils and
adenoids is .

Answer 39

1. The nurse explains that it is a temporary loss
   of breathing resulting in brief or prolonged
   absence of spontaneous respiration.
2. T&A

Question 40

Mary is prescribed a C P A P machine for sleep apnea. The respiratory therapist explains that this machine will help keep her airway open at night so that she can breathe normally. The medical term to breathe normally is .

Mr. M. presents with complaints of excessive snoring at night that awakens him and also results in him gasping for breath. The physician explains that he has a common condition that occurs in middleaged, obese men and that it causes temporary cessation of breathing. This condition is known as sleep (apnea, dyspnea, eupnea).

Answer 40

3. eupnea

4. apnea

Question 41

Lung Cancer

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 41

• Early-stage lung cancer usually produces no
symptoms and is difficult to detect.
• When symptoms appear, they may include
smoker’s cough, wheezing, chest pain, dyspnea,
and hemoptysis.
• Risk factors include chemical exposure or history
of smoking or exposure to second-hand smoke.

Question 42

Lung Cancer Treatment

Answer 42

• Combination of surgery, radiation therapy, and
chemotherapy, depending on whether the
malignancy is localized or metastasized.
• Chest radiography, sputum cytology test, and
bronchoscopy with tissue biopsy are required for
definitive diagnosis.

Question 43

Lung Cancer Surgery Treatment
 A. Wedge resection:
 B. Segmented resection:
 C. Lobectomy:
 D. Pneumonectomy:

Answer 43

A. Wedge resection: excision of a small portion of the lung along with healthy tissue that surrounds the lung.
 B. Segmented resection: excision of a portion of a lobe of a lung; also called segmentectomy
 C. Lobectomy: excision of one lobe of the lungs.
 D. Pneumonectomy: excision of a lung or a portion of the lung.

Question 44

eg. Types of Pneumonectomies.

Answer 44

wedge resection
segmental resection
lobectomy
pneumonectomy

Question 45

1. Mr. O. works for a collision repair shop
   and sprays paint on cars. He is also a two
   pack/day smoker for 15 years. He is
   concerned about his risk for lung cancer
   and asks the nurse if it is preventable.

Answer 45

1. She explains that lung cancer is
   preventable if one avoids smoking and
   inhaling toxic substances.

Question 46

A one pack/day smoker for the past 8
years is diagnosed with lung cancer. She
asks the doctor if her cancer will be cured
if she stops smoking.

Answer 46

The doctor explains that if smokers stop
smoking during early precancerous cellular
changes, damaged bronchial lining tissues
often return to normal.

Question 47

The patient presents for visual examination
of his interior bronchi with biopsy analysis
to confirm a diagnosis of lung cancer. The
physician documents the visual
examination of the bronchi as a .

Answer 47

3. bronchoscopy

Question 48

The patient is diagnosed with advanced
lung cancer and asks why it was not
detected last year during her annual
physical examination.

Answer 48

The nurse explains that early-stage lung
cancer usually produces no symptoms and
is difficult to detect. When symptoms
appear, cancer often has metastasized to
other areas of the body, such as the brain,
liver, and bone.

Question 49

Upper Airway Obstruction
 Signs and Symptoms
 Treatment

Answer 49

• Symptoms vary, depending on the cause.
‒ Cyanosis of the skin
‒ Difficulty breathing, choking, confusion, panic,
unconsciousness

 Treatment
• Depends on the cause of the blockage.
• Objects lodged in airway may be removed with a
laryngoscope or bronchoscope.
• A tube may be inserted into the airway (endotracheal tube or nasotracheal tube).
• Opening is made directly into the airway (tracheostomy), if needed

Question 50

1. Doctor X is concerned that Mrs. T. has an airway blockage. The patient asks if there is a test to confirm a blockage.
2. John’s radiograph shows a small foreign object lodged in his larynx. The physician removes the object with an instrument called a .

Answer 50

1. The doctor states tests may include bronchoscopy, laryngoscopy, and radiography.
2. laryngoscope

Question 51

3. A patient presents for an opening to be made into the trachea. This surgical procedure is documented in the medical record as a .
4. The anesthesiologist inserts a tube directly into the patient’s trachea so that the patient will be able to breathe while under general anesthesia. This tube is known as an .

Answer 51

3. tracheostomy

4. endotracheal tube

Question 52

Pneumothorax

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 52

• Increased air pressure on affected side causes a
mediastinal shift to the unaffected side.
• Collapse of a lung causes severe shortness of
breath, sudden sharp chest pain, falling blood
pressure, rapid weak pulse, and shallow and
weak respirations.
• Patient may be cyanotic and appears anxious.

Question 53

Pneumothorax (continued_3)

 Treatment

Answer 53

• Patient is more comfortable in the Fowler or semi-Fowler position and may require oxygen.
• Thoracostomy is performed to withdraw air from the cavity.
• Closed drainage system is established if air continues to leak into the pleural space, to allow expansion and healing of the lung.

Question 54

1. The physician instructs the nurse to place
   the bedridden patient in the Fowler
   position. What does the nurse do?

Answer 54

1. The nurse adjusts the bed so that the
   patient is in the semi-sitting position. This
   position is used to facilitate breathing and
   drainage and for the comfort of the
   bedridden patient while talking or eating.

Question 55

2. Cyanosis indicates that tissues have a lack of (C O2
   , O2 , glucose).
3. Patient is diagnosed with pneumothorax. The physician performs the procedure to withdraw air from the lung and
   documents it as .

Answer 55

2. O2

3. thoracostomy

Question 56

Bronchiectasis

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 56

• Widening and destruction of the large airways or
bronchi, usually in the lower lung portions, as shown in the illustration.
• Symptoms develop gradually and include a chronic cough producing large amounts of foulsmelling sputum as the main symptom.
• Hemoptysis, dyspnea, wheezing, fever, and general malaise as the disease progresses.
• Patient may experience halitosis.

Question 57

Bronchiectasis

 Treatment

Answer 57

• Control of infections and bronchial secretions
• Relieve airway obstruction
• Regular, daily drainage to remove bronchial
secretions
• Antibiotics, bronchodilators, mucolytics, and
expectorants may be prescribed

Question 58

1. Mr. M. has poorly controlled asthma and difficulty breathing, especially during the past 4 months. Besides retaining mucus, his bronchial passages are infected. The
   recurrent inflammation or infection of the airways has resulted in a condition known as (atelectasis, bronchiectasis, pleuroclysis).

Answer 58

1. bronchiectasis

Question 59

2. Ms. J. is diagnosed with bronchiectasis,
   which resulted from a chronic respiratory
   condition known as cystic fibrosis. She has
   difficulty coughing up bacterial secretions
   and has now developed a lung (compliance,
   infection, tumor).

Answer 59

2. infection

Question 60

Pulmonary Embolism

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 60

• Blood clot (embolism) lodges in and occludes an artery in the pulmonary vasculature (as shown in the illustration)
• Depend on the size and location of the embolus
• Symptoms do not appear until the embolism has lodged in an artery and interrupts blood flow.
• Patient with small uncomplicated embolism experiences a cough, chest pain, and a low-grade fever.
• Patient with a more extensive infarction experiences dyspnea, tachypnea (with respiratory rate of at least 20 breaths/min), chest
pain, and occasionally hemoptysis.
• Massive embolism leads to onset of cyanosis, shock, and death.

Question 61

Pulmonary Embolism

 Treatment

Answer 61

• Goals are to prevent a potentially fatal episode and to maintain cardiopulmonary integrity and adequate ventilation and perfusion.
• O2 therapy and anticoagulants are administered to meet these goals.
• Thrombolytic drugs may be administered to dissolve a clot, especially when low blood pressure or cardiac arrest occurs.

Question 62

1. Mr. P. presents to the emergency department (E D) and is diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. His chief complaint
   is that he spits up blood in his sputum. This condition is charted as (hemolysin, hemoptysis, hemolysis).
2. Mr. L. has undergone knee replacement. He is advised that a complication of this surgery is the development of blood clots
   that may break loose and travel to the lungs. This is a serious condition known as pulmonary (aneurysm, edema, embolism).

Answer 62

1. hemoptysis

2. embolism

Question 63

3. The pulmonologist prescribes thrombolytic drug therapy to treat Ms. C.’s pulmonary embolism. The doctor explains that these
drugs will (prevent, produce, dissolve) blood clots.

Answer 63

3. dissolve

Question 64

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. empyema:
2. emphysema:
3. epistaxis:
4. ischemia:
5. rhonchi:
6. tubercle:

Answer 64

1. pus in a body cavity, especially in the pleural cavity (pyothorax)
2. chronic disease characterized by overexpansion and destruction of alveoli; commonly associated with cigarette smoking
3. bleeding from the nose; also called nosebleed, nasal hemorrhage, or rhinorrhagia
4. inadequate supply of oxygenated blood to a body part resulting from interruption of blood flow
5. abnormal respiratory sound resembling snoring, caused by blockage in the larger airways
6. small lesions that appear in the lungs when a person is infected with tuberculosis (T B)

Question 65

Diagnostic Procedures

 Bronchoscopy

Answer 65

• Tissue biopsy for cancer
detection of lungs
• Removal of obstruction
(tissue or other), or direct
observation for
pathological changes

Question 66

Diagnostic Procedures

 Polysomnography

Answer 66

• Diagnoses sleep disorders.
• Records various aspects of
sleep, such as eye and
muscle movements,
respiration, and
electroencephalographic
patterns.

Question 67

Diagnostic Procedures

 Spirometry

Answer 67

• Common lung function
test
• Measures capacity of lungs
and volume of air during
inhalation and expiration

Question 68

Diagnostic Procedures

 Thoracentesis

Answer 68

• Removes fluid from pleural
space for diagnostic or
therapeutic purposes

Question 69

Diagnostic Procedures

 Arterial blood gas (A B G)

 Pulmonary function tests (P F T’s)

Answer 69

• Measures O2 and C O2 content of arterial blood
by various methods

• Measure the capacity of lungs and volume of air
during inhalation and exhalation

Question 70

Build Medical Words

1. visual examination of bronchi:
2. surgical puncture of chest:
3. forming an opening (mouth) in the trachea:

Answer 70

1. bronchoscopy
2. thoracentesis or thoracocentesis
3. tracheostomy

Question 71

Build Medical Words

4. visual examination of the larynx:
5. instrument for measuring breathing:
6. instrument for examining the larynx:

Answer 71

4. laryngoscopy
5. spirometer
6. laryngoscope

Question 72

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Endotracheal intubation

Answer 72

• Tube placed through the mouth or nose into the trachea just above the bronchi
• Provides air to patients who are unable to breathe on their own because of respiratory failure, as well as to administer O2,
medication, or anesthetic

Question 73

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Laryngectomy

Answer 73

• Excision of all or part of

the larynx

Question 74

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Lavage

 Postural drainage

Answer 74

• Irrigation of paranasal sinuses to remove
mucopurulent material.

• Body is positioned so gravity helps remove
secretions from the lung or bronchi. Coughing
usually expels secretions from trachea.

Question 75

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Tracheostomy

Answer 75

• Opening into trachea
with placement of
indwelling tube.
• Allows air to flow
into lungs.
• Aids in removal of
secretions (mucus) from
bronchial
tubes.

Question 76

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Oxygen therapy

Answer 76

• O2
 administration most
commonly via nasal
cannula
‒ O2
 delivery through a flexible
catheter that has two short
nasal prongs.

Question 77

1. Mr. J. has a history of smoking two packs/day for 30 years. He is diagnosed with throat cancer and presents to the hospital for excision of the larynx. What is this surgical procedure called?
2. Mr. M. has thick mucous secretions from a prolonged respiratory infection. His bed is positioned upright to 90 degrees so that he
   can easily cough up mucus. This type of therapeutic drainage is known as postural .

Answer 77

1. laryngectomy

2. drainage

Question 78

3. Mrs. S. presents to the E D with cyanosis caused by an bstructed airway. The physician incises the trachea to open it below the blockage and restore breathing. The physician documents the incision into the trachea as (tracheocentesis, tracheostenosis, tracheotomy)
4. Mrs. C. is diagnosed with emphysema and is prescribed O2
   therapy during her hospital stay. The O2 will be delivered through a twoprong flexible catheter into the nose that is
   known as a nasal .

Answer 78

3. tracheotomy

4. cannula

Question 79

5. Mr. J. is in respiratory failure. The doctor inserts a tube through the mouth into the trachea, just above the bronchi, to administer O2 . This medical procedure is documented as (bronchial, pneumatic, endotracheal) intubation.
6. A patient diagnosed with chronic sinusitis is prescribed an irrigation of the paranasal sinuses to remove mucopurulent material. The physician documents the procedure as .

Answer 79

5. endotracheal

6. lavage

Question 80

Pharmacology

Bronchodilators

Answer 80

 Drugs that dilate
constricted airways
via a metered-dose
inhaler (M D I).

Question 81

Pharmacology

Corticosteroids

Answer 81

 M D I's
 Nebulized mist
treatments (N M T's)
• Administer medications
directly into lungs via a
nebulizer.

Question 82

1. To reduce airway inflammation in an patient with asthma, the doctor prescribes a/an (antibiotic, corticosteroid, expectorant).
2. Ms. C. presents with a chief complaint of shortness of breath upon exertion. Medication is prescribed to expand the bronchial airways. It is known as a/an (bronchodilator, corticosteroid,
   expectorant) .
3. Upon inhalation, a fine spray delivers medication into the lungs. The device used is known as a/an (bronchoscope,
   intubator, nebulizer).
4. To reduce sputum thickness and ability to cough it up, the physician prescribes a/an (antibiotic, corticosteroid, expectorant).

Answer 82

1. corticosteroid
2. bronchodilator
3. nebulize
4. expectorant

Question 83

Cardiovascular System (C V) composed of

Layers and membranes of the heart

Answer 83

heart and blood vessels
• Arteries
• Capillaries
• Veins

 Endocardium, innermost layer that lines the heart and heart valves.
 Myocardium, muscular layer.
 Pericardium, outermost layer

Question 84

 Pericardium, outermost

layer

Answer 84

• Membrane that surrounds the heart as the pericardial sac and
secretes pericardial fluid.
• The heart is located within the pericardial sac.
• Pericardial cavity contains serous fluid, which reduces friction between the pericardial membranes as the heart moves
(contracts and relaxes) within them.

Question 85

Function of Cardiovascular System

Right side

Left Side

Answer 85

 Circulates blood and delivers oxygen (O2 ) and
nutrients to cells

• Right side for circulating blood to lungs for oxygenation (pulmonary circulation)
• Left side for circulating blood to all body systems (systemic circulation)

 Disposes of waste products
 Aids lymphatic system in circulating substances

Question 86

1. What is the main function of the heart?
2. What heart structures control blood flow to and from the heart?
3. List two major functions of the C V system.
4. What function does the C V system perform for the lymphatic system?

Answer 86

1. Pump blood through blood vessels to all the cells of the body.
2. Heart valves
3. Delivers oxygen, nutrients, and other essential substances to body cells and removes waste products of cellular metabolism.
4. Transports excess fluid from interstitial spaces in tissues and returns it to blood.

Question 87

Define Combining Forms

1. angi/o:
2. aneurysm/o:
3. aort/o:
4. arteri/o:
5. arteriol/o:
6. ather/o:
7. atri/o:
8. cardi/o, coron/o:
9. phleb/o, ven/o:
10. thromb/o:
11. varic/o:
12. vas/o:

Answer 87

1. vessel (usually blood or lymph)
2. widened blood vessel
3. aorta
4. artery
5. arteriole
6. fatty plaque
7. atrium
8. heart
9. vein
10. blood clot
11. dilated vein
12. vessel; vas deferens; duct

Question 88

Define Suffixes

13. -cardia:
14. -gram:
15. -graph:
16. -megaly:
17. -graphy:
18. -oma:
19. -stenosis:
20. -ectasis:

Answer 88

13. heart condition
14. record, writing
15. instrument for recording
16. enlargement
17. process of recording
18. tumor
19. narrowing, stricture
20. dilation, expansion

Question 89

Build Medical Words

1. rapid heart rate: tachy/
2. suture of a widened blood vessel: aneurysm/o/
3. inflammation of an arteriole: /itis
4. pertaining to the atrium and ventricle: /o/ventricul/
5. abnormal condition of fatty plaque hardening: ather/o/ /osis
6. destruction or loosening of a thrombus: /o/
7. tumor of fatty plaque:
8. narrowing or stricture of an artery:
9. medical specialist in heart (disease):

Answer 89

1. tachy/cardia
2. aneurysm/o/rrhaphy
3. arteriol/itis
4. atri/ar ???? DOUBLE CHECK THIS ONE
5. scler
6. thromb/lysis
7. ather/oma
8. arteri/o/stenosis
9. cardi/o/logist

Question 90

Build Medical Words

10. enlargement of the heart:
11. process of recording the electrical activity of the heart:
12. excision of an embolus:

Answer 90

10. cardi/o/megaly
11. electr/o/cardi/o/graphy
12. thromb/ectomy

Question 91

Deep Vein Thrombosis (D V T)

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 91

 Formation of a thrombus, usually in calf or thigh muscle
 Part or complete block of blood flow
 May cause pain, but often asymptomatic

Question 92

Deep Vein Thrombosis (D V T)

Treatment

Answer 92

 Anticoagulants
• Prevent future thrombi formation
 Thrombolytics
• Dissolve blood clots

Question 93

1. Mr. X. is a postsurgical patient who complains of soreness in his right calf muscle. The doctor assesses the right calf and finds it to be warm and red. What is the likely diagnosis for Mr. X.?
2. The physician prescribes medication for Mr. X. to dissolve his D V T. This type of medication is called a ________.

Answer 93

1. Deep vein thrombosis (D V T)

2. thrombolytic

Question 94

Coronary Artery Disease (C A D)

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 94

 Angina
 Shortness of breath (S O B)
 Accumulation of plaque in arterial walls causing them to harden.
 Complete blockage of arterial wall caused by blood clot formation or ruptured plaque.
 Pieces of plaque break free, travel to the brain, and block the blood vessels that supply blood to the brain

Question 95

Coronary Artery Disease (C A D)

 Risk factors

Answer 95

• Smoking
• Hypertension, stress
• Physical inactivity
• Family history
• Diabetes
• Obesity
• High cholesterol

Question 96

Coronary Artery Disease (C A D)

Treatment

Answer 96

 Lifestyle changes: smoking cessation, low-fat diet, regular exercise, weight reduction, and stress reduction.
 Pharmacological treatment to control angina, hypertension, triglyceride levels, and blood clots.
 Surgical intervention includes percutaneous transluminal coronary angioplasty (P C T A).

Question 97

1. Mrs. T. presents with chest pain that radiates to her left arm. She is pale and is perspiring profusely. Electrocardiography (E C G) reveals necrosed heart tissue. The physician diagnoses Mrs. T. with (fibrillations, myocardial infarction [M I], palpitations).
2. The nurse explains to Mr. X., who is diagnosed with coronary artery disease (C A D), that lifestyle changes could reduce the
   risk of further heart complications. Lifestyle changes include exercising regularly, losing weight, quitting smoking, reducing stress, and maintaining a diet low in saturated
   ________.

Answer 97

1. myocardial infarction (M I)

2. fat

Question 98

3. A 50-year-old male presents to the clinic complaining of pressure and pain in his chest. After a brief examination, the
   doctor concludes that his symptoms are caused by lack of oxygen to the heart. This condition is called angina _______.
4. Mr. S. complains of chest pain, nausea, and shortness of breath (S O B). A diagnostic test to record the electrical activity of his
   heart is ordered. This diagnostic test is called .
5. Walter is scheduled for balloon angioplasty to crush fatty deposits in the coronary vessel and improve blood flow. He is told this is known as P C T A, the abbreviation for .

Answer 98

3. pectoris
4. electrocardiography (E C G)
5. percutaneous transluminal coronary
   angioplasty

Question 99

Aneurysm

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 99

 Local dilation of an artery or chamber of the heart caused by weakening of its walls.

 May cause thrombus formation, hemorrhage from rupture, or ischemia.

 Symptoms may include mild to severe weakness, sweating, tachycardia, and hypotension.

 May be asymptomatic, but if the person is slender, a pulsating middle and upper abdominal mass may be detected on routine
physical examination.

Question 100

Three types of Aneurysms

Answer 100

 Fusiform – dilation of entire circumference.

 Saccular – shaped like a sac, bulging on only one side.

 Dissecting – inner layer tear causes a cavity to form that fills with blood with each heartbeat).

Question 101

Aneurysm

 Three common types:

Answer 101

abdominal,
thoracic,
peripheral artery aneurysms.

Question 102

Aneurysm

 May be asymptomatic, but if the person is slender

Answer 102

a pulsating middle and upper abdominal mass may be detected on routine physical examination.

Question 103

Aneurysm

Treatment

Answer 103

 Depends on the size, location, and the likelihood of rupturing of the aneurysm, as well as the general physical status of the
individual.
 Most are treated surgically.

Question 104

1. An aneurysm may cause weakness, sweating, tachycardia, and low blood pressure, also known as (hypotension, hypertension, hypothymia).
2. During physical examination, the doctor palpates and feels an abnormal dilation of a blood vessel. This may be diagnosed as
   a/an (aneurysm, carcinoma, tumor).
3. Mr. J. is advised that he needs to have his aneurysm removed. The surgical procedure to excise an aneurysm is known as _______.
4. During surgery, the doctor discovers a spindle-shaped aneurysm in the patient’s artery. This type of aneurysm is known as a/an (dissecting, fusiform, saccular) aneurysm.

Answer 104

1. hypotension
2. aneurysm
3. aneurysmectomy
4. fusiform

Question 105

Varicose Veins

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 105

 Defective or incompetent valves in veins prevent blood
from flowing freely toward the heart.
• Buildup of pressure in superficial veins causes varicosities.
 Could be caused by inherited defect or venous diseases.
 May occur as a result of such conditions as pregnancy or work requiring prolonged standing or heavy lifting.
 Person may be asymptomatic, even though the varicose vein condition is severe.
 Swollen, tortuous, and knotted veins, usually occur in the lower legs.
 As the condition progresses, veins thicken and feel hard to the touch.
 Develop gradually, with a feeling of fatigue in the legs followed by a dull ache.

Question 106

Varicose Veins

Treatment

Answer 106

 Compression stockings.
 Sclerotherapy, injection into varicose veins with a solution that scars and closes the veins.
 Laser treatments, which use strong bursts of light into the vein to close off varicose veins to make the vein slowly fade and disappear.

Question 107

1. After four pregnancies, Mrs. X. noticed twisted enlargements of the veins in her lower legs. She complains of pain that is not relieved, even when she elevates her legs or uses compression stockings. Dr. D. recommends a chemical injection into the
   varicosities to destroy and close the veins. This procedure is known as (sclerotherapy, ligation and stripping, laser ablation).

Answer 107

1. sclerotherapy

Question 108

2. An 87-year-old nursing home resident has a history of vascular problems and dependent edema. Recently, he developed skin ulcers on his lower legs. His daughter asks what causes the ulcers.
   The nurse explains that skin ulcers are a complication associated with (varicose veins, advanced age, skin allergies).

Answer 108

2. varicose veins

Question 109

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. arrhythmia:
2. bruit:
3. heart block:
4. heart failure (H F):
5. hypertension:
6. ischemia:

Answer 109

1. irregularity or loss of rhythm of the heartbeat; also called dysrhythmia
2. soft blowing sound heard on auscultation; it is caused by turbulent blood flow
3. interference with normal transmission of electrical impulses through the conducting system of the heart
4. inability of the heart to circulate blood effectively enough to meet the body’s metabolic needs
5. consistently elevated blood pressure that is higher than 140/90 millimeters of mercury, causing damage to the blood vessels and
   ultimately to the heart
6. inadequate supply of oxygenated blood to a body part as a result of interruption of blood flow

Question 110

Diagnostic Procedures
Cardiac catheterization

Cardiac enzymes

Answer 110

 Catheter is guided into the heart via a vein or artery.

 Test to measure levels of enzymes released into blood during an M I.

Question 111

Diagnostic Procedures

Holter monitor

Answer 111

 Records E C G readings, usually for 24 hours, on a portable tape recorder to document arrhythmias and link them to activities or to
symptoms, such as chest pain.

Question 112

Diagnostic Procedures

Stress test

Answer 112

 Exercise tolerance test to determine the heart’s response to physical exertion (stress).
 E C G is performed under controlled exercise stress conditions with use of a treadmill.
 Nuclear stress test uses a radioisotope to evaluate coronary blood flow.

Question 113

Diagnostic Procedures
Doppler Ultrasonography
(U S)

Answer 113

 U S used to assess blood flow through the blood vessels and the heart.
 Handheld U S transducer emits sound waves as it is placed on the carotid artery to produce images of blood flow.
 Carotid Doppler U S creates detailed images of the inside of the
carotid arteries in the neck to check interruption of blood flow caused by plaque or blood clots.

Question 114

Diagnostic Procedures
Troponin I

E K G, E C G

Answer 114

 Blood test that measures levels of proteins released into blood when myocardial cells die (damaged heart muscle).

 Recording of electrical activity of the heart

Question 115

Build Medical Words (continued_8)

1. record of electrical (activity) of the heart:
2. tumor (composed of) fatty plaque:
3. process of recording (radiography) blood flow in a vein:
4. separation or destruction of a blood clot:
5. process of recording (radiography) blood flow in the aorta:
6. abnormal condition of arterial (walls) hardening:
7. process of recording (radiography) blood flow in vessels (after injection of a contrast dye):

Answer 115

1. electrocardiogram
2. atheroma
3. venography, phlebography
4. thrombolysis
5. aortography
6. arteriosclerosis
7. angiography

Question 116

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Automatic implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (A I C D)

Answer 116

 Device implanted in a patient who is at high risk for developing serious arrhythmia

Question 117

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Angioplasty

Answer 117

 Any endovascular procedure that reopens narrowed blood vessels.
• Restores blood flow, usually with use of balloon dilation.

Question 118

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Coronary artery bypass graft (C A B G)

Answer 118

 Vein taken from leg or other part of the body is grafted onto the heart to circumvent an obstruction in a coronary artery

Question 119

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Valvuloplasty

Answer 119

 Surgical repair or replacement of a valve.
 If a balloon is used to open a defective valve, it is called balloon
valvuloplasty.

Question 120

1. Mr. T. is scheduled for surgery to bypass one or more of his blocked coronary arteries to restore blood flow. This surgery
   is charted as coronary artery surgery.

2. Mr. D. is diagnosed with C A D. Treatment for his condition involves an endovascular procedure that will reopen the narrowed
blood vessels and restore blood flow. The blocked vessel is usually opened by balloon dilation. This surgical procedure is
known as (anastomosis, angioplasty, endartotomy).

Answer 120

1. bypass

2. angioplasty

Question 121

3. Lily is scheduled to have surgery on her mitral valve. The surgeon charts surgical repair of the valve as .
4. Ms. B. is diagnosed with ventricular fibrillation. The treatment of choice is to implant a battery-powered device that monitors and automatically corrects tachycardia by sending electrical impulses
   to the heart. The abbreviation for this defibrillator is .

Answer 121

3. valvuloplasty

4. A I C D

Question 122

Pharmacology

Beta blockers

Answer 122

 Decrease heart rate and dilate arteries by
blocking beta receptors.
 Treat angina pectoris and hypertension.

Question 123

Pharmacology

Nitrates

Answer 123

 Treat angina pectoris.
 Dilate veins, which decreases the amount of
work the heart must do.
 Dilate arteries to decrease blood pressure.

Question 124

Pharmacology

Statins

Answer 124

 Lower cholesterol levels in blood.
 Reduce cholesterol production in the liver.
• Block the enzyme that produces cholesterol.

Question 125

Pharmacology

Thrombolytics

Answer 125

 Lyse (break apart) blood clots.
 Used in acute management of myocardial
infarction (M I).
 Used to treat ischemic stroke.

Question 126

1. Mrs. T. is diagnosed with D V T in her lower leg. She is prescribed a drug that dissolves a blood clot. It is known as a
   (beta blocker, nitrate, thrombolytic).
2. Mr. B. is diagnosed with hypercholesterolemia and advised to
   follow a low-fat diet. He is prescribed a drug that reduces cholesterol levels and is known as a (beta blocker, nitrate, statin).

Answer 126

1. thrombolytic

2. statin

Question 127

3. Mrs. S. presents with angina pectoris and is prescribed a drug to relieve her pain. It is called a (beta blocker, nitrate, statin).
4. To lower blood pressure, the doctor prescribes a (beta blocker, nitrate, statin).

Answer 127

3. nitrate

4. beta blocker

Question 128

Lymphatic system

Answer 128

 Lymph nodes
 Lymph vessels and lymph fluid
 Lymphatic organs 
• Tonsils, thymus, and
spleen

 Network of vessels that depends on the pumping action of the
heart to circulate its substances throughout the body.

Question 129

Function
Lymphatic System
 Main functions

Answer 129

1. Drain excess interstitial fluid from tissues and return it to the circulating blood.
2. Absorb and transport digested fats to venous circulation.
3. Produce lymphocytes and other immune cells that protect the body from injury and disease, such as bacteria, viruses, and cancerous cells.

Question 130

Lymph nodes

Function

Answer 130

 Small masses of lymph tissue, also called lymph gland.
• Tend to occur in clusters or chains.
 Major groups of nodes are located in the cervical (neck), axillary (armpit), and inguinal (groin) regions of the body.
• Lymph is filtered through these nodes as it passes through lymph vessels.
• When bacteria accumulate in lymph nodes (as in a bacterial infection), nodes become swollen and tender.

Question 131

Spleen

Function

Answer 131

 Organ similar in structure and function to a
lymph node, but is much larger.
 Filters lymph.
 Manufactures lymphocytes and monocytes.
 Destroys old erythrocytes.

 Stores new erythrocytes for release into the
bloodstream, as needed.
 Not essential to life.
• If spleen is removed, other organs take over its
function.

Question 132

Function

Thymus

Answer 132

 Secretes a hormone called thymosin.
• Thymosin stimulates red bone marrow to produce T lymphocytes (T cells).
• T cells provide defense against disease.
‒ Attack and destroy foreign or abnormal cells.

Question 133

Function

Tonsils

Answer 133

 Filter lymph.

 Destroy bacteria entering the mouth and throat.

Question 134

1. What is the purpose of the lymphatic system?
2. What is the purpose of leukocytes?
3. What role does the hormone thymosin play in the lymphatic system?
4. What organ destroys bacteria entering the mouth and throat?

Answer 134

1. Transports excess fluid from interstitial spaces in tissues and returns it to blood and defends the body against foreign invaders and harmful substances.
2. Defend the body against foreign invaders and harmful agents.
3. Thymosin stimulates the red bone marrow to produce and is important in the immune process.
4. Tonsils

Question 135

Define Combining Forms

1. tonsill/o:
2. cervic/o:
3. thym/o:
4. splen/o:
5. lymphangi/o:
6. agglutin/o:
7. immun/o:
8. lymphaden/o:
9. gland:
10. lymph:
11. phag/o:

Answer 135

1. tonsil
2. neck
3. thymus
4. spleen
5. lymph vessel
6. clumping, gluing
7. immune, immunity, safe
8. lymph gland (node)
9. aden/o
10. lymph/o
11. swallowing, eating

Question 136

Define Suffixes

12. -oma:
13. -phylaxis:
14. -poiesis:

Answer 136

12. tumor
13. protection
14. formation, production

Question 137

Build Medical Words

1. tumor of the thymus gland: /
2. cell that swallows or eats (ingests): / /
3. formation or production of lymph: / /poiesis
4. tumor of a lymph vessel: /
5. process of clumping, gluing: /ation
6. study of immunity: / /logy
7. enlargement of the spleen:
8. tumor (composed of) lymph:
9. inflammation of a lymph gland (node):

Answer 137

1. thym/oma
2. phag/o/cyte
3. lymph/o/poiesis
4. lymphangi/oma
5. agglutin/ation
6. immun/o/logy
7. splen/o/megaly
8. lymph/oma
9. lymphaden/itis or lymph/aden/itis

Question 138

Build Medical Words (continued_6)

10. disease of lymph glands:
11. specialist in the study of immunity:
12. tumor of the thymus gland:

Answer 138

10. lymphaden/o/pathy or lymph/aden/o/pathy
11. immun/o/logist
12. thym/oma

Question 139

Lymphedema

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 139

 Abnormal accumulation of lymph, usually in the
extremities.
 Symptoms eventually include pallor, weakness, lymph node
enlargement, fatigue, fever, and weight loss.
 Affected limb, in part or whole, is typically swollen and hypertrophied with thickened and fibrotic skin.
 As disease progresses, tachycardia, palpitations, and an increased incidence of infections are common.

Question 140

Lymphedema

Treatment

Answer 140

 Control pain.
 Lessen swelling by moving lymph out of the affected limb.
• Gentle exercise, massage, bandaging, compression garments.
 Surgery to correct lymphatic obstruction and promote drainage may be necessary in some instances.

Question 141

1. Mr. G. presents with swelling and excessive accumulation of lymph in his right leg. The physician diagnoses this condition as (lymphoma, lymphomegaly, lymphedema).
2. Dr. J. detects lymphedema as he examines Mrs. L. after her surgery. Dr. J. explains that this condition is caused by blockage
   in the lymphatic system, preventing drainage of lymph fluid. It is also a common complication after removal of the breast, a surgical procedure called ______________.

Answer 141

1. lymphedema

2. mastectomy

Question 142

3. The patient has a history of lymphedema and presents with a swollen, red area of skin that feels hot and tender in the right
   arm. The physician diagnoses this as a skin infection called (cellulitis, hepatitis, lymphadenitis).
4. Mary is diagnosed with lymphedema in her right arm and asks the nurse what can be done to lessen the swelling.

Answer 142

3. cellulitis
4. The nurse explains that swelling can be decreased by moving lymph out of the right arm through gentle exercise, massage, bandaging, and wearing compression garments.

Question 143

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (S L E)

Signs and symptoms

Answer 143

 Chronic inflammatory autoimmune disease.
 Characterized by unusual antibodies in blood targeting tissues
of the body.
 Butterfly-shaped rash or erythema on the face.
 Inflames and damages connective tissue anywhere in the body.
 Most commonly produces inflammation of skin, joints, nervous system, kidneys, lungs, and other organs.
• Degree to which these tissues are involved varies from patient to patient.
 Similar rashes may appear on other exposed areas of the body.
 Exposure to sun can aggravate the rash.
 Fever, fatigue, joint pain, and malaise may begin acutely or develop slowly over a period of years.
 Occurs most often in young women in their 20’s or 40’s

Question 144

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (S L E)

Treatment

Answer 144

 Anti-inflammatory drugs, including aspirin.
 Corticosteroids for severe cases.
 Sometimes antimalarials are added.
 Immunosuppressive agents when lifethreatening or severe crippling disease is present.

Question 145

1. Ms. Z. is diagnosed with systemic lupus erythematosus. The medical assistant charts it with the abbreviation .
2. The patient asks the physician about the typical symptoms of systemic lupus erythematosus.

Answer 145

1. S L E
2. The physician explains that more noticeable symptoms include fever, fatigue, joint pain, and malaise. These symptoms develop over a period and may appear suddenly. Symptoms may include rashes on exposed areas of the body, including a “butterfly” rash on the face.

Question 146

3. Ms. Z. suffers from S L E and states that aspirin is no longer working. The physician prescribes other drugs to reduce
   inflammation that are called (analgesics, antithyroids, corticosteroids).
4. When S L E becomes life threatening, the physician may order drugs to suppress the immune system. These drugs are called (antithyroids, immunosuppressives, nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs [N S A I D’s]).

Answer 146

3. corticosteroids

4. immunosuppressives

Question 147

Kaposi Sarcoma

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 147

 Lymphatic malignancy.
 Composed of multiple red or purple macules, papules, or nodules on skin and mucous membranes.
 First appear on lower extremities, but spread to upper body, face, mucous membranes of throat, and internal organs.
 Closely associated with H I V infection and is considered an “AIDS-defining condition.”

Question 148

Kaposi Sarcoma

Treatment

Answer 148

 Depends on stage of H I V infection and degree of metastasis.
 Common treatment modalities include radiation therapy, chemotherapy, surgery, and immunotherapy.
 Palliative treatment and good oral hygiene are essential.

Question 149

1. John is diagnosed with Kaposi sarcoma (K S) and asks the medical assistant to explain this disease.
2. Mr. Z. with a history of H I V+ presents with purplish brown papules on both arms and legs. The doctor suspects he has a cancer that is associated with AIDS. This type of cancer is known as Kaposi .

Answer 149

1. He explains that it is a malignancy of connective tissues, especially the tissues found under the skin, mucous membranes,
   and the lining of lymph vessels; usually associated with H I V.
2. sarcoma

Question 150

3. The patient is diagnosed with K S and asks the physician what type of medical treatment is needed.

Answer 150

3. The physician explains that treatment
depends on the stage of H I V infection and
degree of metastasis. Some common
treatment modalities include radiation
therapy, chemotherapy, surgery, and
immunotherapy.

Question 151

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. Hodgkin disease:
2. lymphadenitis:
3. lymphocyte:

Answer 151

1. malignant disease characterized by painless, progressive enlargement of lymphoid tissue, splenomegaly, and the
   presence of unique Reed-Sternberg cells in the lymph nodes
2. inflammation and enlargement of lymph nodes, usually a result of infection
3. type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that is responsible for immune responses in defending the body against disease

Question 152

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

4. mononucleosis:
5. pathogen:
6. phagocyte:

Answer 152

4. acute infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (E B V) and characterized by sore throat, fever, fatigue, and enlarged lymph
   nodes
5. any disease-producing microorganism, such as a virus, bacterium, or fungus
6. cells that protect the body by ingesting harmful foreign substances

Question 153

Diagnostic Procedures

Bone marrow aspiration

Answer 153

 Withdrawn for microscopic evaluation
(usually from pelvic bone)
• Used for stem cell transplantation or chromosomal analysis.
 Used to determine if a known cancer, such as Hodgkin and nonHodgkin lymphoma, has spread to bone marrow.
• Part of staging process to determine if cancer has spread and how much it has spread.

Question 154

Diagnostic Procedures

E L I S A (Enzyme-Linked Immunosorbent Assay)

Tissue typing

Answer 154

 Blood test that detects antibodies in blood
 Screening for an antibody to the AIDS virus
 Used to determine histocompatibility of tissues.
 Used in grafts and transplants with recipient’s tissues and cells.
 Also known as histocompatibility testing

Question 155

Build Medical Words (continued_8)

1. disease of a lymph gland:
2. fleshy tumor of lymph (cancerous):
3. process of recording lymph vessel(s):
4. process of recording lymph gland(s):
5. surgical fixation of the spleen:
6. specialist in study of immunity:

Answer 155

1. lymphadenopathy
2. lymphosarcoma
3. lymphangiography
4. lymphadenography
5. splenopexy
6. immunologist

Question 156

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Bone marrow transplantation

Lymphangiectomy

Answer 156

 Infusion of healthy bone marrow stem cells after diseased bone marrow is destroyed by chemotherapy or radiation.
• Used to treat aplastic anemia, leukemia, and certain cancers.

 Excision of one or more lymphatic vessels, usually as a result of cancer

Question 157

1. Magnetic resonance imaging (M R I) reveals a lymphangioma. The physician explains that the tumor needs to be excised. The term for excision of a lymph vessel is .
2. Bill is diagnosed with leukemia. His physician recommends irradiation and chemotherapy of thebone marrow, followed by replacement with healthy blood cells. This type of treatment is called (bone marrow aspiration, bone marrow biopsy, bone marrow transplantation).
3. Jason undergoes M R I, which reveals a tumor composed of lymph vessels. This tumor is known as a .

Answer 157

1. lymphangiectomy
2. bone marrow transplantation
3. lymphangioma

Question 158

Pharmacology

Antivirals

Immunosuppressants

Answer 158

 Inhibit development of specific viruses.
• Used to treat H I V infection and AIDS.

 Suppress immune response to prevent organ rejection after transplantation.
 Slow progression of autoimmune disease.

Question 159

1. To prevent rejection of Mary’s recently transplanted kidney, the physician prescribed a/an (anticoagulant, immunosuppressant, thrombolytic).
2. The American Medical Association (A M A) recommends vaccination with immune globulins to induce immunity to certain
   infectious diseases. These vaccinations are known as (anticoagulants, immunizations, immunosuppressants).
3. To prevent the patient from contracting a viral infection, the physician prescribed a/an (corticosteroid, antiviral, immunosuppressant).
4. Treatment of H I V infection and AIDS includes the use of (corticosteroids, antivirals, immunosuppressants).

Answer 159

1. immunosuppressant
2. immunizations
3. antiviral
4. antivirals

Question 160

Digestive System Structure

Answer 160

 Oral cavity
• Teeth
• Salivary glands
 Pharynx
 Esophagus
 Stomach
• Pyloric sphincter
 Small intestine
• Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
 Large intestine
• Cecum is connected to small intestine by
ileocecal valve.
‒ Appendix hangs from cecum.
• Ascending colon, transverse colon, and descending colon
‒ Sigmoid colon
‒ Rectum
‒ Anus

Question 161

Digestive System Accessory Organs

Answer 161

• Liver
• Gallbladder
• Pancreas

Question 162

Function

Oral cavity

Pharynx (throat)

Esophagus

Answer 162

 Food enters the body.
 Teeth crush food into smaller pieces.

 Food passageway from mouth to esophagus.
 Air passageway from nose to larynx (voice box).

 Food is pushed toward stomach by peristalsis.

Question 163

Function

Stomach

Small intestine (small bowel)

Answer 163

 Food transformed into chyme.
 Pyloric sphincter allows chyme to pass into small intestine.

 Duodenum, jejunum, ileum
• Digestion of food (chyme) is completed with aid of enzymes secreted by liver, gallbladder, and pancreas.
• Nutrients absorbed into bloodstream through tiny fingerlike projections, villi.

Question 164

Function

Large Intestine

Answer 164

 Fluid waste from small intestine passes through various sections of colon.
• Water is reabsorbed into body.
‒ As a result, previously fluid waste turns into solid material (feces or stool).
‒ Rectum, reservoir for feces.
‒ Anus, external opening through which feces are excreted.

Question 165

Function
Accessory organs

 Liver

Answer 165

• Largest glandular organ in the body.
• Manufactures blood proteins.
• Destroys old erythrocytes.
• Removes toxins from blood.
• Manufactures bile that aids in digestion of fats.
• Stores and releases glycogen as needed by body.

Question 166

Function
Accessory organs

 Gallbladder

Answer 166

‒ Stores and releases bile it receives from liver.

Question 167

Function

Accessory Organs

Pancreas

Answer 167

• Produces enzymes that aid in digestion of proteins, starches, and
fats.
• Secretes insulin and glucagon.
‒ Hormones that help regulate carbohydrate metabolism and blood glucose levels

Question 168

Function Summary of Digestive System

Answer 168

 Organs of digestion break down food physically and chemically.
• Prepare food for absorption by cells of the body.
 Digestive system eliminates waste substances.

Question 169

1. What is the oral cavity, and what is its function?
2. Name the three parts of the small intestine, and describe their locations.
3. Name the first four sections of the colon.
4. Describe the shape and location of the pancreas.

Answer 169

1. The mouth is the first part of the digestive tract. It is where the chemical and mechanical processes of digestion begin, with the actions of teeth and salivary glands.
2. First segment, the duodenum, is about 10 inches long. Second segment, the jejunum, is approximately 8 feet long. Third segment, the ileum, is about 12 feet long.
3. Ascending colon, transverse colon, descending colon, and sigmoid colon
4. Elongated, somewhat flattened organ that lies posterior and slightly inferior to the stomach

Question 170

5. What are the main functions of the pancreas?

6. Describe the location and main function of the gallbladder.

Answer 170

5. It secretes insulin and glucagon, hormones that help regulate carbohydrate metabolism and blood glucose levels.
6. It is located on the inferior surface of the liver. It stores and releases bile into the duodenum for digestion.

Question 171

Define Combining Forms

1. or/o, stomat/o:
2. dent/o, odont/o:
3. gloss/o, lingu/o:
4. gingiv/o:
5. esophag/o:

Answer 171

1. mouth
2. teeth
3. tongue
4. gum(s)
5. esophagus

Question 172

Define Combining Forms

6. pharyng/o:
7. splen/o:
8. hepat/o:
9. gastr/o:
10. pancreat/o:

Answer 172

6. pharynx
7. spleen
8. liver
9. stomach
10. pancreas

Question 173

Defining Combining Forms

11. cholecyst/o:
12. chol/e:
13. choledoch/o:
14. duoden/o:
15. jejun/o:

Answer 173

11. gallbladder
12. bile, gall
13. bile duct
14. duodenum
15. jejunum

Question 174

Define Combining Forms

16. ile/o:
17. enter/o:
18. col/o, colon/o:
19. sigmoid/o:
20. rect/o:
21. an/o:
22. proct/o:

Answer 174

16. ileum
17. intestine (usually small intestine)
18. colon
19. sigmoid colon
20. rectum
21. anus
22. anus, rectum

Question 175

Build Medical Words

1. discharge or flow through: dia/
2. without an appetite: an/
3. swallowing, eating (that is) painful or difficult: /phagia
4. after a meal: post/
5. pertaining to under or below the tongue: /lingu/
6. visual examination within or in (an organ): /scopy

Answer 175

1. dia/rrhea
2. an/orexia
3. dys/phagia
4. post/prandial
5. sub/lingu/al
6. endo/scopy

Question 176

Build Medical Words

7. vomiting blood:
8. tumor of the pancreas:
9. instrument for examining the stomach:
10. enlargement of the liver:
11. disease of the intestine (usually small intestine):
12. inflammation of the gum(s):

Answer 176

7. hemat/emesis
8. pancreat/oma
9. gastr/o/scope
10. hepat/o/megaly
11. enter/o/pathy
12. gingiv/itis

Question 177

Appendicitis

Signs and symptoms

Answer 177

 Inflammation of appendix
• Usually resulting from obstruction or infection caused by a fecalith, foreign body, or bacteria.
 Pain, usually becoming localized to right lower quadrant (R L Q)
 Sudden spontaneous relief of pain indicates a ruptured appendix.
 Fever, malaise, diarrhea, or constipation, and tachycardia (later
signs and symptoms).

Question 178

Appendicitis

 Treatment

Answer 178

 Appendectomy
 Surgery within 24 to 48 hours of first symptoms. Delay can result in rupture and peritonitis as fecal matter is released into peritoneal cavity.

Question 179

1. A 35-year-old man presents to the emergency department with R L Q pain, rigid abdomen with increased tenderness, and abdominal cramping. The physician suspects he is suffering from an inflammation of the appendage located off the cecum. An inflammation of the appendix is known as .
2. The physician recommends appendectomy and explains that a delay in surgery may result in rupture of the appendix. This can cause a serious infection of the abdominal cavity or peritoneum called .

Answer 179

1. appendicitis

2. peritonitis

Question 180

3. Dr. G. charts removal of the appendix as
   .
4. Dr. J. informs Joan that her appendicitis may have resulted from an obstruction or infection caused by a hard mass of fecal matter. This type of mass is known as a
   .

Answer 180

3. appendectomy

4. fecalith

Question 181

Diverticulitis

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 181

 Acute inflammation of diverticula.
 Tenderness and pain in lower left quadrant (L L Q) of abdomen.
 Intensity of pain can fluctuate.
 Cramping, nausea, vomiting, fever, chills, or a change in bowel habits may also be experienced.
 Eventually, abscess may form in tissues surrounding the colon.

Question 182

Diverticulitis

Treatment

Answer 182

 Focuses on clearing up inflammation and infection, resting the colon, and preventing or minimizing complications.
 Severe cases with acute pain and complications require a hospital stay. Most cases of severe diverticulitis are treated with
intravenous (IV) antibiotics and going without food or drink for a few days to rest the colon.
 Some cases may require colon resection with a temporary colostomy while the colon heals.

Question 183

1. Dr. X. tells Ann that she has small, blisterlike pockets in the inner lining of her large intestine. He tells her that these pockets are known as .
2. The nurse charts Mr. J.’s complaint of extreme constipation as .
3. Mr. F. is diagnosed for the third time with a severe case of diverticulitis. The physician explains that surgery is needed
   to remove the diverticula. This surgical procedure is called .
4. Joe presents to the emergency department with cramping, nausea, vomiting, fever, chills, and diarrhea. Upon abdominal palpation, Joe experiences pain with tenderness in the L L Q. The
   resident recognizes these symptoms as typical of (appendicitis, diverticulitis).

Answer 183

1. diverticula
2. obstipation
3. diverticulectomy
4. diverticulitis

Question 184

Cholelithiasis ( Cholelithiasis and choledocholithiasis)

What is it

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 184

• Formation or presence of gallstones within the gallbladder or bile ducts.

 Individuals with gallstones may remain asymptomatic.
 Bile duct obstruction may result in a classic “gallbladder attack”; commonly referred to as “biliary colic.
 Acute onset of upper right quadrant (U R Q) abdominal pain that radiates to the shoulder and back.
 Nausea and vomiting may accompany the attack.
 Attacks typically tend to follow ingestion of large meals or fatty foods.

Question 185

Cholelithiasis

Treatment

Answer 185

 Cholecystectomy is the treatment of choice for symptomatic cholelithiasis.
 If condition is asymptomatic, treatment is nonsurgical, unless symptoms reappear or there is a history of previous gallstones with complications.
 Extracorporeal shock-wave lithotripsy, a nonsurgical treatment.
 Insertion of a flexible catheter, guided by fluoroscopy, directly to the stone. A Dormia (stone) basket is threaded through the
catheter, opened, and twirled to entrap the stone. It is then closed and withdrawn.
 Dissolving cholesterol-based stones by bile acid therapy. Existing stones may be decreased in size or dissolved completely.

Question 186

1. Ms. G. presents with an acute onset of U R Q abdominal pain that radiates to the shoulder and back, and she complains of nausea and vomiting. Dr. J. suspects a formation of gallstones in the gallbladder. The medical term for an abnormal condition of
   gallbladder stones is .
2. The doctor explains that removal of the gallbladder is the treatment of choice for symptomatic cholelithiasis. The surgical
   procedure for excision of the gallbladder is .

Answer 186

1. cholecystolithiasis

2. cholecystectomy

Question 187

3. Mr. F. is scheduled for ultrasonography to pulverize his gallstones. This nonsurgical treatment, which is abbreviated ESWL, is defined as .
4. Mrs. C. was diagnosed with choledocholithiasis 3 years ago. She remains asymptomatic and attributes this to adhering to a diet that is low in (sugar, fat, salt).

Answer 187

3. extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

4. fat

Question 188

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. ascites:
2. dysentery:
3. fistula:
4. hemorrhoid:

Answer 188

1. abnormal accumulation of serous fluid in the peritoneal cavity
2. inflammation of the intestine, especially the colon, which may be caused by chemical irritants, bacteria, protozoa, or parasites
3. abnormal passage from one organ to another, or from a hollow organ to the surface
4. mass of enlarged, twisted varicose veins in the mucous membrane inside (internal) or just outside (external) the rectum; also called piles

Question 189

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

5. polyp:
6. volvulus:

Answer 189

5. small tumorlike, benign growth that projects from a mucous membrane surface
6. twisting of the bowel on itself, causing obstruction

Question 190

Diagnostic Procedures

 Endoscopy

Answer 190

• Visual examination of the interior of organs and cavities with a
specialized lighted instrument called an endoscope.

Question 191

Diagnostic Procedures

Sigmoidoscopy

Colonoscopy

Answer 191

 Examination of only the lower third of the colon.

 Examination of entire length of the colon.

Question 192

Diagnostic Procedures

Upper gastrointestinal series (U G I S)

Lower gastrointestinal series

Answer 192

 Radiographic images of esophagus, stomach, and small intestine after oral ingestion of barium.
 Identifies ulcers, tumors, or obstruction in esophagus, stomach, or intestine.

 Radiographic images of rectum and colon following administration of barium enema into the rectum.
 Identifies obstructions, tumors, or other abnormalities of the
colon.

Question 193

Build Medical Words (continued_8)

1. visual examination of the sigmoid colon:
2. instrument for examining interior organs and cavities:
3. visual examination of the colon:
4. visual examination of the interior of organs and cavities:
5. surgical fixation of the liver:
6. suture of a bile duct:

Answer 193

1. sigmoidoscopy
2. endoscope
3. colonoscopy
4. endoscopy
5. hepatopexy
6. choledochorrhaphy

Question 194

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Bariatric surgery -  Vertical banded gastroplasty

Answer 194

 Vertical banded gastroplasty
• Vertical stapling of upper stomach near esophagus.
• Reduces stomach to a small pouch.
• Band restricts food consumption and delays its passage.
‒ Causes feeling of fullness.

Question 195

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Bariatric surgery - Roux-en-Y gastric bypass (R G B)

Answer 195

• Stapling of stomach to decrease its size.
• Shortens jejunum and connects it to small stomach pouch.
• Decreases pathway of food through intestine, thus reduces absorption of calories and fats.

Question 196

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Colostomy

Answer 196

 Creation of an opening into the colon (through the surface
of the abdomen).
 May be permanent or temporary.
 Performed as treatment for cancer or diverticulitis.
 Colostomy allows elimination of feces into a bag attached through the skin

Question 197

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Polypectomy

Answer 197

 Excision of small tumorlike, benign growths (polyps) that

project from a mucous membrane surface.

Question 198

1. Ms. K. is diagnosed with colorectal cancer. The physician explains that an opening of the colon through the abdominal wall to the outside surface will be created. This enables fecal matter to be collected in an attached pouch. The surgical procedure to
   create an opening (mouth) of the colon is called .
2. Dr. Jones discovers polyps during a colonoscopy. What surgical procedure does the doctor perform to remove the polyps?

Answer 198

1. colostomy

2. Polypectomy

Question 199

3. The nurse explains to the weight-loss group that surgical procedures are available to treat morbid obesity. The surgical specialty that treats morbid obesity is called .
4. The nurse explains to the bariatric surgical patient the procedure for a Roux-en-Y gastric bypass. What is the abbreviation
   for this weight-loss surgery?
5. The doctor explains one option to treat morbid obesity. The surgeon staples the upper stomach near the esophagus to reduce it to a small pouch followed by the insertion of a band to restrict food consumption. This is known as .

Answer 199

3. bariatric surgery
4. R G B
5. vertical banded gastroplasty

Question 200

Pharmacology

Antacids

Antidiarrheals

Answer 200

 Counteract or neutralize acidity, usually in the stomach.

 Control loose stools.
 Relieve diarrhea.
• Absorb excess water in bowel.
• Slow peristalsis in intestinal tract.

Question 201

Pharmacology

Antiemetics

Laxatives

Answer 201

 Control nausea and vomiting.
• Block nerve impulses to vomiting center of brain.

 Treat constipation.
• Increase peristaltic activity in large intestine.
• Increase water and electrolyte secretion into bowel to induce defecation.

Question 202

1. Mrs. J. complains of nausea and vomiting for the past 3 days. The medication prescribed will control nausea and vomiting by blocking nerve impulses to the vomiting center of the brain. This
   medication is known as a/an (antacid, antidiarrheal, antiemetic).
2. Mrs. S. is diagnosed with irritable bowel syndrome. She is instructed to increase fluid intake and is prescribed a drug that
   will control her loose bowel movements. The drug is known as a/an (antacid, antidiarrheal, antiemetic).

Answer 202

1. antiemetic

2. antidiarrheal

Question 203

3. A patient diagnosed with excessive stomach acid is treated with a/an (antacid, laxative, antiemetic).
4. Mr. Smith complains of constipation over the past 4 days. The medication prescribed by the nurse practitioner will increase peristaltic activity in the large intestine to produce a bowel movement. This medication is known as a/an (antacid,
   antidiarrheal, laxative).

Answer 203

3. antacid

4. laxative

Question 204

Urinary System Structure and Function -Kidneys

Answer 204

Kidneys
• Primary functional organs of the urinary system.
• Filter urea and other waste products from blood.
• Shaped like a kidney bean.
• Maintain proper balance of water and electrolytes in the body.
‒ Maintain balance by removing waste products of metabolism from blood through urine formation.
• Each kidney comprises an outer layer, the renal cortex; and an inner layer, the renal medulla.
• Blood enters the kidney through the renal artery.

Question 205

Renal artery

Answer 205

• Branches into smaller and smaller arteries, eventually leading to
microscopic filtering units called nephrons.

Question 206

Structure and Function

Nephron

Answer 206

• Microscopic functional unit of the kidney.
• Forms urine in renal corpuscles and tubules by process of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion.
• Renal corpuscle is the site of blood filtration in the nephron and consists of the glomerulus and the Bowman capsule.
• Glomerulus, a cluster of capillaries.
‒ Waste-containing fluids (filtrate) are absorbed into the
Bowman capsule.
 Filtrate flows from the capsule into the renal tubule.
• Renal tubule
‒ Urine formation is completed in the tubules.
‒ Urine flows from renal tubule to the renal pelvis.
 Each renal pelvis (one from each kidney) narrows to form a
ureter.

Question 207

Structure and Function

Ureters

Answer 207

• Approximately 12-inchlong tube that connects renal pelvis of kidney to bladder.
• When muscles of ureters contract, urine is pushed from kidneys into urinary bladder.

Question 208

Structure and Function

Bladder

Answer 208

• Hollow, muscular sac in pelvic cavity.
• Serves as a temporary reservoir for urine.
‒ Expands as urine collects; contracts when urine is excreted.

Question 209

Structure and Function

Urethra

Answer 209

• Tube extending from the bladder to the external opening, urinary meatus.
• Serves as a passageway for excretion of urine from bladder.
‒ Process of excreting urine is called voiding or micturition.

Question 210

1. Name four organs of the urinary system.
2. What is the name of the structure that stores urine until it is voided?
3. What is the main function of the kidneys?

Answer 210

1. Kidneys, ureters, bladder, and urethra
2. Urinary bladder
3. Remove toxic products from blood by forming urine

Question 211

4. What structure in the nephron forms urine?
5. Urine is transported from the kidneys into the urinary bladder via the .
6. Urine is formed through the process of filtration, reabsorption, and .

Answer 211

4. Renal tubule
5. ureters
6. secretion

Question 212

Define Combining Forms

1. nephr/o, ren/o:
2. pyel/o:
3. ureter/o:
4. cyst/o, vesic/o:
5. ur/o, urin/o:
6. urethr/o:
7. meat/o:
8. glomerul/o:

Answer 212

1. kidney
2. renal pelvis
3. ureter
4. bladder
5. urine, urinary tract
6. urethra
7. meatus, opening
8. glomerulus

Question 213

Define Suffixes

9. -emia:
10. -iasis:
11. -lysis:
12. -pathy:
13. -pexy:
14. -ptosis:
15. -tripsy:

Answer 213

9. blood
10. abnormal condition (produced by something specified)
11. separation; destruction; loosening
12. disease
13. fixation (of an organ)
14. prolapse, downward displacement
15. crushing

Question 214

Build Medical Words

1. instrument to examine the bladder: cyst/o/
2. inflammation of the renal pelvis: pyel/
3. expansion of the ureter: /ectasis
4. narrowing or stricture of the urethra: /o/
5. incision of the meatus: meat/o/
6. crushing of a calculus or stone: lith/o/
7. inflammation of the glomerulus and kidney: /o/nephr/
8. fixation of a kidney: /o/pexy

Answer 214

1. scope
2. itis
3. ureter
4. urethr/stenosis
5. tomy
6. tripsy
7. glomerul/itis
8. nephr

Question 215

Build Medical Words (continued_4)

9. excessive urination: poly/
10. scanty urine: olig/
11. stone or calculus in urinary tract: /o/
12. disease of the renal pelvis:
13. tumor of the kidney:
14. urine with blood:
15. urine with pus:

Answer 215

9. uria
10. uria
11. ur/lith
12. pyel/o/pathy
13. nephr/oma
14. hemat/uria
15. py/uria

Question 216

End-Stage Renal Disease (E S R D)

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 216

• Irreversible stage with gradual, progressive deterioration of kidney function.
• Kidneys lose ability to excrete nitrogenous end products of metabolism.
• Progressive weakness, anorexia, diarrhea, pruritus, and polyuria.
• Severity of signs and symptoms varies, depending on extent of renal damage and remaining function.
• Usually result of chronic renal failure (C R F), the gradual, progressive deterioration of kidney function to the point that the kidneys cannot sustain their necessary day-to-day activity.

Question 217

End-Stage Renal Disease (E S R D)

 Treatment

Answer 217

• Dietary restriction of protein, sodium, and potassium intake
• Antiemetics for nausea
• Control of hypertension

Question 218

1. Mr. J. requires renal transplantation because his kidneys no longer filter toxic wastes from blood. His disease is charted
   as E S R D, or .
2. Mrs. M. is diagnosed with E S R D. Her symptoms include progressive weakness, diarrhea, pruritus, polyuria, and loss of
   appetite. The medical assistant charts her loss of appetite as .
3. Mrs. M. is diagnosed with E S R D and is given dietary restrictions of food with protein, potassium, and .
4. A 38-year-old female is admitted with pyonephrosis. A key finding of the inflammatory condition is the accumulation
   of in the kidneys.

Answer 218

1. end-stage renal disease
2. anorexia
3. sodium or salt
4. pus

Question 219

Renal Calculi

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 219

• Concentration of mineral salts in renal pelvis, in
calices of kidney, or in urinary tract.
• Renal calculi patients may remain asymptomatic for
long periods.
• If stone or calculus fragment lodges in a ureter, there may be intense pain and urinary urgency.
• If calculi are in renal pelvis and calices, pain is duller and more constant.
• Back pain and severe abdominal pain may occur. • Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, chills and fever, hematuria, and abdominal distention.

Question 220

Renal Calculi

 Treatment

Answer 220

• Remove stones and prevent new formations.
• Enhance elimination of stones and increase fluid intake.
• Small stones pass spontaneously without treatment. Large stones may require surgical intervention.
• Antibiotics may be prescribed if calculus buildup is caused by bacterial infection.
• Strong analgesics are prescribed for relief of intense pain.
• Ultrasonography is used to locate and monitor calculi as they are being destroyed.

Question 221

1. Mrs. J. has developed kidney stones, even though various treatments were provided. The patient must undergo a surgical
   procedure in which an incision is made to remove the stones. This procedure is called .
2. A patient diagnosed with renal calculi presents to the office complaining of pain in the kidney area. The medical term for this
   symptom is .
3. Upon diagnosis of ureterolithiasis, the doctor informs Mrs. S. that she may experience pain and have difficulty urinating. The medical term for painful or difficult urination is .

Answer 221

1. lithotomy
2. nephralgia or nephrodynia
3. dysuria

Question 222

4. Mrs. H. presents with complaints of pain, nausea, and hematuria. On the basis of her past history of nephrolithiasis, the
   physician orders an imaging technique that utilizes high-frequency sound waves to detect presence of calculi. This imaging procedure is called .

Answer 222

4. ultrasonography

Question 223

Hydronephrosis

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 223

• Distention of renal pelvis and calices caused by pressure from
accumulating urine.
• Pressure impairs, and may eventually interrupt, kidney function.
• If obstruction is above bladder opening, only one kidney may be affected and person may be asymptomatic for a prolonged period.
• If both kidneys are affected, symptoms may include intense pain, nausea, vomiting, oliguria or anuria, and hematuria.

Question 224

Hydronephrosis)

 Treatment

Answer 224

• Remove obstruction, prevent complications, and treat underlying disorders.
• Catheterization for immediate relief of urinary pressure.
• Analgesics may be prescribed.
• Antibiotics are required if infection occurs.
• If needed, surgery to dilate a ureteral stricture.

Question 225

1. Mary presents at the clinic concerned because she only urinated once in the past 24 hours. The medical term for this symptom is (anuria, dysuria, enuria).
2. Mrs. M. presents because her urine is red. The nurse documents this finding as .
3. Joan is diagnosed with nephrosis and has swelling in the ankles, feet, and around the eyes. The medical term for swelling is .

Answer 225

1. anuria
2. hematuria
3. edema

Question 226

4. Radiographic studies of a patient’s kidneys reveal enlargement of the right kidney. The radiologist documents this as .
5. Mr. J. is undergoing surgical repair of the renal pelvis. Before obtaining informed consent, the physician charts this surgical
   procedure as .

Answer 226

4. nephromegaly

5. pyeloplasty

Question 227

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. azoturia:
2. diuresis:
3. hypospadias:
4. polycystic kidney disease:
5. uremia:
6. Wilms tumor

Answer 227

1. increase of nitrogenous substances, especially urea, in urine
2. increased formation and secretion of urine
3. abnormal congenital opening of the male urethra on the undersurface of the penis
4. hereditary condition in which the kidneys are enlarged and contain many cysts that develop over time, requiring dialysis or
   kidney transplantation
5. increase in concentration of urea and other nitrogenous wastes in blood
6. malignant neoplasm of the kidney that occurs in young hildren, usually before age 5 years

Question 228

Diagnostic Procedures

 Cystoscopy

Answer 228

• Examination of urinary bladder
‒ Obtain biopsy specimens of tumors; remove polyps.
‒ Obtain evidence of a pathology.

Question 229

Diagnostic Procedures

 Bladder ultrasonography

Answer 229

• High-frequency sound waves produce images of
the bladder.
• Determines bladder volume.
• Identifies incomplete bladder emptying.

Question 230

Diagnostic Procedures

 Blood urea nitrogen (B U N)

 Urinalysis

Answer 230

• Laboratory test that determines amount of nitrogen in blood that comes from urea.
• Used as an indicator of kidney function.
• Urine screening test.
• Includes physical observation, chemical tests, and microscopic evaluation.

Question 231

Diagnostic Procedures

 Voiding cystourethrography (V C U G)

Answer 231

• Radiography of the bladder and urethra.

* Performed before, during, and after voiding using a contrast medium to enhance imaging.

Question 232

Build Medical Words

1. visual examination of the bladder:
2. process of recording (radiography) the bladder and urethra:
3. process of recording (radiography) the renal pelvis:
4. surgical repair of the renal pelvis:
5. incision of the urethra:
6. protein in urine:

Answer 232

1. cystoscopy
2. cystourethrography
3. pyelography
4. pyeloplasty
5. urethrotomy
6. proteinuria

Question 233

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Catheterization

Answer 233

• Insertion of a catheter into a body cavity or organ.
• Used to instill a substance or remove fluid.
• Most commonly performed through urethra into bladder to
withdraw urine.

Question 234

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Hemodialysis

Answer 234

• Patient’s blood is diverted into a dialysis machine for filtering.

Question 235

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Peritoneal dialysis

Answer 235

• Dialysis in which patient’s own peritoneum is used as
the dialyzing membrane. Contaminated fluid drains
out and is replaced with fresh solution.
• Illustration:
(A) Introducing dialysis fluid into peritoneal cavity.
(B)Draining dialysate with waste products from peritoneal cavity.

Question 236

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (E S W L)

Answer 236

• Powerful sound-wave vibrations break up calculi in urinary tract or gallbladder.
• Administration of an oral dissolution drug removes stones and their fragments during urination.

Question 237

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Renal transplantation

Answer 237

• Diseased kidneys replaced by healthy transplanted kidney.

Question 238

1. Mrs. C. is unable to urinate after surgery, so a catheter is inserted through the urethra and into her bladder to remove urine. This
   therapeutic procedures is known as .
2. Mr. G. is diagnosed with nephrolithiasis. The medical assistant explains that the kidney stones need to be crushed into smaller
   pieces so that they can be expelled in urine. Crushing of stones is a surgical procedure called .
3. Mr. M. is diagnosed with multiple renal calculi. The doctor explains that the treatment of choice is to use powerful sound-wave vibrations to break up the kidney stones. The abbreviation for this procedure is .
4. Mrs. A. has a history of bladder carcinoma and presents for endoscopy of the urinary bladder. Any growths that are present will be removed and biopsy performed. This visual examination
   of the bladder is a medical procedure called .

Answer 238

1. catheterization
2. lithotripsy
3. E S W L
4. cystoscopy

Question 239

5. The patient is in E S R D and requires his blood to be diverted into a machine and filtered, twice a week, because his kidneys
   are no longer functioning. The procedure to have blood filtered outside of the body by a dialysis machine is called .
6. Mrs. M. is diagnosed with kidney failure and must receive peritoneal dialysis. She asks the doctor what the difference is between peritoneal dialysis and hemodialysis.

Answer 239

5. hemodialysis
6. Peritoneal dialysis uses the patient’s own peritoneum as the dialyzing membrane. Hemodialysis uses a dialysis machine as the dialyzing membrane

Question 240

Pharmacology

 Antibiotics

Answer 240

• Treat bacterial infection of urinary tract.
• Act on the bacterial membrane or one of its metabolic processes.
• Type of antibiotic prescribed depends on the infecting organism and the type and extent of infection.

Question 241

Pharmacology

 Antispasmodics

 Diuretics

Answer 241

• Suppress spasms in ureter, bladder, and urethra by
relaxing smooth muscles lining their walls.
‒ Allow normal emptying of the bladder.

• Promote and increase excretion of urine.

Question 242

1. Chest radiography reveals accumulation of fluid in the lungs. The doctor prescribes a drug to stimulate production and flow of
   urine. The drug is a/an (antispasmodic, antidiuretic, diuretic).
2. Mr. Q. was catheterized for surgery and now experiences spasms in the urethra and bladder. To decrease the spasms and allow normal emptying of the bladder, the doctor prescribes
   a/an (antispasmodic, antidiuretic, diuretic).

Answer 242

1. diuretic

2. antispasmodic

Question 243

3. Mrs. T. has been diagnosed with a urinary tract infection. To treat the bacterial infection, the physician prescribes an
   (analgesic, antibiotic, antispasmodic).
4. To relieve the patient’s nephralgia, the physician prescribes an (analgesic, antibiotic, antispasmodic).

Answer 243

3. antibiotic

4. analgesic

Question 244

Reproductive System-Female

Structure

Answer 244

 Ovaries
 Fallopian tubes
 Uterus
 Vagina
 Clitoris
 Vulva
 Mammary glands

Question 245

Function

 Fallopian tubes

Answer 245

• Extend laterally at superior angle from uterus
• Pathway of ovum into uterus
• Fimbria ― fingerlike projections that propel ovum into oviduct

Question 246

Function

 Ovaries

Answer 246

• Two ovaries located on each side of the uterus within the pelvic cavity
• Production of estrogen and progesterone, which affects puberty,
menstruation, and pregnancy

Question 247

Function

 Uterus

Answer 247

• Muscular, hollow, pearshaped structure suspended by ligaments in pelvic cavity (see illustration)
• Responsible for housing and nourishing embryo from implantation of fertilized egg until birth

Question 248

Function

 Vagina

Answer 248

• Muscular tube extending from cervix to exterior of
body
• Organ of sexual intercourse
• Passageway for delivery of fetus

Question 249

Function

 Clitoris

Answer 249

• Located anterior to vaginal orifice
• Organ of sexual response in females
• Composed of erectile tissue with sensory nerve endings

Question 250

Function

 Vulva

Answer 250

• Structures of external genitalia
• Labia majora—thicker, outermost structures
• Labia minora—smooth, thin, inner structures
• Responsible for protecting inner genitals

Question 251

Function

 Mammary glands

Answer 251

• Glandular lobes located in breasts of females; contain milk ducts, which lead to opening in nipple of breast
• Not directly involved in reproduction
• More important after delivery
• Production of milk to nourish neonate after birth

Question 252

Function

Female Reproductive System

Answer 252

 Organs and glands produce and unite female sex cells (ova or egg cells).
 Transport ova to site of fertilization.
 Perpetuate species.
 Pass genetic material from generation to generation.

Question 253

1. Where are the ovaries located?
2. What is the biological role of the mammary glands?
3. What do the terms gestation and parturition mean?
4. What structure is known as the birth canal?

Answer 253

1. Pelvic cavity, one on each side of the uterus
2. Secrete milk for nourishment of the newborn
3. Gestation is the period from the fertilization of the ovum until birth; parturition refers to the process of giving birth.
4. Vagina

Question 254

Define Combining Forms

1. oophor/o, ovari/o:
2. colp/o, vagin/o:
3. hyster/o, uter/o:
4. metr/o:
5. cervic/o:
6. salping/o:
7. mamm/o, mast/o:
8. vulv/o, episi/o:

Answer 254

1. Ovary
2. vagina
3. uterus
4. measure
5. cervix; cervix uteri (neck of uterus)
6. tube (fallopian or eustachian)
7. breast
8. vulva

Question 255

Define Combining Forms (continued_4)

9. nat/o:
10. galact/o:
11. gynec/o:
12. men/o:

Answer 255

9. birth
10. milk
11. woman, female
12. menstruation

Question 256

Define Suffixes

13. -arche:
14. -cyesis:
15. -gravida:
16. -para:
17. -salpinx:
18. -tocia:

Answer 256

13. beginning
14. pregnancy
15. pregnant woman
16. to bear (offspring)
17. tube (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory] tubes)
18. childbirth, labor

Question 257

Build Medical Words

1. pertaining to (the period) before birth: / /
2. pregnant woman (for the) first time: primi/
3. pregnancy (that is) false: /o/cyesis
4. hernia(tion) or swelling of a fallopian tube: salping/o/
5. bad, painful, or difficult labor or childbirth: /tocia
6. to bear (offspring) many times: /para

Answer 257

1. pre/nat/al
2. primi/gravida
3. pseud/o/cyesis
4. salping/o/cele
5. dys/tocia
6. multi/para

Question 258

Build Medical Words (continued_4)

7. inflammation of the cervix uteri (neck of the uterus):
8. surgical puncture of the amnion (amniotic sac):
9. specialist in the study of female (disorders):
10. tumor of an ovary:
11. visual examination of the uterus:
12. excision or removal of the breast:

Answer 258

7. cervic/itis
8. amni/o/centesis
9. gynec/o/logist
10. oophor/oma
11. hyster/o/scopy, uter/o/scopy
12. mastect/omy

Question 259

Build Medical Words (continued_8)

13. surgical repair of the vagina:
14. herniation of the uterus:
15. suture of the perineum:

Answer 259

13. vagin/o/plasty, colp/o/plasty
14. hyster/o/cele
15. perine/o/rrhaphy

Question 260

Ectopic Pregnancy

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 260

• Fertilized ovum implants and grows in places other
than the uterine cavity.
 Common site is interior of the fallopian tube.
• Other sites include the ovary, wall of the uterus, or anywhere in the pelvic cavity.
• Signs of early pregnancy may be present.
• Abdominal pain and tenderness, as well as slight vaginal bleeding.
• Rupture of a fallopian tube is life threatening and may cause severe abdominal pain and intraabdominal bleeding.

Question 261

Ectopic Pregnancy

 Treatment

Answer 261

• Laparotomy is done, with an attempt to save the ovary.
• Ruptured fallopian tube may require removal.
• All attempts are made to save the ovary.
• Blood transfusion may be necessary in severe intra-abdominal bleeding or hypovolemic shock.

Question 262

1. Ellen presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain. Computed tomography scan of the abdomen reveals an ovum has implanted in her fallopian tube. A pregnancy for an implanted ovum outside of the uterine cavity is known as an
2. The doctor diagnoses Heather with ectopic pregnancy. Heather asks her to explain what causes this condition.

Answer 262

1. ectopic pregnancy
2. The doctor explains that it is caused by a blockage or scarring of the tubes which prevents the fertilized egg from being transported to the uterus.

Question 263

3. The nurse explains that a common cause of scarring or blockage of the fallopian tubes is infection, such as P I D. This abbreviation is defined as
4. Jean is diagnosed with ectopic pregnancy in the fallopian tube. The obstetrician informs her of the risks involved in this type of
   pregnancy. What are some of these risks?

Answer 263

3. pelvic inflammatory disease
4. The fallopian tube may rupture, which is life threatening. It may also cause severe abdominal pain and intra-abdominal bleeding.

Question 264

Breast Cancer

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 264

• Early symptoms include swelling, lump, dimpling, retraction of nipple, discharge from nipple, and tenderness.
• Advanced symptoms include nodularity, redness, edema, ulceration of skin, and enlargement or shrinkage of breast.
• Most common malignancy of women in the United States.
• Appears to be associated with ovarian hormonal function.
• High-fat diet appears to increase the incidence of breast cancer.
• Family history of breast cancer
• Possibly use of hormone replacement therapy (H R T), especially for prolonged periods.

Question 265

Breast Cancer
 Treatment

• Lumpectomy

Answer 265

‒ Excision of a small primary breast tumor and some of the normal tissue that surrounds it

Question 266

Breast Cancer
 Treatment

Modified radical
mastectomy

Answer 266

‒ Excision of the entire breast,
including lymph nodes in the
underarm (axillary
dissection)

Question 267

Breast Cancer Additional Treatment

Answer 267

• Adjuvant chemotherapy may be indicated after surgery if malignant cells are found in the lymph nodes.
• Any combination of surgery, radiation, chemotherapy, and hormonal therapy may be performed.
• Most women who have mastectomies today undergo modified radical mastectomies.

Question 268

1. Mrs. S. had a mastectomy because of breast cancer. The doctor explains the postoperative adjuvant chemotherapy he is
   recommending. Can you explain the purpose of adjuvant chemotherapy?
2. Lisa detects a lump in her breast while performing breast self-examination. After mammography shows a small tumor, an
   excision of the breast tumor is performed. This is known as a .
3. Sasha is diagnosed with breast cancer and asks the doctor the types of treatments prescribed for breast cancer besides surgery.

Answer 268

1. Chemotherapy is used to enhance or extend the effects of surgery and to eliminate any possible metastasis.
2. lumpectomy
3. The physician explains that radiation, chemotherapy, and hormonal therapy are the treatments other than surgery.

Question 269

4. Mary is scheduled for a modified radical mastectomy to treat her breast cancer. This surgical procedure involves removal of the
   entire breast and excision of the underarm lymph nodes. The medical term for removal of the lymph node is .

Answer 269

4. lymphadenectomy

Question 270

Endometriosis

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 270

• Growth of endometrial tissue in areas outside the uterus
• Most commonly within the pelvic area
• Dysmenorrhea with pain in lower back and vagina
• Severity of pain not indicative of extent of the disease
• Dyspareunia, dysuria, and, sometimes, painful defecation

Question 271

1. A 15-year-old arrives at the clinic for birth control counseling. After weighing her options, she decides that birth control pills
   are her best option because they are highly reliable and easy to use. The abbreviation for the oral contraceptives is .
2. June comes into the clinic complaining of pain during sexual intercourse. The medical assistant documents this complaint as
   (dysmenorrhea, dyspareunia, dysuria).

Answer 271

1. O C P’s

2. dyspareunia

Question 272

3. Joan, a 22-year-old, presents to the office with severe pain with menstruation. Her complaint is documented as .
4. During laparoscopy, ectopic deposits of endometrial tissue are noted within the pelvis. The doctor charts this condition of
   endometrial tissue outside of the uterus as (endometritis, histometrial, endometriosis).

Answer 272

3. dysmenorrhea

4. endometriosis

Question 273

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. curet:
2. fistula:
3. gametes:
4. gestation:

Answer 273

1. instrument used to scrape the endometrium of the uterus during dilatation and curettage (D&C)
2. abnormal connection or passageway between two organs or vessels that do not normally connect
3. reproductive cells of the male and the female that fuse during fertilization; in the female, it is the ovum, and in the male, it is
   the sperm
4. length of time from conception to birth; normally 36 weeks in humans

Question 274

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

5. retroversion:
6. sterility:

Answer 274

5. state of being turned back or a tipping, especially of an organ, such as the uterus
6. inability of the female to become pregnant or the male to impregnate the female

Question 275

Diagnostic Procedures
 Laparoscopy

 Colposcopy

 Hysterosalpingography

Answer 275

• Visual examination of abdominal cavity with a laparoscope through one or more small incisions in the abdominal wall,
usually at the umbilicus

• Examination of the cervix, vagina, and vulva with
a colposcope.
‒ Used to detect signs of disease

• Radiography, and usually fluoroscopy of the uterus and uterine tubes
• Radiography performed after injection of a contrast medium

Question 276

Diagnostic Procedures
 Mammography

 Pap test

Answer 276

• Radiography of the breast to detect tumors, cysts, and microcalcifications and to locate a malignant lesion
• Detects abnormal cells in cervix and vagina

Question 277

Build Medical Words

1. visual examination of the vagina:
2. process of recording (radiography) the uterus and fallopian tubes:
3. instrument to examine the abdomen:
4. incision of the vulva:
5. surgical repair of the breast:
6. visual examination of the abdomen:
7. excision or removal of the breast:

Answer 277

1. colp/o/scopy
2. hyster/o/salping/o/graphy
3. lapar/o/scope
4. episi/o/tomy
5. mamm/o/plasty, mast/o/plasty
6. lapar/o/scopy
7. mast/e/ctomy

Question 278

Medical and Surgical Procedures
 Dilation and Curettage
(D&C)

Answer 278

• Widening of cervical canal with a dilator
• Scraping the uterine endometrium with a curet
• Curettage (scraping) the uterine endometrium
with a serrated uterine curet.

Question 279

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Cerclage

Answer 279

• Sutures are used to close the cervix.
‒ Helps prevent premature birth
‒ Decreases chance of spontaneous abortion
‒ Sutures removed before delivery

Question 280

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Amniocentesis

Answer 280

• Transabdominal puncture of the amniotic sac under

ultrasound guidance to remove amniotic fluid

Question 281

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Hysterectomy

Answer 281

 Subtotal hysterectomy
(cervix not removed).
 Total hysterectomy
(cervix removed)
 Total hysterectomy
plus bilateral salpingooophorectomy

Question 282

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Reconstructive breast
surgery

Answer 282

 Tissue (skin) expansion
• Breast reconstruction in which a balloon expander
is inserted beneath skin and chest muscle.
• Saline solution is gradually injected to increase size,
and expander is replaced with a permanent implant.

Question 283

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Transverse rectus abdominis muscle (T R A M) flap

Answer 283

• Surgical creation of a skin flap (using skin and fat from lower
half of abdomen), which is passed under skin to breast area,
shaped into a natural looking breast, and sutured in place

Question 284

1. Mary presents to the obstetric clinic in her early third trimester with symptoms of premature labor. The physician recommends a procedure to suture the cervix to prevent premature labor and decrease the risk of a spontaneous abortion. This procedure is
   called .
2. Patient is scheduled for removal of her uterus and both fallopian tubes. The physician charts this surgical procedure as total hysterectomy plus bilateral A: .

Answer 284

1. cerclage

2. salpingo-oophorectomy

Question 285

3. The patient is scheduled for a transabdominal puncture of the amniotic sac under ultrasound guidance to remove amniotic fluid to find out if her baby has any genetic abnormalities. The physician documents this procedure as .
4. The patient is scheduled for removal of her uterus with the cervix, ovaries, and fallopian tubes intact. The physician charts
   this surgical procedure as .

Answer 285

3. amniocentesis

4. subtotal hysterectomy

Question 286

5. Ms. Y. presents with heavy bleeding over the last 6 months and is scheduled to have a scraping of uterine endometrium with a
   curet after dilation of the cervix. The abbreviation for this procedure is .
6. After her mastectomy, Susan is considering reconstructive breast surgery with the TRAM flap procedure. What is the meaning
   of the abbreviation T R A M?

Answer 286

5. D&C

6. transverse rectus abdominis muscle

Question 287

Pharmacology

Topical antifungals

Estrogens

 Hormone replacement therapy (H R T)

Answer 287

 Used to treat vaginal yeast infections
 Alter cell wall of fungi or disrupt enzyme activity
• Results in cellular death

 Estrogen replacement therapy (E R T) to correct estrogen deficiency
 Chemotherapy for some types of cancer

• Used to correct deficiencies of estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone
‒ Relieves symptoms of menopause
‒ Prevents osteoporosis in women

Question 288

Pharmacology

 Oral contraceptives (O C P’s)

Answer 288

• Synthetic hormones used to prevent pregnancy
‒ Used to treat menstrual disorders
‒ Also known as birth control pills

Question 289

1. The patient presents with a vaginal yeast infection. The physician prescribes a suppository (antifungal, estrogen, H R T).
2. Mrs. A. is menopausal and has symptoms of vaginal dryness and hot flashes. The physician writes her a prescription for an agent known as an (antifungal, estrogen, O C P).
3. Lauren, a 22-year-old, is sexually active with her husband but wants to wait a couple of years before having children. The nurse practitioner explains the most effective option to prevent conception is to use an agent known as an (antifungal, estrogen, O C P).

Answer 289

1. antifungal
2. estrogen
3. O C P

Question 290

4. Mrs. C. has undergone total hysterectomy plus bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy. The gynecologist prescribes H R T now that the ovaries have been removed and estrogen and progesterone cannot be produced. The abbreviation H R T means .

Answer 290

4. hormone replacement therapy

Question 291

Endocrine System - Structure

Answer 291

 Pituitary gland
 Thyroid gland
 Parathyroid
 Adrenal glands
 Pancreas
 Pineal and thymus glands
 Ovaries and testes (Part of reproductive and endocrine systems)

Question 292

Endocrine System - Function

Answer 292

 Consist of endocrine (ductless) glands.
• Secrete chemicals called hormones directly into the bloodstream.
 Control and integrate many bodily functions.
 Action of hormones on target organs increase or decrease the target’s activity level.
• Maintains homeostasis.
‒ Together with the nervous system, the endocrine system controls many intricate activities of the body.

Question 293

1. What is a target organ?
2. What are common conditions that result in various pathologies of the endocrine system?
3. Why is the pituitary known as a master gland?
4. The endocrine glands secrete chemicals into the bloodstream called .

Answer 293

1. The organ or tissue that responds to a hormone
2. Hypersecretion or hyposecretion of a hormone
3. Regulates many body activities; stimulates other glands to secrete specific hormones
4. hormones

Question 294

Define Combining Forms

1. pancreat/o:
2. thyr/o, thyroid/o:
3. thym/o:
4. aden/o:
5. adren/o, adrenal/o:
6. toxic/o, tox/o:
7. gluc/o, glyc/o, glycos/o:
8. home/o:

Answer 294

1. pancreas
2. thyroid gland
3. thymus gland
4. gland
5. adrenal glands
6. poison
7. sugar, sweetness
8. same, alike

Question 295

Define Combining Forms (continued_4)

9. calc/o:
10. crin/o:
11. ophthalm/o:

Answer 295

9. calcium
10. secrete
11. eye

Question 296

Define Suffixes

12. -dipsia:
13. -emia:
14. -genesis:
15. -trophy:

Answer 296

12. thirst
13. blood
14. forming, producing, origin
15. development, nourishment

Question 297

Build Medical Words

1. excessive (many, much) thirst: poly/
2. pertaining to poisonous activity of the thyroid: / /toxic
3. sugar in urine: /uria
4. blood with excessive or abnormal glucose: / /emia
5. instrument to measure sugar: /o/
6. excessive (many, much) urination: poly/
7. condition of deficient insulin: hypo/ /
8. secrete within (internally): endo/

Answer 297

1. poly/dipsia
2. thyr/o/toxic
3. glycos/uria or glucos/uria
4. hyper/glyc/emia
5. gluc/o/meter
6. poly/uria
7. hypo/insulin/ism
8. endo/crine

Question 298

Build Medical Words (continued_4)

9. specialist in the study of poisons:
10. inflammation of the pancreas:
11. enlargement of the extremities:
12. tumor of a gland:
13. tumor (composed of) insulin:
14. blood (with a) poison (toxic substance):

Answer 298

9. toxic/o/logist or toxic/o/log/ist
10. pancreat/itis
11. acr/o/megaly
12. aden/oma
13. insulin/oma
14. tox/emia

Question 299

Graves Disease

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 299

• Exophthalmos
• Common form of hyperthyroidism
• Production of thyroid hormone increases
• Enlarged thyroid (goiter).
• Elevated metabolic rate, abnormal weight loss, and
muscular weakness.

Question 300

Graves Disease

 Treatment

Answer 300

• Depends on the patient’s age and the severity of the disease.
• Antithyroid agents to block hormone synthesis within the thyroid gland.
• Alteration in the structure of the thyroid gland through surgery or radioactive iodine therapy.
• Beta blockers in combination with one of the treatments listed above.

Question 301

1. Mary is diagnosed with Graves disease and is concerned about the abnormal protrusion of her eyeballs. The doctor explains it is a
   common symptom of Graves disease, and the protruding eyeballs is a condition called.
2. The patient is scheduled for excision of her thyroid gland. This surgical procedure is charted as .
3. Mrs. N. presents with hyperthyroidism. She states her mom had Graves disease and asks about the connection between Graves disease and hyperthyroidism.

Answer 301

1. exophthalmus
2. thyroidectomy
3. The doctor explains that Graves disease is the most common form of hyperthyroidism.

Question 302

4. John is diagnosed with Graves disease and asks why his eyes are protruding.

Answer 302

4. The medical assistant explains that it is caused by an accumulation of cellular material behind the eyeballs, which is
   stimulated by hypersecretion of thyroidstimulating hormone.

Question 303

Cushing Syndrome

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 303

• Hypersecretion of adrenal cortex, mainly cortisol.
• Round, “moon-shaped” face with acne.
• Muscle weakness, purple striated marks on skin, and hirsutism.
• Syndrome causes changes in multiple body systems.
• Head and trunk grossly exaggerated, with pencilthin arms and legs.
• “Buffalo” hump on upper back, peptic ulcer, hypertension, and susceptibility to infection.
• Anxiety and depression.

Question 304

Cushing Syndrome

 Treatment

Answer 304

• Restore concentration of serum cortisol to normal levels.
• Varies according to the etiology.
• Drugs or radiation to suppress adrenocorticotropic hormone (A C T H) secretion.
• Total adrenalectomy.
• Lifelong treatments of cortisol replacement therapy.
• Surgery, followed by chemotherapy, when the syndrome is caused by tumors of the adrenal cortex.

Question 305

1. Mary is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome and learns that it is caused by a tumor in her adrenal cortex. She is told the recommended treatment is surgery, followed by chemotherapy. The surgery to remove the adrenal gland(s) is known as .
2. Nancy presents with complaints of puffiness and water retention. The nurse explains that sodium retention causes increased fluid in tissues. The swelling is called .

Answer 305

1. adrenalectomy

2. edema

Question 306

3. Jane is diagnosed with Cushing syndrome. The physician explains the goal of treatment is to restore concentration of normal levels of the principal steroid hormone produced
   by the adrenal cortex. This hormone is known as (calcitonin, cortisol, oxytocin).
4. The doctor explains one of the complications of untreated Cushing syndrome is elevated blood pressure. The medical term for this complication is .

Answer 306

3. cortisol

4. hypertension

Question 307

Growth Hormone Imbalance (G H I)

 Signs and symptoms

Answer 307

• Acromegaly
‒ Hypersecretion of growth hormone (G H) during adulthood.
‒ Fusion of growth plates at ends of long bones, which prevents person from growing taller.
‒ Widening and enlargement of facial features, jaw, hands, and feet.
• Gigantism
‒ Hypersecretion of G H during childhood.
‒ Excessive growth of bones and tissues due to high level of G H.
‒ Height changes of up to 6 inches in 1 year in children.
‒ Abrupt development, resulting in abnormally increased height.
• Dwarfism
‒ Hyposecretion of GH during childhood.
‒ Lack of growth and short stature but with normal body proportions.

Question 308

Growth Hormone Imbalance (G H I)

 Treatment

Answer 308

• Hyposecretion of G H
‒ Drug therapy with growth hormone.
‒ Surgery if a tumor is the cause.
• Hypersecretion of G H
‒ Drug therapy to suppress secretion of growth hormone.
‒ Surgery to remove an adenoma or radiation therapy to
destroy the adenoma.

Question 309

1. The physician explains to Mrs. J. that her son’s short stature is a condition known as dwarfism. This condition is caused by
   (hyposecretion, hypersecretion, hypertrophy) of G H.
2. Mr. M. will undergo excision of his pituitary gland. The physician explains that he will require lifelong replacement of thyroid
   hormone, corticosteroids, and sex hormones to maintain a stable internal environment. The regulation required to maintain this stable environment in the body is called (homogeneous, homeostasis, homologous).

Answer 309

1. hyposecretion

2. homeostasis

Question 310

3. Mrs. P. is diagnosed with acromegaly caused by a pituitary tumor. The physician explains that surgery to remove the gland is
   required and can be performed endoscopically (through the nose). This procedure is known as a(n) (hypophysectomy, adenectomy,
   rhinectomy).

Answer 310

3. hypophysectomy

Question 311

Diabetes Mellitus

 Signs and symptoms

Answer 311

• Group of metabolic diseases.
• Characterized by high glucose levels.
• Caused by defects in insulin secretion, action, or both.
• Two primary forms
‒ Type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus.
‒ Type 2 (non–insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus.

Question 312

Diabetes Mellitus
 Signs and symptoms (continued)
 Type 1 (insulin-dependent) diabetes mellitus

Answer 312

• Chronic metabolic disorder marked by hyperglycemia.
• Inability of the pancreas to produce enough insulin to properly control blood glucose levels.
• Most commonly diagnosed in children, adolescents, or young adults.
• Fatigue, polyphagia, polyuria, and polydipsia
• Unplanned weight loss
• Blurred vision (common in patients with hyperglycemia and polyphagia)
• Diabetic ketoacidosis with loss of metabolic control (for example, during periods of infection or noncompliance with therapy)

Question 313

Diabetes Mellitus
 Signs and symptoms  Type 2 (non–insulin-dependent) diabetes
mellitus

Answer 313

• Gradual onset that occurs in middle age, commonly in overweight patients (because fat interferes with the body’s ability to use insulin).
• Characterized by high blood glucose levels that lead to a chronic, lifelong disease that requires medical management.
• Insulin resistance and inadequate insulin secretion to sustain normal metabolism.
• Commonly asymptomatic.
• Polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria.
• Frequent or slow-healing infections.
• Fatigue.
• Blurred vision (common in hyperglycemic patients).

Question 314

Diabetes Mellitus
 Treatment
 Type 1

Answer 314

• Specialized diet and regular exercise.
• Intensive foot and eye care.
• Medications, including insulin to lower blood glucose levels.

Question 315

Diabetes Mellitus
 Treatment
 Type 2

Answer 315

• Calorie-restricted diet with regular aerobic exercise.
• Oral drugs:
‒ Increase pancreatic secretion of or cellular sensitivity to
insulin.
‒ Decrease absorption of carbohydrates from the gastrointestinal (G I) tract.
• Insulin injections (if combinations of oral drugs fail to regulate blood glucose levels)

Question 316

1. Mrs. Q. has symptoms of polyphagia, polydipsia, and polyuria. The physician explains that these are classic symptoms of
   (ketosis, diabetes, myxedema).
2. Ms. V. has type 1 diabetes and complains of fluid retention and back pain. The physician explains kidney disease is a complication of untreated diabetes mellitus, and diagnoses her condition as diabetic (nephropathy, cystopathy, uropathy).

Answer 316

1. diabetes

2. nephropathy

Question 317

3. Ms. T.’s fasting blood glucose laboratory result is 150. This abnormally elevated blood glucose level is charted as .
4. During a patient education session about diabetes, the nurse explains that exact insulin measurement is important. Too
   much insulin will result in an abnormally low blood glucose level, a condition called
   .

Answer 317

3. hyperglycemia

4. hypoglycemia

Question 318

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. hormones:
2. myxedema:
3. obesity:
4. osteoporosis:

Answer 318

1. specialized chemicals that are released directly into the bloodstream and travel to specific tissues or organs of the body called targets
2. advanced hypothyroidism in adults, causing edema and increased blood pressure
3. excessive accumulation of body fat that may lead to an adverse effect on health; body mass index (B M I) is greater than 30
4. abnormal loss of bone density and deterioration of bone tissue with an increased risk of fractures

Question 319

Diagnostic Procedures

 Fasting blood glucose (F B G)

 Glucose tolerance test (G T T)

Answer 319

• Measures blood glucose levels following a fast of
at least 8 hours.

• Measures blood glucose levels at regular
intervals (usually 3 hours).
• Used to diagnose diabetes mellitus with higher
accuracy than other blood glucose tests.

Question 320

Diagnostic Procedures

 Glucometer

Answer 320

• Monitors blood glucose levels (glycemia).
• Self-monitoring, usually done before meals and at bedtime.
• Piercing of skin, typically on the finger, to draw blood.
• Application of blood to a test strip.

Question 321

Diagnostic Procedures

 Radioactive iodine uptake (R A I U) test

 Thyroid function test (T F T)

Answer 321

• Administration of R A I U in pill or liquid form.
‒ Used as a tracer to test how quickly the thyroid gland uptakes iodine from blood.

• Detects increase or decrease in thyroid function.
• Measures levels of thyroid-stimulating hormone, triiodothyronine (T3 ), and thyroxine (T4 ).

Question 322

Build Medical Words (continued_8)

1. blood condition of deficient calcium:
2. blood condition of excessive calcium:
3. tumor of thymus gland
4. enlargement of the thyroid gland:
5. blood condition of excessive glucose:
6. urine that contains sugar:

Answer 322

1. hypocalcemia
2. hypercalcemia
3. thymoma
4. thyromegaly
5. hyperglycemia
6. glucosuria

Question 323

Medical and Surgical Procedures
 Transphenoidal DOUBLE CHECK - ONE PROCEDURE OR TWO
 Hypophysectomy

Answer 323

• Endoscopic procedure to remove a pituitary tumor.
• Incision of the sphenoid sinus (transphenoidal)
without disturbing brain tissue.

Question 324

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Thymectomy

Answer 324

• Excision of thymus gland.
• Used to remove tumors of thymus.
• Used in treatment of myasthenia gravis (M G).
‒ M G commonly causes abnormalities of the thymus

Question 325

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Insulin delivery with an insulin pump

Answer 325

• Small pump device delivers insulin
subcutaneously.
• Typically worn on the abdomen or buttocks.
• Continuous delivery of small amounts of insulin via a tiny catheter, as illustrated.
• Bolus of insulin delivered with the push of a button before meals or snacks.
‒ Provides closer to normal insulin levels.

Question 326

Medical and Surgical Procedures

 Insulin injection sites

Answer 326

• Absorption and effectiveness are determined by the
injection site.
• Rapid absorption
‒ Abdomen and then upper arm and thigh areas.
• Slower absorption
‒ Subcutaneous fat and hip and buttock areas.
• No injection within 2 inches of the navel.

Question 327

1. Mrs. J. is diagnosed with a thymoma. The physician informs her that he must excise it in a surgical procedure called .
2. Mr. X. is diagnosed with hyperthyroidism. The physician explains that excision of one lobe of the thyroid will stabilize his
   condition. The surgical procedure to remove a lobe is called .
3. Ms. C. undergoes biopsy that reveals a malignant tumor of the adrenal gland. The physician charts this malignant tumor as an
   adrenal .
4. Mr. K.’s magnetic resonance imaging (M R I) reveals a rare tumor of the adrenal glands composed of chromaffin cells. This type of
   tumor is known as a(n) (cytoma, pheochromocytoma, adrenal sarcoma).

Answer 327

1. thymectomy
2. lobectomy
3. carcinoma
4. pheochromocytoma

Question 328

5. Ms. R. will use an insulin pump to replace the multiple insulin injections she takes throughout the day. This pump delivers
   insulin directly into her bloodstream via a small, hollow tube called a .
6. Ms. D. is diagnosed with diabetes. The nurse demonstrates how to get a blood sample and insert it into a device to measure blood
   glucose. This device is called a .

Answer 328

5. catheter

6. glucometer

Question 329

Pharmacology

 Hormone replacement therapy (H R T)

 Oral hypoglycemics

Answer 329

• Oral administration of injection of synthetic hormones.
‒ Corrects deficiency in estrogen, testosterone, or thyroid hormone.

• Stimulate insulin secretion from pancreatic cells in patients with non–insulin-dependent diabetes with some pancreatic function.

Question 330

1. Mary is diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. To control her blood sugar levels, the physician prescribes (corticosteroids, insulin, thyroid hormones).
2. Susan is in menopause. To control her symptoms of hot flashes and vaginal dryness, the physician prescribes an oral synthetic hormone of (calcium, estrogen, testosterone).

Answer 330

1. insulin

2. estrogen

Question 331

3. Tom has undergone thyroidectomy. To replace the production of hormones T3 and T4 , the doctor prescribes (calcium,
   corticosteroids, thyroid supplements).
4. Connie is diagnosed as postmenopausal and finds she is at risk for osteoporosis. Her doctor recommends preventing bone loss
   by taking a supplement called (calcium, sodium, thyroid).

Answer 331

3. thyroid supplements

4. calcium

Question 332

Nervous System

Structure

Answer 332

Two main divisions of nervous system 
 Central nervous system (C N S)
• Brain
• Spinal cord
 Peripheral nervous system (P N S)
• Cranial nerves
• Spinal nerves

Question 333

 Central nervous system (C N S)

• Brain

Answer 333

‒ Highly complex in structure and function.
‒ Trillions of synapses work together to control every physical and mental activity of the body.
‒ Center for memory, emotion, thought, judgment, reasoning, and consciousness.

Question 334

 Central nervous system (C N S)

• Spinal cord

Answer 334

‒ Long narrow column of neural tissue within the spinal
cavity of the vertebral column.
‒ Extends from brainstem to the second lumbar vertebra in the spinal column.
‒ Protected by bony structures of the vertebral column.
‒ Protected and nourished by the meninges.
* Three membranes covering spinal cord and brain.
‒ Transmits sensory impulses from the body to the brain.
‒ Transmits motor impulses from the brain to muscles and organs of the body.

Question 335

Structure and Function
 Peripheral nervous system (P N S)

• Cranial nerves
• Spinal nerves

Answer 335

‒ 12 pairs that emerge from the brainstem.
‒ Named for each pair that reflects its location or function.

‒ 31 pairs that emerge from the spinal cord.
‒ Named for each pair according to the vertebra next to it.

Question 336

Structure and Function
 Cellular structure of the nervous system

• Neurons
• Neuroglia

Answer 336

‒ Basic structural and functional units of nervous system.
‒ Interconnecting to form complicated networks called nerves that transmit electrical impulses throughout the body.

‒ Perform functions of support and protection.
‒ Do not transmit electrical impulses.
‒ Certain small glial cells are phagocytic cells.
*Protect C N S from disease by engulfing and digesting invading
microbes.

Question 337

1. What are the two main divisions of the nervous system?
2. What are the cells that transmit impulses called?
3. What does the C N S consist of?
4. What does the P N S consist of?
5. What is the function of neuroglial cells?

Answer 337

1. Central nervous system (C N S) and peripheral nervous system
   (P N S)
2. Neurons
3. Brain and spinal cord
4. Peripheral nerves that connect C N S to remote body parts to relay and receive messages
5. They perform the function of support and protection. Certain small glial cells are phagocytic cells and protect C N S from
   disease by engulfing and digesting invading microbes.

Question 338

Define Combining Forms

1. cerebr/o:
2. encephal/o:
3. gli/o:
4. mening/o, meningi/o:
5. myel/o:
6. neur/o:

Answer 338

1. cerebrum
2. brain
3. glue, neurological tissue
4. meninges (membranes covering brain and spinal cord)
5. spinal cord
6. nerve

Question 339

Define Combining Suffixes

7. -paresis:
8. -phasia:
9. -plegia:
10. -asthenia:

Answer 339

7. partial paralysis
8. speech
9. paralysis
10. weakness, debility

Question 340

Spinal Cord Injuries

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 340

• Spinal cord injury resulting in paralysis
‒ Usually a consequence of fracture, dislocation, or both of the vertebral column.
• Location of spinal cord injury and severity of trauma determines whether paraplegia or quadriplegia results.
• In paraplegia, there is loss of motor and sensory functions in the legs and trunk.
• In paraplegia, bowel, bladder, and sexual function may be lost.
• Complete spinal cord injury renders no feeling or function beneath the injury.
• Incomplete spinal cord injury renders some feeling and function remains beneath the injury.

Question 341

Spinal Cord Injuries

 Treatment

Answer 341

• Restoration and stabilization of the injured spinal area.
• Halo brace keeps head and neck immobile while fusion and healing takes place.
• Decompression of compressed neurological structures.
• Prevent progressive spinal cord tissue damage.
• Surgery, drugs, or cooling the affected portion of the spine.

Question 342

1. Michelle’s daughter is diagnosed with a spinal cord injury and asks the nurse to explain its cause.
2. Jena has a loss of motor and sensory functions in the legs and trunk after an auto accident. This type of spinal injury is known as (paraplegia, quadriplegia, complete spinal injury).
3. The nurse explains that a C6 injury results in paralysis of all four extremities and usually the trunk. This type of impairment is called (paraplegia, quadriplegia, total paralysis).
4. The veteran presents to the clinic with paralysis of the lower portion of the body and both legs. The medical term in the chart for this spinal cord impairment is (paraplegia, quadriplegia, total paralysis).

Answer 342

1. Acute traumatic injury of the spinal cord that results from automobile accidents, sports injuries, falls, or violence
2. paraplegia
3. quadriplegia
4. paraplegia

Question 343

Spina Bifida

 Signs and Symptoms

Answer 343

• Developmental defects of the first trimester of pregnancy, characterized by incomplete closure of the bones encasing the
spinal cord.

Question 344

Spina Bifida
 Signs and Symptoms

Spina Bifida Occulta

Answer 344

 Spina bifida occulta is the most common and least severe spinal cord defect.
• Incomplete closure of one or more vertebrae without protrusion of spinal cord or meninges. Spinal cord is covered with a layer of skin.

Question 345

Spina Bifida

 Signs and Symptoms

 Spina bifida cystica

Answer 345

has two classifications:
• Meningocele—sac contains only meninges and
cerebrospinal fluid (C S F).
• Meningomyelocele―sac contains meninges, C S F,
and a portion of the spinal cord.

Question 346

Spina Bifida

 Treatment

Answer 346

• Spina bifida occulta usually does not require treatment.
• Meningocele and meningomyelocele require surgical repair of sac and supportive measures to promote independence and decrease possibility of complications.
• Folic acid in diet of women in the childbearing age decreases risk of spina bifida.

Question 347

1. Mrs. C. asks about the importance of taking a folic acid vitamin supplement during pregnancy.
2. Baby Smith is diagnosed with spina bifida cystica and the mother asks the physician to explain this congenital defect.

Answer 347

1. The medical assistant explains that folic acid intake decreases risk of the child being born with the congenital defect called
   spina bifida.
2. The doctor states that spina bifida cystica involves protrusion of the meninges (meningocele), or spinal cord (myelocele), or both (meningomyelocele).

Question 348

3. Mrs. J. asks the nurse to explain the treatment recommended for spina bifida occulta.

Answer 348

3. She explains that spina bifida occulta does not require surgery and there is little or no treatment.

Question 349

4. Baby Mary is diagnosed with spina bifida that involves protrusion of the meninges. The medical term for this is (meningocele, meningomyelocele, myelocele).
5. Baby Mark is diagnosed with spina bifida cystica that involves the protrusion of the meninges and the spinal cord. This diagnosis is charted as (meningocele, meningomyelocele, myelocele).

Answer 349

4. meningocele

5. meningomyelocele

Question 350

Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)
 Two types of stroke

Answer 350

Type 1: Ischemic stroke

Type 2: Hemorrhagic stroke

Question 351

Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)
Type 1: Ischemic stroke

Answer 351

• Blood supply to brain is blocked or significantly slowed. It might be thrombotic or embolic.
‒ Thrombotic stroke occurs when an occlusion builds
up in an artery until it significantly decreases or stops blood flow to the brain.
* Thrombotic stroke most often occurs in the internal or common carotid arteries.

• Embolic stroke is caused by a blood clot that is created somewhere in the body and travels (embolism)
‒ Often within the heart, and travels through arteries until it becomes trapped in a smaller vessel, preventing passage of blood.
‒ Embolism travels and becomes lodged in middle, anterior, or posterior cerebral arteries.

Question 352

Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)
Type 2: Hemorrhagic stroke

Answer 352

• Caused by rupture of a cerebral blood vessel that allows blood to escape into brain tissue and not travel beyond the point of rupture.
‒ Further classified as intracerebral hemorrhage and
subarachnoid hemorrhage.

• Intracerebral hemorrhage
‒ Rupture of vessels in the brain.
‒ Compression and destruction of brain structures from
released blood.

• Subarachnoid hemorrhage
‒ Release of blood into the space surrounding the brain.
‒ Commonly caused by a ruptured aneurysm.
‒ Usually fatal.

Question 353

Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)

 Signs and symptoms

Answer 353

• Symptoms vary and depend on the area of the brain affected.
• Visual disturbances and language disturbances.
• Weakness or paralysis on one side of the body.
• Drowsiness, severe headache, and dysphagia.

Question 354

Cerebrovascular Accident (Stroke)

 Treatment

Answer 354

• Initial emergency care is supportive while test results are pending.
• Laboratory tests, electrocardiography (E C G), and computed tomography scans, with results back within 4 minutes after assessment.
• Thrombolytic therapy within an hour of arrival.
• Careful serial neurological assessments to promptly detect changes.

Question 355

1. Mr. C. is aware that strokes are commonly preceded by mild, stroke-like symptoms that usually resolve within 24 hours. His
   physician advises him to seek medical attention if he experiences such symptoms, called T I A, which is the abbreviation for .
2. Mrs. L. suffered a stroke that affected the left side of her brain and resulted in a speech impairment. The physician charts this disorder as (aphasia, dysphagia, dysphasia).

Answer 355

1. transient ischemic attack

2. dysphasi

Question 356

3. Mr. R. suffered a stroke 6 months ago. Today, he must use a cane to walk because of weakness in his left leg. The medical
   term for this weakness is (paraplegia, hemiplegia, hemiparesis).
4. Ms. A. suffered a stroke and now has difficulty eating and swallowing. How should the nurse chart these difficulties?

Answer 356

3. hemiparesis

4. dysphagia

Question 357

Alzheimer Disease

 Signs and symptoms

Answer 357

• Neuritic plaques and neurofibrillary tangles instead of normal orderly arrangements develop in the brain.
‒ Deficiency of function of neurotransmitters.

Question 358

Alzheimer Disease
 Signs and symptoms
Stages

Answer 358

• Stage 1: Increasing forgetfulness.
• Stage 2: Progressive cognitive deterioration causes difficulty doing simple calculations or answering questions.
• Stage 3: Progression to complete dependency.
‒ Ability to recognize that others are lost.
‒ Death occurs from complications of immobility.

Question 359

Alzheimer Disease

 Treatment

Answer 359

• No known cure.
• Drugs to inhibit breakdown of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine.
‒ Increased levels of acetylcholine in the brain allow better functioning of the remaining neurons.
• Focuses on minimizing effects of the disease.
‒ Maintaining independence as long as possible.
• Antidepressants, antipsychotics, and antianxiety drugs may be used as last resort to control symptoms of depression and behavioral disturbances.

Question 360

1. Mrs. A. is becoming forgetful and withdrawing from social interactions with her family. She loses track of time and commonly forgets to eat her meals. The physician diagnoses her disorder as
   (deterioration, dyslexia, dementia).
2. Mr. F. is a resident in the Alzheimer unit. He no longer recognizes his wife and daughter when they come for a visit. In addition, he is completely dependent on his caregivers for
   his daily needs. What stage of Alzheimer disease does Mr. F. suffer from?

Answer 360

1. dementia

2. stage 3

Question 361

3. To alter the destruction of neurons in Alzheimer disease, pharmaceutical treatment involves prescribing drugs to
   (increase, inhibit, promote) levels of acetylcholine in the brain.

Answer 361

3. inhibit

Question 362

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. cognition:
2. craniotomy:
3. epilepsy:
4. hydrocephalus:

Answer 362

1. the ability to think; includes attention, memory, learning, reasoning, problem solving, and decision making
2. incision of the skull to gain access to the brain during neurological procedures
3. disorder that affects the central nervous system (C N S) and is characterized by recurrent seizures
4. cranial enlargement caused by accumulation of fluid within the ventricles of the brain

Question 363

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

5. neuritic plaques:
6. sciatica:

Answer 363

5. sticky substance made of amyloid protein found in the gray matter of the brain; the plaques are frequently characteristic of
   Alzheimer disease
6. severe pain in the leg along the course of the sciatic nerve, which travels from the hip to the foot

Question 364

Diagnostic Procedures

 Lumbar puncture

Answer 364

• Needle puncture of spinal cavity to withdraw a sample of
cerebrospinal fluid.
‒ Used for biochemical, microbiological, and cytological laboratory
analysis.
‒ Introduces agents into spinal canal (anesthetics, radiopaque substances).

Question 365

Diagnostic Procedures

 Electroencephalography (E E G)

Answer 365

• Recording and analysis of electrical activity of the brain.
‒ Record obtained is called an electroencephalogram
(paper strip tracings).
• Electrodes are placed on scalp.
• Helpful in studying epilepsy, convulsive disorders, and locating lesions in the cerebrum.

Question 366

Diagnostic Procedures

 Electromyography (E M G)

Answer 366

• Recording and analysis of electrical activity of selected muscle groups while at rest and during voluntary contraction.
• Test determines whether muscle weakness is caused by a muscular disease or nerve damage.
• Aids in diagnosis of neuromuscular disorders

Question 367

Diagnostic Procedures

 Positron emission tomography (P E T)

Answer 367

• Imaging procedure that records metabolic activity.
• Use of a tracer that emits positively charged molecules.
• Commonly used in conjunction with C T.
• Used to scan brain and nervous tissue.
‒ Identifies areas of abnormal activity that occur in schizophrenia, tumors, epilepsy, stroke, and Alzheimer disease.

Question 368

Diagnostic Procedures

 Computed tomography (C T)

Answer 368

• Use of a computer to generate three-dimensional images.
• Especially effective in diagnosing disorders of the brain and spinal cord.
• Used to visualize tumors, abscesses, hemorrhage, and injury from trauma.

Question 369

Build Medical Words

1. pertaining to the cerebrum and spine:
2. incision of the cranium (skull):
3. crushing a nerve:
4. hernia(tion) of meninges and spinal cord:
5. inflammation of gray matter of spinal cord:
6. paralysis of four (limbs):
7. tumor of nerve, embryonic cell:

Answer 369

1. cerebr/o/spin/al
2. crani/o/tomy
3. neur/o/tripsy
4. mening/o/myelocele
5. poli/o/myel/it is
6. quadri/plegia
7. neur/o/blast/oma

Question 370

Build Medical Words (continued_4)

8. pertaining to the cerebrum:
9. condition of water in the head:
10. separation, destruction, or loosening of a nerve:

Answer 370

8. cerebr/al
9. hydr/o/cephal/us
10. neur/o/lysis

Question 371

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Craniotomy

Answer 371

 Incision of the skull to gain access to the brain during neurological procedures.
 Performed to control brain bleeds, relieve intracranial pressure (I C P), and remove brain tumors.

Question 372

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Thalamotomy

Answer 372

 Partial destruction of the thalamus portion of the brain.

 Used as a treatment for psychosis and intractable pain.

Question 373

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Trephination

Answer 373

 Excision of a circular disk of bone by using a specialized saw called a trephine.
 Reveals brain tissue for neurosurgery.
 Used to relieve I C P.

Question 374

1. John suffers from chronic pain caused by an injury to his back from an auto accident 10 years ago. The doctor performs a partial
   destruction of the thalamus to treat his chronic pain. This is charted in the medical record as .
2. Zia is having surgery to remove a brain tumor. The surgeon needs to create an opening in the skull to gain access to the
   tumor. This surgery is known as (craniotomy, thalamotomy, tractotomy).

Answer 374

1. thalamotomy

2. craniotomy

Question 375

3. The neurosurgeon performs a transection of a nerve tract in the spinal cord to resolve the patient’s chronic pain. This surgical procedure is charted as (craniotomy, thalamotomy, tractotomy).
4. What is the name of the specialized saw that can excise a circular disk of bone? (trephine, thalmine, L P)

Answer 375

3. tractotomy

4. trephine

Question 376

Pharmacology

 Anesthetics

Answer 376

• Produce partial or complete loss of sensation, with or without loss of consciousness.
‒ General anesthetics act on brain to produce complete loss of consciousness.
‒ Local anesthetics act on nerves or nerve tracts to affect a local area only.

Question 377

Pharmacology

 Anticonvulsants

 Antiparkinsonian agents

Answer 377

• Prevent or reduce severity of epileptic or other convulsive seizures; also called antiepileptics.
• Control tremors and muscle rigidity associated with Parkinson disease by increasing dopamine levels in the brain.

Question 378

Pharmacology

 Antipsychotics

Answer 378

• Alter neurotransmitters in the brain to alleviate symptoms of psychosis, paranoia, and schizophrenia.

Question 379

1. To control parkinsonian tremors, the physician prescribes an (anticonvulsant agent, antibiotic agent, antiparkinsonian agent).
2. Pat is scheduled for craniotomy. The anesthesiologist informs her that she will be unconscious during the procedure and
   a (general, central, local) anesthetic will be administered.

Answer 379

1. antiparkinsonian agent

2. general

Question 380

3. To control seizures, the physician prescribes an (anesthetic, anticonvulsant, antiparkinsonian).
4. Mr. R. is diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. The psychiatrist prescribes an (anticonvulsant, antiparkinsonian,
   antipsychotic) to the relieve the symptoms of paranoia.

Answer 380

3. anticonvulsant

4. antipsychotic

Question 381

5. Mrs. C. is informed that she will be under local anesthesia for her minor procedure, and she asks if she will be unconscious.

Answer 381

5. The nurse explains that anesthetics that produce loss of feeling only affect a local area; there is no loss of consciousness.

Question 382

Musculoskeletal System

Structure

Answer 382

Muscles
Human skeleton
Bones

Question 383

 Three types of muscles

Answer 383

• Skeletal
• Smooth
• Cardiac

Question 384

Function of Muscles

Answer 384

 Provide contraction that allows body movement.
 Provide body posture.
 Help passage and elimination of food.
 Help propel blood through arteries and other vessels.
 Provide contraction of bladder to eliminate urine.

Question 385

Human Skeleton

Answer 385

 Consists of 206 individual bones.
 Axial skeleton is divided into three major regions.
Skull
rib cage
vertebral column.

Question 386

Function

Bones

Answer 386

 Provide a skeletal framework to support and protect the body.
 Point of attachment with muscles.
 Store calcium and other minerals.
 Produce blood cells within bone marrow.

Question 387

Structure and Function
Bones
 Four types

Answer 387

• Short
• Irregular
• Flat
• Long
‒ Diaphysis—shaft, or long portion, of the bone
‒ Distal and proximal epiphysis—two ends of the bone

Question 388

1. What are the four principal types of bones?
2. Provide a few examples of long bones.
3. What are the terms given to the ends of a long bone?
4. Where is smooth muscle found in the body, and what are its functions?
5. What is the function of ligaments?

Answer 388

1. Short bones, flat bones, irregular bones, and long bones
2. Long bones are found in the extremities of the body, such as the legs, arms, fingers, and toes.
3. Distal epiphysis and proximal epiphysis
4. They are found in walls of arteries, respiratory passages, urinary and reproductive ducts, and visceral organs. Smooth muscles are those whose actions are involuntary.
5. They are flexible bands of fibrous tissue that hold bones close together at the joint.

Question 389

Define Combining Forms Muscular System
 muscul/o, my,o:
 leiomy/o:
 rhabd/o:
 rhabdomy/o:
 chondr/o:

Answer 389

 muscle
 smooth muscle (visceral)
 rod-shaped (striated)
 rod-shaped (striated) muscle
 cartilage

Question 390

Define Combining Forms

6. crani/o:
7. femor/o:
8. patell/o:
9. tibi/o:
10. pelvis:
11. scapula:
12. vertebra:
13. sternum:

Answer 390

6. cranium
7. femur
8. patella
9. tibia
10. pelv/o, pelv/i
11. scapul/o
12. vertebr/o
13. stern/o

Question 391

Define Combining Forms

14. chondr/o:
15. cost/o:
16. arthr/o:
17. orth/o:
18. oste/o:
19. thorac/o:
20. spondyl/o, vertebr/o:

Answer 391

14. cartilage
15. ribs
16. joint
17. straight
18. bone
19. chest
20. vertebrae (backbone)

Question 392

Build Medical Words

1. inflammation of ribs and cartilage: /o/ /itis
2. act of measuring the pelvis: /i/
3. malignant tumor of connective tissue and muscle: /o/sarcoma
4. cell that breaks down bone: /o/clast

Answer 392

1. cost/o/chondr/itis
2. pelv/i/metry
3. my/o/sarcoma
4. oste/o/clast

Question 393

Build Medical Words

5. inflammation around bone: / /itis
6. pertaining to under or below the ribs: sub/ /al
7. pertaining to the sternum (breastbone) and ribs: /o/ /al
8. pain in the calcaneum (heel bone): /o/

Answer 393

5. peri/oste/itis
6. sub/cost/al
7. stern/o/cost/al
8. calcane/o/dynia

Question 394

Build Medical Words

1. porous bone:
2. tumor (composed) of muscle:
3. binding, fixation (of a bone or joint):
4. rupture of muscle:
5. abnormal condition of being stiff, bent, or crooked:
6. weakness or debility of muscle:
7. softening of cartilage:
8. visual examination of a joint:

Answer 394

1. oste/o/porosis
2. my/oma
3. arthr/o/desis
4. my/o/rrhexis
5. ankyl/osis
6. my/asthenia
7. chondr/o/malacia
8. arthr/o/scopy

Question 395

Build Medical Words

9. tumor (composed of) of smooth muscle:
10. pertaining to (the area) between (two) vertebrae:

Answer 395

9. leio/my/oma

10. inter/vertebr/al

Question 396

Fractures

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 396

 Injury or breaking of a bone.
 Pain, swelling, bruising, and deformity at site of fracture.
 Loss of movement, function, muscle spasm, hemorrhage, and shock.
 Depends on whether the fracture is caused by trauma from a fall, an accident (usually motor vehicle), or a crushing injury.
 Depends on whether the fracture is the result of trauma from bone disease, such as osteoporosis, bone cancer, or some other
pathological condition of the bones.

Question 397

Fractures
Signs and Symptoms

 Common types

1. Closed
2. Open (compound)

Answer 397

1. Closed (simple)—break with no external skin wound.
2. Open (compound)— break with external wound.
   ‒ Leads to fracture site with piece of bone protruding through skin.

Question 398

Fractures 
Signs and Symptoms
 Common types
3. Complicated
4. Comminuted

Answer 398

3. Complicated—broken bone injures an internal organ, such as the lung.
4. Comminuted—bone broken or splintered into pieces.

Question 399

Fractures 
Signs and Symptoms
 Common types
5. Impacted
6. Incomplete

Answer 399

5. Impacted—end of broken bone wedged into interior of another bone.
6. Incomplete—fracture line does not include the whole bone.

Question 400

Fractures
Signs and Symptoms
 Common types

7. Greenstick

Answer 400

7. Greenstick—break in which bone is partially bent and split.
   Occurs most commonly in children, especially those who have rickets, or in adults with soft bones

Question 401

Signs and Symptoms
 Common types

8. Colles

Answer 401

8. Colles—break in lower end of radius. Commonly occurs when
   wrist is extended to break a fall.

Question 402

Fractures

Treatment

Answer 402

 External immobilization of affected part using traction, casting, or splinting.
 Open or closed reduction.
• May be required to realign bone for proper healing.
 Analgesics or muscle relaxants to ease pain.
 Open reduction (surgical) and external fixation or internal fixation by using metal plates, screws, or rods.
 Possibly no treatment.
 Bandaging or taping for support, immobilization, and pain control (as with rib fractures).

Question 403

1. Mr. O. is involved in an automobile accident and presents to the emergency department with a broken rib that has pierced his lung.
   The physician diagnoses this fracture as (closed, comminuted, complicated).
2. Mr. Q.’s radiograph shows a line of fracture on his femur that does not include the entire bone. The radiologist identifies this as
   a/an (Colles, comminuted, incomplete) fracture.

Answer 403

1. complicated

2. incomplete

Question 404

3. The doctor explains to Mrs. P. that he will immobilize and align the bones of her hip at the site of the fracture by inserting pins
   and screws. This type of procedure is known as (internal fixation, osteoclasis, synovectomy).
4. The radiograph of 3-year-old Mike shows a bending of the femur following a car accident. The physician charts the break in
   the bone as a fracture.

Answer 404

3. internal fixation

4. greenstick

Question 405

5. Mary presents to the emergency department and is diagnosed with a broken arm. The physician explains that he will have to manipulate her arm to realign the bones before putting on a cast.
   The physician charts the procedure as reduction.

Answer 405

5. closed

Question 406

Herniated Disk

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 406

 Herniation of the nucleus pulposus (center of gelatinous
material within an intervetebral disk) between two vertebrae;
also called prolapsed disk.
 Depend on the particular site of herniation.
 Severe back pain that worsens with motion.
 For cervical disk herniation, paresthesia and restricted mobility of the neck.
 Coughing, sneezing, or bending intensifies the pain and discomfort.
 Lumbar sciatic involvement begins as a dull ache and progresses to severe pain.

Question 407

Herniated Disk

Treatment

Answer 407

 Bed rest and alternating heat and cold applied to the affected portion of the spine.
 Muscle relaxants, salicylate, and/or analgesics.
 Traction of lower extremities and a back brace.
 Laminectomy may be required if conservative treatment is unsuccessful.
 Spinal fusion may be necessary to stabilize the spine.

Question 408

1. Joe presents to the clinic with a sensation of numbness and a burning feeling in his right foot. The physician diagnoses his
condition as (paraplegia, paresis, paresthesia).

2. Fred complains of pain emanating from his lower back that goes down to the left leg. The doctor suspects that it is a flare-up of
   pain along the sciatic nerve known as .

Answer 408

1. paresthesia

2. sciatica

Question 409

3. Mr. X. undergoes surgery to correct a herniated disk. The orthopedic surgeon removes the vertebral posterior arch in a
   surgical procedure called (dislodgement, herniorrhaphy, laminectomy).
4. Treatment for a herniated disk is to relieve pain, treat muscle spasms, and relieve pressure. It includes use of weights and pulleys to immobilize the site and facilitate healing and is known as (traction, tractotomy, tractus).

Answer 409

3. laminectomy

4. traction

Question 410

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 410

 Autoimmune disease in which immune system attacks its own cartilage and connective tissues.
 Results in crippling deformities.
 Most commonly found in women between ages 23 and 35 years, but can affect people of any age group.
 Muscles, bones, and skin adjacent to the affected joint atrophy.

Question 411

Rheumatoid Arthritis

Treatment

Answer 411

 No specific cure, but medications can slow spread of the disease.
 Less severe cases are treated with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (N S A I D’s), physical therapy, and orthopedic measures.
 Surgery may reduce pain and improve mobility

Question 412

1. Ms. T. has a recent diagnosis of an autoimmune disease in which the immune system attacks its own cartilage and connective tissues. This results in crippling deformities and causes muscles, bones, and skin adjacent to the affected joint to atrophy. This disease is known as rheumatoid .
2. The patient with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is concerned about its effects on joint cartilage and asks the nurse to explain the joint deterioration.

Answer 412

1. arthritis

2. The nurse states that joint cartilage is slowly destroyed by changes associated with the inflammatory process.

Question 413

3. Michelle suffers from rheumatoid arthritis (R A) and presents with complaints of mild pain. The physician recommends an overthe-counter anti-inflammatory, such as ibuprofen. He explains that it is commonly used to relieve mild to moderate pain and
   reduce inflammation. This type of drug is known as a/an (antibacterial, N S A I D, steroid).
4. The physician’s assistant is speaking to a support group of patients with R A. She explains the prognosis of R A and why it is
   such a crippling disease.

Answer 413

3. N S A I D
4. The physician’s assistant explains that because there is no cure for R A, the disease progresses until the cartilage and connective tissues of joints are destroyed.

Question 414

Talipes Equinovarus

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 414

 Congenital deformity.
 Heel of the foot is unable to rest on the ground.
 Also called clubfoot

Question 415

Talipes Equinovarus

Treatment

Answer 415

 Applying casts to progressively straighten the foot.

 Surgical correction may be necessary for severe cases.

Question 416

Osteomyelitis

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 416

 Inflammation, swelling, localized heat, redness, pain and local
tenderness.
• Occurs at and around the bone.
• Other symptoms include chills, fever, sweating, and malaise.
 As infection progresses, an abscess may develop.
• Fractured dead pieces become surrounded by purulent material and form a sequestrum, as illustrated.
• Both acute and chronic forms can present the same clinical picture.

Question 417

Osteomyelitis

Treatment

Answer 417

 Extensive, long-term antibiotic treatment.
• Follow-up care to prevent recurrent infections.
 Surgical drainage to remove pus and necrotic bone tissue.
 Tissue and bone grafts if necessary to restore blood flow to the site.

Question 418

1. Mr. K. suffers from infected bone tissue that has become necrotic and results in a bone abscess. This infection of bone and
   bone marrow is diagnosed as (osteoporosis, osteitis, osteomyelitis).
2. Mr. Z. is diagnosed with osteomyelitis. The physician explains that if the infection goes untreated, eventually, the bone tissue will die. This condition is known as (necatoriasis, necropsy, necrosis).

Answer 418

1. osteomyelitis

2. necrosis

Question 419

3. Mrs. P. had hip surgery a few weeks ago and complains of pain around the incision site. After a series of tests, the physician
   determines that there is local infection of bone and bone marrow, most likely as a result of bacteria introduced during her surgery. The physician diagnoses her condition as (osteomalacia, osteomyelitis, osteophlebitis).

Answer 419

3. osteomyelitis

Question 420

4. Baby Mia is born with a condition in which the heels of the feet are unable to rest on the ground. The physician diagnoses her
condition as (osteomalacia, osteomyelitis, talipes equinovarus).

Answer 420

4. talipes equinovarus

Question 421

Gout

Signs and symptoms

Answer 421

 Metabolic disease
• One or more severely inflamed joints because of deposits and buildup of uric acid crystals.
• Swollen joint that is hot, usually painful to the touch.
 More common in middle-aged and older men.
 Characterized by renal dysfunction (hyperuricemia) and renal calculi.

Question 422

Gout

Treatment

Answer 422

 Bed rest to lessen pressure on affected joints.
 N S A I D’s and corticosteroids:
• Orally or injected into the gouty area to reduce inflammation.
• Applications of heat or cold with analgesics.
 Gradual weight reduction for overweight patients.
 Dietary modifications:
• Low-purine diet.
• Adequate fluid intake.
• Dairy products.

Question 423

1. Mr. J.’s right great toe is swollen and painful. He suffers from a metabolic disease caused by accumulation of uric acid crystals in the blood. His condition is diagnosed as .
2. Mrs. R. has a history of “aches and pains” in her knees, and she has red, swollen, painful knees. The nurse charts her symptoms as (arthralgia, arthrodesis, arthrolysis).

Answer 423

1. gout

2. arthralgia

Question 424

3. Mary is diagnosed with gout and is given instructions by the nurse to follow a lowpurine diet. The nurse explains that purines are found in (carbohydrates, fat, protein).
4. Mr. M.’s laboratory results indicate abnormally high levels of uric acid in the bloodstream. The medical word for this excess uric acid in the blood is .

Answer 424

3. protein

4. hyperuricemia

Question 425

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. contracture:
2. crepitation:
3. dystrophy:
4. kyphosis:

Answer 425

1. fibrosis of connective tissue in the skin, fascia, muscle, or joint capsule that prevents normal mobility of the related tissue or joint
2. grating sound made by movement of bone ends rubbing together, indicating a fracture or joint destruction
3. progressive degeneration of a body tissue, such as muscle, caused by inadequate nourishment of the affected area
4. increased curvature of the thoracic region of the vertebral column leading to a humpback posture; also called hunchback

Question 426

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

5. subluxation:
6. torticollis:

Answer 426

5. partial or complete dislocation

6. spasmodic contraction of the neck muscles causing stiffness and twisting of the neck

Question 427

Diagnostic Procedures

Arthroscopy

Answer 427

 Visual examination of interior of a joint performed by inserting an endoscope through a small incision.
 Performed to repair and remove joint tissue.

Question 428

Diagnostic Procedures

Myelography

Rheumatoid factor

Answer 428

 Radiography of spinal cord after injection of a contrast medium to identify and study spinal distortions caused by tumors, cysts, herniated intervertebral disks, or other lesions.

 Blood test to detect presence of rheumatoid
factor, a substance present in patients with R A.

Question 429

Build Medical Words

1. visual examination of a joint:
2. pertaining to the neck and face:
3. disease of bones and joints:
4. act of measuring the pelvis:
5. suture of muscle:
6. tumor of bone marrow:
7. sarcoma of bone marrow:
8. binding, fixation (of a bone or joint):

Answer 429

1. arthroscopy
2. cervicofacial
3. osteoarthropathy
4. pelvimetry
5. myorrhaphy
6. myeloma
7. myelosarcoma
8. arthrodesis

Question 430

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Total hip arthroplasty

Answer 430

 Replacement of hip joint
• Damaged by degenerative disease, commonly arthritis.
 Replacement of femoral head and acetabulum with a prosthesis
fastened into the bone, as illustrated.

Question 431

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Amputation

Arthrocentesis

Laminectomy

Answer 431

 Partial or complete removal of an extremity as a result of trauma or circulatory disease.

 Puncture of a joint space using a needle to remove accumulated fluid.

 Excision of the posterior arch of a vertebra.

Question 432

1. A 19-year-old male sustains a knee injury in a high school football game. Radiographs reveal a torn ligament. The orthopedic surgeon recommends a procedure in which a small instrument is inserted into the joint to repair the ligament. This procedure is known as (arthroclasis, arthroplasty, arthroscopy).
2. The surgeon informs Wayne that he must undergo surgery to remove his herniated disk. The surgery is charted as a (traction,
   herniorrhaphy, laminectomy).

Answer 432

1. arthroscopy

2. laminectomy

Question 433

3. James injured his upper thigh muscle when he was stabbed in a street fight. Because of the severity of the injury, he must undergo a surgical repair of the muscle known as .
4. Melvin has a history of arthritis that has damaged his hip joint. The doctor recommends a surgical procedure to replace the hip. This procedure is known as total .

Answer 433

3. myoplasty

4. hip arthroplasty

Question 434

Pharmacology

Bone reabsorption inhibitors

Gold salts

Answer 434

 Reduce reabsorption of bone.
 Used to treat weak and fragile bones as seen in osteoporosis and Paget disease.

 Inhibit activity within immune system by preventing further disease progression.
 Used to treat R A.

Question 435

Pharmacology

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (N S A I D’s)

Answer 435

 Relieve mild to moderate pain.
 Reduce inflammation.
 Used to treat musculoskeletal conditions such as sprains; strains; and inflammatory disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis,
osteoarthritis, bursitis, and tendinitis.

Question 436

1. Dr. C. prescribes a nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drug to relieve pain and inflammation caused by tendinitis. The abbreviation for this drug is .
2. Mary is diagnosed with osteoporosis. To inhibit further breakdown of her bones, the physician prescribes a (bone
   reabsorption inhibitor, gold salt).

Answer 436

1. N S A I D

2. bone reabsorption inhibitor

Question 437

3. Joanne complains of morning pain and stiffness in her joints caused by arthritis. The doctor prescribes a (bone reabsorption
   inhibitor, nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug).
4. Zoe is diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis. The doctor prescribes a drug that inhibits activity within immune system by
   preventing further disease progression called a .

Answer 437

3. nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

4. gold salt

Question 438

Special Senses—Ears

Structure

Answer 438

Each ear has three main subdivisions.
 External ear
 Middle ear
 Inner ear

Question 439

Structure

External ear

Answer 439

 Auricle

 External auditory canal

Question 440

Structure

Middle ear

Answer 440

 Extends from tympanic membrane (eardrum) to oval window.
• Oval window is the membrane-covered opening to the inner ear.
 Between tympanic membrane and oval window are three tiny
bones collectively known as ossicles.
• Malleus (hammer)
• Incus (anvil)
• Stapes (stirrup)

Question 441

Structure (continued_4)

Inner ear

Answer 441

 Series of fluid-filled passages known collectively as the
labyrinth.
• Cochlea, front portion.
• Vestibular apparatus, rear portion.

Question 442

Function

External ear

Answer 442

 Produces cerumen
• Cerumen acts as a filter by trapping dust and other foreign substances, preventing them from entering the internal structures.
• Indented shape of auricles act as highly effective receivers of sound waves.
‒ Directs sound waves toward inner structures.

Question 443

Function

Middle ear

Answer 443

 Sound waves travel through auditory canal and strike the tympanic membrane (eardrum).
• As the eardrum vibrates, it moves the ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes) through the middle ear.
‒ As the stapes moves, it touches a membrane called the oval window, which separates the middle ear from the inner ear.

Question 444

Function

Inner ear

Answer 444

 Sound waves reach inner ear, also called labyrinth, via fluctuations of the oval window (separates middle ear and inner
ear).
• Snail-shaped cochlea contains special auditory liquids through which vibrations travel.
‒ Also present in the cochlea is a sensitive auditory receptor area called the organ of Corti.

Question 445

Function
Inner ear
 Organ of Corti

Answer 445

• Tiny hair cells receive vibrations from the auditory liquids and relay the sound waves to auditory nerve fibers.
‒ Sound waves end in the auditory center of cerebral cortex, where these impulses are interpreted and “heard.”

Question 446

1. What is the sequence of structures involved in the vibrations of sound wave transmission?

Answer 446

1. Sound waves enter the ear canal, and vibrations are transmitted by the eardrum, malleus, incus, stapes, oval window of the inner ear, perilymph and endolymph within the cochlea, and hair cells of the organ of Corti.
   When hair cells bend, they generate impulses that are carried to the auditory areas of the brain. It is here that sounds are heard and interpreted.

Question 447

2. What is involved in the process of hearing?

3. What is the cochlea?

Answer 447

2. Transmission of vibrations and generation of nerve impulses
3. Snail-shaped structure containing hair cells, which, when stimulated, transmit impulses to the brain for interpretation of sound.

Question 448

Define Combining Forms

1. ot/o:
2. myring/o, tympan/o:
3. labyrinth/o:
4. hearing:
5. mastoid/o:
6. salping/o:

Answer 448

1. ear
2. tympanic membrane
3. labyrinth (inner ear)
4. acous/o, audi/o, audit/o
5. mastoid process
6. tubes (usually fallopian or eustachian [auditory])

Question 449

Define Suffixes

7. -acusis:
8. -opsia:
9. -stenosis:
10. -tropia:

Answer 449

7. hearing
8. vision
9. narrowing, stricture
10. turning

Question 450

Build Medical Words

1. discharge from the ear: /o/
2. specialist in the study of ear and throat (disorders): /o/laryng/o/
3. rupture of the eardrum: tympan/o/
4. discharge or flow of pus from the ear: / / / /rrhea
5. without or not hearing (deafness): an/
6. pain in the ear: /o/

Answer 450

1. ot/o/rrhea
2. ot/o/laryng/o/logist
3. tympan/o/rrhexis
4. ot/o/py/o/rrhea
5. an/acusia or an/acusis
6. ot/o/dynia

Question 451

Build Medical Words

7. inflammation of the ear:
8. instrument to examine the ear(s):
9. inflammation of the mastoid process:
10. incision of the labyrinth (inner ear):
11. hearing (loss) as a result of old age:
12. instrument to measure hearing:

Answer 451

7. ot/itis
8. ot/o/scope
9. mastoid/itis
10. labyrinth/o/tomy
11. presby/cusis, presby/acusia
12. audi/o/meter

Question 452

Otitis Media

Signs and Symptoms

Answer 452

 Most common symptom is earache.
 Accumulation of fluid within the structure of the middle ear.
 Most common among infants and young children.

Question 453

Serous otitis

Suppurative otitis

Answer 453

 Chronic form of serous otitis media may develop from acute condition, or it may result from overgrowth of adenoidal tissue or
chronic sinus infections.

 Suppurative otitis media is caused by introduction of pyogenic microorganisms into the middle ear.
 Often follow the mumps, influenza, or colds and may be induced by overly forceful nose blowing.

Question 454

Otitis Media causes

Answer 454

 Swimming in contaminated water may result in middle ear infection.
 If pus forms in the tympanic cavity, the eardrum may rupture, thereby relieving pressure and pain.

Question 455

Otitis Media

Treatment

Answer 455

 Antibiotics and analgesics to relieve pain.
 In severe cases, drainage may be accomplished by myringotomy or needle aspiration.
 Surgery, such as myringoplasty and tympanoplasty, to repair a ruptured tympanic membrane.
 Pressure-equalizing (P E) tubes are inserted surgically into the tympanic membrane to equalize pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear.

Question 456

Hearing Loss
Signs and Symptoms

Treatment

Answer 456

 Temporary or permanent loss of hearing.

 Varies with type and cause of impairment.
 May include medication to treat infections and dissolve cerumen.
 Stapedectomy, tympanoplasty, cochlear implantation, and myringotomy.
 Hearing aids or other effective means of aiding communication.

Question 457

1. A 5-year-old is examined because of ear pain. The medical assistant charts this symptom as .
2. Baby Molly’s mother asks the physician why infants and young children are more at risk for developing otitis media.

Answer 457

1. otodynia or otalgia
2. The physician explains that the eustachian tubes of children and infants are shorter and narrower than those of adults, making
   children more susceptible to blockages and retention of fluid when the eustachian tubes become inflamed from bacterial or
   viral infection.

Question 458

3. The mother of a 3-year-old girl asks the nurse practitioner what complications can develop if otitis media is not treated.
4. Baby John has a history of chronic otitis media. The physician recommends that tubes be surgically placed into the tympanic membrane to equalize pressure between the atmosphere and the middle ear. The abbreviation for these tubes is tubes.

Answer 458

3. The nurse explains that untreated ear infections may lead to short- or long-term hearing loss, ruptured eardrum, or mastoiditis. Also, there is a risk of the ear infection traveling to other parts of the head.
4. P E

Question 459

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

1. conductive hearing loss:
2. Ménière disease:
3. otosclerosis:

Answer 459

1. hearing loss caused by impairment in the transmission of sound because of an obstruction of the ear canal or damage to
   the eardrum or ossicles
2. rare disorder of unknown etiology within the labyrinth of the inner ear; it can lead to progressive loss of hearing.
3. progressive deafness caused by ossification in the bony labyrinth of the inner ear

Question 460

Vocabulary Challenge Exercise

4. presbycusis:
5. tinnitus:
6. vertigo:

Answer 460

4. impairment of hearing that results from the aging process
5. ringing or tinkling noise heard constantly or intermittently in one or both ears, even in a quiet environment
6. sensation of moving around in space or a feeling of dizziness or spinning

Question 461

Diagnostic Procedures

Tuning fork test

Answer 461

 Evaluation of sound conduction using a vibrating tuning fork.
• Rinne evaluates bone versus air conduction of sound.
 Webber test evaluates bone conduction in both ears at same
time.
• Indication of normal hearing is when sound is heard equally in both ears.

Question 462

Diagnostic Procedures

Audiometry

Answer 462

 Test that measures hearing acuity at various sound-wave frequencies.
 Audiometer delivers acoustic stimuli at different frequencies.
• Results are plotted on a graph called an audiogram.

Question 463

Diagnostic Procedures

Otoscopy

Answer 463

 Visual examination of external auditory canal and tympanic membrane by using an otoscope.
 Assesses ability of tympanic membrane to move in response to a change in air pressure.
• Lack of movement indicates increased impedance or eardrum perforation.

Question 464

Build Medical Words

1. act of measuring hearing:
2. surgical repair of the tympanic membrane (eardrum):
3. surgical repair of the ear:
4. abnormal condition of ear hardening:
5. without hearing:
6. discharge or flow from the ear(s):

Answer 464

1. audi/o/metry
2. tympan/o/plasty or myring/o/plasty
3. ot/o/plasty
4. ot/o/sclerosis
5. an/acusis
6. ot/o/rrhea

Question 465

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Ear irrigation

Answer 465

 Flushing of the external ear canal with sterile water or sterile saline.
 Low-pressure stream of warm water is directed toward top of ear canal to flush out impacted cerumen or foreign body.

Question 466

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Myringotomy

Answer 466

 Incision of tympanic membrane followed by insertion of a P E
tube.
 Used to treat chronic otitis media.

Question 467

Medical and Surgical Procedures

Cochlear implants

Answer 467

 All implants feature a microelectronic processor for converting sound to electrical signals.
 Transmission system relays signals to the implanted parts.
 Long, slender electrode placed in cochlea delivers the electrical stimuli directly to the auditory nerve.

Question 468

1. Joe is diagnosed with an ear infection and is scheduled for surgery. An incision will be made into the ear followed by
   insertion of P E tubes. Incision of the eardrum is charted as a .

Answer 468

1. myringotomy or tympanotomy

Question 469

2. To restore hearing loss, an electronic transmitter will be surgically implanted inside the inner ear. The hearing device
   produces sound by electrically stimulating nerves inside the inner ear. This surgical procedure is known as a (cochlear, auditory, P E) implantation.

Answer 469

2. cochlear

Question 470

4. Daniel requires surgery to repair a ruptured tympanic membrane. Surgical repair of the tympanic membrane is called .
5. John complains of wax buildup in his ears that is impeding his hearing. The physician explains that this is a common problem that can be resolved by a procedure performed in the office of flushing the ear with sterile water to dislodge the earwax. This
   procedure is called (myringoplasty, ear irrigation, otoplasty).

Answer 470

4. myringoplasty or tympanoplasty

5. ear irrigation

Question 471

Pharmacology

Vertigo and motion sickness drugs

Wax emulsifiers

Answer 471

 Decrease sensitivity of inner ear to motion.
 Prevent nerve impulses from inner ear reaching the vomiting center of the brain.
 Loosen and help remove impacted cerumen (ear wax).
 Excessive wax can be washed out, vacuumed out, or removed with the use of special instruments

Question 472

1. To loosen and help remove impacted cerumen in 3-year-old Johnny, the physician uses a (vertigo and motion sickness drug, wax emulsifier).
2. To treat the patient for dizziness, the physician prescribes a (vertigo and motion sickness drug, wax emulsifier).
3. Barb informs the doctor that she is going on a cruise for a month and is concerned about motion sickness. To help Barb with her condition, the physician prescribes a drug called a (vertigo and motion sickness drug, wax emulsifier).

Answer 472

1. wax emulsifier
2. vertigo and motion sickness drug
3. vertigo and motion sickness drug

Question 473

4. Barb asks the pharmacist to explain to her how the motion sickness drug works that she will be taking while on her cruise.

Answer 473

4. The pharmacist explains that the drug decreases the sensitivity of the inner ear to motion. It also prevents nerve impulses from the inner ear reaching the vomiting center of the brain.

Question 474

Special Senses—Eyes

Structure

Answer 474

 Each eye is globe shaped and located within a hollow bony
socked (orbit) in the anterior cranium.
 Each eyeball contains three distinct tunics (layers)
•Outermost layer, the fibrous tunic.
‒Sclera, cornea, conjunctiva.
•The middle layer, the vascular tunic, also called uvea
- Choroid, iris, ciliary body, lens.
• The innermost layer, the sensory tunic,
- Delicate, double layered retina.

Question 475

Middle Layer AKA vascular tunic or uvea

Answer 475

Choroid, iris, ciliary body, lens.
‒ In the center of the iris is the round opening, the pupil.
‒ Ciliary body, an extension of the choroid, attaches to
suspensory ligaments that hold the lens in place
behind the iris.

Question 476

 The innermost layer, the sensory tunic, is the

delicate, double layered retina.

Answer 476

• Two distinct landmarks on the retina: the optic
disk and the optic nerve.
• Retina contains two types of visual receipts: rods
and cones.

Question 477

Eyes - Supporting structures

Answer 477

 Eyelid and lacrimal glands.
• Eyelids and eyelashes
• Lacrimal gland
• Lacrimal ducts
• Nasolacrimal duct
‒ Drains tears from lacrimal sac to the nasal cavity.

Question 478

Function

Outermost layer, the fibrous tunic

Answer 478

 Sclera, white opaque outer surface that protects inner structures of the eye and helps maintain its shape.
 Sclera changes into a transparent layer, the cornea.
• Cornea allows light to enter the eye.
• Cornea bends (refracts) the rays of light.
 Conjunctiva, a delicate, transparent mucous membrane that covers insides of eyelids.
• Produces watery, clear mucus that traps foreign substances on the surface of the eye.

Question 479

Function

Middle layer, the vascular tunic

Answer 479

 Choroid supplies blood to the entire eye.
 Iris is the center of the eyes whose color is determined by genetics.
 Ciliary body
• Imbedded are smooth muscles that adjust shape of lens to enable eye to focus on objects at varying distances.
• Lens is suspended from the ciliary body.

Question 480

Function

Innermost layer, the sensory tunic

Answer 480

 Retina contains light sensitive receptor cells, rods and cones.
• Rods and cones contain photopigments capable of converting light energy into an electrical impulse that is transmitted to the brain for interpretation.
‒ Rods detect shades of gray at all levels of light.
‒ Cones detect color but operate only at high light levels.
 Optic disk, area in the retina where nerve fibers (and blood vessels) enter and exit.
• Referred to as the blind spot because it has no rods or cones.
• Optic nerve (cranial nerve TWO) is formed from the nerve fibers of each eye.
‒ Carries impulses from the retina to areas of the brain responsible for processing visual information.

Question 481

Supporting structures of the eye

Answer 481

 Eyelids and eyelashes protect eyes and prevent foreign substances from entering.
 Lacrimal glands continuously secrete tears that travel through lacrimal ducts.
 Nasolacrimal duct drains tears from lacrimal sac to the nasal cavity.
-Drains into the canal of Schlemm , a circular channel around the iris.
• Absorbed into veins and taken away by blood.

DOUBLE CHECK LAST TWO POINTS

Question 482

 Aqueous humor

Answer 482

• Clear, watery fluid produced continuously by the ciliary body.
• Carries nutrients and oxygen (O 2 ) to the cornea and lens.
• Circulates through posterior chamber, through the pupil, and into the anterior chamber.

Question 483

 Vitreous humor

Answer 483

• clear, gel like substance that helps maintain the shape of the eye.
  • Fills the posterior cavity (largest space in the eye).
  • Lies between the lens and the back of the eye.

Question 484

 Extraocular muscles control eye movement.
• Under voluntary control.
• Attached to the sclera by tendons.