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Diseases and Diagnosis > Concurrent #2 Best > Flashcards

Concurrent #2 Best Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 3 types of exotoxins

A

Hemolysin
Leukotoxins
Protein synthesis inhibitor
Enterotoxin
Neurotoxin

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2
Q

What exotoxin is an A-B bipartite?

A

Protein synthesis inhibitor
Enterotoxin
Neurotoxin

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3
Q

What is the endotoxin on LPS?

A

Lipid A

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4
Q

What is the antigen of flagella?

A

H

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5
Q

What is the antigen of LPS?

A

O

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6
Q

What is the antigen of capsule?

A

K

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7
Q

What does fragment A of protein synthesis exotoxin do?

A

Stops elongation factor of proteins

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8
Q

What does fragment B of protein synthesis exotoxin do?

A

Binds receptor for intracellular delivery

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9
Q

What type of parent organism has endotoxins?

A

Gram negative only

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10
Q

What type of parent organism has exotoxins?

A

Gram negative or gram positive

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11
Q

What does a superantigen do?

A

Causes large release of T cells and inflammation

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12
Q

What did the type III secretion system evolve from?

A

Flagella

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13
Q

What did the type IV secretion system evolve from?

A

Sex pili

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14
Q

What is the cell wall made out of?

A

Peptidoglycan

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15
Q

What acid does acid fast bacteria have?

A

Mycolic acid

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16
Q

What are routes of antibiotic action?

A

Inhibit nucleic acid production
Inhibit cell wall synthesis
Inhibit protein synthesis
Inhibit metabolite production

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17
Q

Agents which increase mutation rate

A

Mutagens

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18
Q

What are the 3 forms of gene transfer?

A

Transformation
Conjugation
Transduction

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19
Q

Part of donor bacteria gives recipient bacteria a portion of DNA which is integrated into the genome

A

Transformation

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20
Q

Plasmid transferred to recipient cell that is capable of autonomous replication

A

Conjugation

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21
Q

Transfer of DNA through a bacterial virus

A

Transduction

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22
Q

Inactivated phage genome which replicates synchronously with the host genome through repression

A

Lysogenic cycle

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23
Q

Bacteria that requires less oxygen

A

Microaerophilic

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24
Q

Bacteria that thrives in presence of CO2

A

Capnophilic

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25
Q

Utilize carbohydrates as carbon and energy source by fermentation or oxidative catabolism

A

Saccharolyitc

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26
Q

Utilize amino acids, organic acids, and alcohols because bacteria cannot use carbohydrates

A

Asaccharolytic

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27
Q

Usually found in upper airway, blood, and skin

A

Aerobes

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28
Q

Usually found sin deep wounds, intestine, and rumen

A

Anaerobes

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29
Q

Do anaerobes cause a lot of tissue degradation?
Do anaerobes cause a lot of inflammation?

A

Yes
NO!

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30
Q

Anaerobic bacteria producing a lot of ATP through a process that uses substrates other than oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor

A

Anaerobic respiration

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31
Q

Non selective media

A

Blood agar media

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32
Q

Selective Media

A

MacConkey agar
Mannitol salt

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33
Q

Contains bile salt, most enteric bacteria grow

A

MacConkey agar

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34
Q

High salt, Staphylococci grow

A

Mannitol salt

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35
Q

What type of bacteria are acid-fast?

A

Mycobacterium
Mycolic acid

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36
Q

How is E. Coli and Salmonella differentiated?

A

Lactose utilization

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37
Q

How is streptococcus and staphylococcus differentiated?

A

Catalase reactions

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38
Q

Gram negative or positive to differentiate in catalase test?

A

Gram positive

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39
Q

Gram negative or positive to differentiate in oxidase test?

A

Gram negative

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40
Q

How is enterobacteriaceae and pasterellaceae differentiated?

A

Oxidase test

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41
Q

Unconventional method of bacterial diagnosis`

A

Bacterial DNA sequence analysis

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42
Q

Diagnostic tests for rickettsia and chlamydia

A

PCR, cell culture, cytology, serology

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43
Q

Limited multiplication in vivo thereby inducing immune response similar to natural infection. Genetically stable. Single dose of vaccine can induce lifelong immunity

A

Live attenuated vaccine

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44
Q

Bacteria are inactivated by using physical and/or chemical agents, maintaining its structure

A

Bacterins

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45
Q

Bacterins

A

Whole killed vaccine

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46
Q

Give an example of a whole killed vaccine (bacterin)

A

C chauvoei

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47
Q

Inactivated bacterial exotoxins

A

Toxoids

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48
Q

Give an example of a toxoid vaccine

A

C. tetani

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49
Q

What type of bacteria is clostridium?

A

Gram positive rod

50
Q

What type of bacteria is bacillus?

A

Gram positive rod

51
Q

What is bacillus anthracis?

52
Q

What are the 3 virulence factors of bacillus anthracis?

A

Endospores
Capsule polypeptide
Anthrax toxin (A-B type)

53
Q

What are the 3 factors of bacillus anthracis (anthrax)?

A

Factor I = edema factor
Factor II = delivery and protective
Factor III = lethal factor (digests MAPKK)

54
Q

What are the most susceptible species to bacillus anthracis?

A

Cattle and sheep

55
Q

Which bioterrorism level is anthrax?

A

Category A (highest)

56
Q

What is clostridium botulinum?

57
Q

What are the 3 types of botulism?

A

Intoxication botulism
Wound botulism
Infant botulism

58
Q

What type of environment does clostridium botulinum grow in?

A

Anaerobic environment

59
Q

What is the most potent toxin know?

A

Clostridium botulinum

60
Q

How does death occur with botulism?

A

Inhibits release of acetylcholine and stops breathing

61
Q

What does C. botulinum digest to cause paralysis?

A

either VAMP, SNAP, or syntaxin

62
Q

How is C. botulinum diagnosed?

A

Stool or serum injected into mice and look for signs

63
Q

How is botulism treated?

A

Administration of antitoxins

64
Q

What is clostridium perfringens also called?

A

Overeating disease (enterotoxemia), gas gangrene

65
Q

What is clostridium difficile also called?

A

Ulcerative colitis

66
Q

What type of infection does staphylococcus aureus cause?

A

Suppurative (pus) infection

67
Q

What are the antiphagocytic factors of staphylococcus?

A

Polysaccharide capsule
Protein A

68
Q

What are the 3 virulence factors of staphylococcus?

A

Antiphagocytic factors
Exotoxins
Extracellular enzymes

69
Q

What type of exotoxins does staphylococcus produce?

A

Hemolysis
Leukotoxins

70
Q

What additional toxins does staphylococcus aureus produce?

A

Superantigens

71
Q

What extracellular enzymes are present in staph infections?

A

Hyaluronidase
Nucleases
Coagulase

72
Q

Describe staphylococcus under laboratory diagnosis

A

Gram positive cocci in grape-like cluster. Facultative anaerobe, catalase positive

73
Q

What are the virulence factors of strep

A

Antiphagocytic
Exotoxins

74
Q

What exotoxins does strep produce?

A

Hemolysin
Hyaluronidase: spreading factor

75
Q

What is S. equi?

76
Q

How does mycolic acid help with virulence factor

A

It forms walls off the immune system by forming granulomas

77
Q

What is M. bovis?

A

Bovine tuberculosis

78
Q

How is M. bovis tested?

A

tuberculin hypersensitivity test

79
Q

What is mycobacterium?

A

Acid fast Gram positive slow growing

80
Q

What are the 3 diseases in Infectious disease eradication program?

A

Bovine TB
Equine glanders
Bovine brucellosis

81
Q

Is M. bovis gram positive or negative?

A

Gram positive

82
Q

Are spirochetes Gram negative or positive?

83
Q

Where does Borrelia burgdorferi seek?

A

Immunologically privileged sites

84
Q

How is lyme spread?

A

Deer ticks

85
Q

What are the 2 types of leptospira?

A

L interrogans
L Biflexa

86
Q

What does L interrogans cause?

A

Anemica, icterus, nephritis, abortion

87
Q

Where is L interrogans found after 7 days?

A

Phase III in kidneys and shed in urine`

88
Q

What is yersinia pestis also known as?

A

Plague (black death)

89
Q

What type of bacteria is yersinia pestis?

A

Gram negative, facultative anaerobe

90
Q

What are the two diseases of black death?

A

Pneumonic form
Bubonic form

91
Q

What is the characteristic of the bubonic form?

A

Large and very tender lymph glands (bubo)

92
Q

How is the plague transmitted?

93
Q

What type of secretion does plague have?

A

Type III secretion system (flagella)

94
Q

Is yersinia pestis facultative intracellular bacteria?

95
Q

What does yersinia pertis show up like in a stain?

A

Bipolar staining (safety pin)

96
Q

What are the characteristics of Salmonella and E coli?

A

Gram negative, facultative anaerobe, diarrhea causing

97
Q

Which strain of EColi doesn’t cause bloody diarrhea and is not invasive?

A

Enterotoxigenic

98
Q

What causes the enterohemorrhagic strain to cause bloody diarrhea?

A

Shiga toxin (protein inhibitor) and Type III secretion system

99
Q

How can you differentiate E Coli from Salmonella with a test?

A

E coli is lactose - positive

100
Q

What negative effect does E. Coli cause on cows?

A

E coli mastitis

101
Q

What are the two types of salmonella disease?

A

Gastroenteritis
Enteric fever (typhoid fever)

102
Q

How do you differentiate salmonella from E coli?

A

Salmonella is lactose - negative!

103
Q

What is the reservoir for salmonella?

A

Asymptomatic carrier

104
Q

Live on dead or decaying organic matter

A

Saprophyte

105
Q

Live in or upon host in mutually beneficial manner

106
Q

Live in or upon host without causing damage

A

Commensals

107
Q

What virulence factor is unique about Pseudomonas aeruginosa?

108
Q

What are the characteristics of P aeruginosa?

A

Gram negative, oxidase positive

109
Q

What is bovine orchitis?

A

Swelling of the testicals caused by B. abortus

110
Q

What type of secretion system does Brucellosis abortus use?

A

Type IV secretion system (sex pili)

111
Q

Are B. abortus carries for life?

112
Q

What are the field tests for brucellosis?

A

Antibody induced agglutination (milk ring test, card test)

113
Q

What are the characteristics of fusobacterium?

A

Obligatory anaerobe, gram negative

114
Q

What are the types of co infection with fusobacterium necrophorum?

A

Bovine rumenitis
Digital dermatitis (melaninogenicus)
Interdigital dermatitis (nodosus)
Bulbar necrosis (A. pyogenes)
Bovine diphtheria (H. somni)

115
Q

Major host factor of fusobacterium

A

Oxygen insufficiency

116
Q

What is the shape of fusobacterium?

117
Q

What are the characteristics of mycoplasma?

A

Cell wall-less, obligatory aerobic

118
Q

What are the pathognomonic lesions of mycoplasma?

A

Bronchiectasis

119
Q

What clinical signs can mycoplasma infection show?

A

Respiratory
Arthritic

Diseases and Diagnosis (25 decks)

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