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Diseases and Diagnosis > Block 2 #2 > Flashcards

Block 2 #2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 5 forces that would act on fracture?

A

Bending
Torsion
Tension
Compression
Shear

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2
Q

What is the shear force?

A

Compressive force directed along oblique fracture line

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3
Q

What are 6 configurations of fractures?

A

Transverse
Oblique
Spiral
Comminuted
Segmental
Avulsion

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4
Q

What is a configuration fracture?

A

Perpendicular to axis
Bending

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5
Q

What is a short oblique fracture?

A

<2x bone diameter

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6
Q

What is a long oblique fracture

A

> 2x bone diameter

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7
Q

What force causes an oblique fracture?

A

Shear force

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8
Q

What is a spiral fracture?

A

Oblique fracture with a twist
Torsional force

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9
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

More than 2 pieces

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10
Q

What is a segmental fracture?

A

At least 2 distinct fracture lines that isolate a cylindrical intermediate segment of bone

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11
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

Pull of a ligament or tendon causes bone to pull away

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12
Q

When is the classification of open fractures?

A

Gustilo-Anderson Open Fractures

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13
Q

Increasing grade of Gustilo-Anderson equals what?

A

Worse prognosis

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14
Q

What is Type 1 Gustilo-Anderson?

A

Small skin wound (<1cm)
inside to out

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15
Q

What is a Type 2 Gustilo-Anderson?

A

> 1cm skin wound
outside to in

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16
Q

What is a Type 3 Gustilo Anderson?

A

Extensive soft tissue damage

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17
Q

What is a Type IIIa Gustilo Anderson?

A

IIIa = good soft tissue coverage despite extensive lacerations/flaps

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18
Q

What is a Type IIIb Gustilo Anderson?

A

IIIb = Extensive soft tissue loss and bone exposure. Requires reconstructive surgery

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19
Q

What is Type IIIc Gustilo Anderson?

A

Arterial injury associated with open fracture - requires arterial repair

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20
Q

What does gas opacity over a fracture in radiographs mean?

A

That it is an open fracture

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21
Q

What is the #1 open fracture place for dogs? cats?

A

Radius ulna for dogs
Femur for cats

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22
Q

What is post traumatic osteomyelitis?

A

Bone infection resulting from trauma that allows bacteria to get in

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23
Q

What is the source of chrondrocytes?

A

Groove of Ranvier

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24
Q

What is between Groove of Ranvier and metaphysics?

A

Ring of LaCroix

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25
Q

Does growth plate have a vascular supply?

A

NO

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26
Q

Does a pressure or traction growth plate cause growth?

A

Pressure

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27
Q

What percent does the distal ulna contribute to growth

A

100%!

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28
Q

What is the classification for growth plate fractures?

A

Salter Harris

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29
Q

What is type I Salter Harris?

A

Straight across

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30
Q

What is type II Salter Harris?

A

Growth plate and metaphysis

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31
Q

What is type III Salter Harris?

A

Growth plate and epiphysis

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32
Q

What is type IV Salter Harris?

A

Growth plate, epiphysis, metaphysis

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33
Q

What is type V Salter Harris?

A

Crushing of growth plate

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34
Q

What is Salter Harris pneumonic?

A

Have to imagine metaphysis at top and epiphysis at bottom
S=Straight across
A = Above
L = lower
T = Through
ER = cRush

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35
Q

Can you see a Salter Harris V in radiographs?

A

NO

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36
Q

What is Salter Harris VI?

A

Local avulsion/groove of Ranvier disruption

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37
Q

What is a valgus deformity?

A

Lateral deviation of limb distal to deformity

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38
Q

What is a varus deformity?

A

Medial deviation of limb distal to deformity

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39
Q

What does a shortened limb usually cause?

A

Angulation of the limb (either valgus or varus)

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40
Q

Which Salter Harris lesion causes OA?

A

III and IV because it involves articular surface

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41
Q

How do you describe the displacement of fracture?

A

Describe displacement of distal segment relative to proximal

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42
Q

How do you know if a fracture is chronic or acute?

A

Acute if soft tissue swelling

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43
Q

What does a displacement of any part of pelvis imply?

A

At least 2 fractures

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44
Q

What are the 3 joints of the elbow?

A

Humeroradial
Humeroulnar
Proximal radioulnar

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45
Q

What is the weight bearing joint of the elbow?

A

Humeroradial

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46
Q

What is the Campbell’s test?

A

Pronation and supination of the elbow

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47
Q

What will ALL dogs with elbow dysplasia get?

A

Arthritis!

48
Q

What is FCP?

A

Fragmented coronoid process

49
Q

What is OCD?

A

Osteochondritis dessicans
A piece of bone separated over tiem

50
Q

What is UAP?

A

Ununited anconeal process

51
Q

Is anconeal process top or bottom of bone?

52
Q

Is coronoid process top or bottom of groove?

53
Q

Where will a short radius put pressure?

A

coronoid process (FCP)

54
Q

Where will a short ulna put pressure?

A

Anconeal process (UAP)

55
Q

What does IOHC stand for?

A

incomplete ossification of humoral condyle

56
Q

When is union of humoral condyle?

A

Should be at 10 weeks

57
Q

What are the 6 diseases of elbow dysplasia?

A

FCP - fragmented coronoid disease
UAP - ununited anconeal process
OCD - osteochondritis dessicans
Incongruity
IOHC - incomplete ossification of the humoral condyle

58
Q

What animals does osteochondritis occur in?

A

Young, rapidly growing animals

59
Q

How does osteochondrosis appear on radiographs?

A

A flat region on the head of the bone

60
Q

How does osteochodrosis dessicans appear on radiographs?

A

Small mineral fragment on the head of the bone
Flat spot plus bone mineralization (flap)

61
Q

What word can you describe an osteochondrosis lesion as?

A

cyst-like appearance in boneq

62
Q

What is the result of elbow dysplasia?

A

Joint incongruity

63
Q

What is the triad of disease for elbow dysplasia?

A

Ununited anconeal process
Fragmented coronoid process
Humeral OC

64
Q

What is the most common cause of elbow dysplasia?

65
Q

What is panosteitis?

A

Medullary sclerosis near nutrient foramen

66
Q

What is hypertrophic osteodystrophy (HOD)

A

Periosteal proliferation around metaphyses

67
Q

What is craniomandibular osteopathy?

A

Often occurs with HOD
proliferation on mandibles

68
Q

What is avascular necrosis of the femoral head and how is it different from hip dysplasia?

A

Disruption of blood supply to femoral head causing necrosis
Hip dysplasia doesn’t cause necrosis as well as joint space widening

69
Q

What is femoral neck metaphysical osteopathy?

A

Apple core appearance of CATS

70
Q

What exactly is laminitis?

A

Rotation and sinking of P3

71
Q

Is moth eaten aggressive or non aggressive?

A

Likely aggressive

72
Q

What is permeative bone destruction?

A

Numerous small, ill-defined holes (sponge-like)

73
Q

Is permeative bone aggressive or non aggressive?

A

Very aggressive

74
Q

What can be said about lesion transition in terms of aggressive vs non-aggressice

A

Long zone of transition tends to be more aggressive than a short zone

75
Q

Where does primary bone neoplasia arise?

A

Inside bone

76
Q

Where does metastatic neoplasia arise?

A

Outside of bone

77
Q

What are infected bone lesions called? (aggressive)

A

Osteomyelitis

78
Q

What is discospondylitis?

A

Infection of intervertebral discs and adjacent vertebral bodies

79
Q

What is a sequestrum?

A

Fragment of devascularized bone due to trauma

80
Q

What are the categories of erosive arthropathies?

A

immune mediated (multiple joints)
infection (one or more)
neoplasia (single joint)

81
Q

What are the categories of non-erosive arthropathies?

A

Immune-mediated
Effusion only
DJD with time

82
Q

What is another name for degenerative joint disease?

A

Osteoarthrosis

83
Q

What causes DJD?

A

Trauma, infection, neoplasia, instability, developmental

84
Q

What radiographic findings are found on DJD?

A

Basically anything abnormal

85
Q

What does sclerosis show up as on radiographic findings?

A

Increased bone opacity

86
Q

What is hip dysplasia characterized by?

A

Hip laxity

87
Q

Will hip dysplasia usually affect both hips?

88
Q

What test is done for hip dysplasia?

A

Abduction-relocation

89
Q

What is Legg Calve Perthe disease (LCP)?

A

Non-inflammatory aseptic necrosis of femur head and neck
Toy breeds and terriers

90
Q

In which direction is the hip luxated?

A

craniodorsal

91
Q

Which direction are the toes rotated?

A

Valgus (laterally)

92
Q

What is the last chronicity: Acute, chronic, __________

A

pseudoacetabulum (may not have to treat)

93
Q

What is an avulsion luxation?

A

Femoral head is still there but pulls chunk of bone out

94
Q

What is chronic femoral capital physeal fracture?

A

apple-core remodeling

(Related to early neuter and obesity in male cats)

95
Q

How do infections usually enter closed joints?

A

urogenital infection

96
Q

What is the magic number for hip dysplasia?

A

105 degrees

97
Q

How many branches of the cranial cruciate are there?

98
Q

What is the cranial cruciate’s main job?

A

Stop tibia from moving forward (cranial drawal)
Internal tibial rotation
Stifle hyperextension

99
Q

Will dogs have a tear on the opposite side soon?

A

50% in 1-2 years

100
Q

~~~~What are the landmarks of the cranial drawer test?

A

Fabella
Patella
Tibial tuberosity
Fibular hear

101
Q

What are the 2 tests that can be done to determine cranial cruciate tear?

A

Cranial drawer
Tibial compression test

102
Q

What may also be affected during a cranial cruciate tear?

A

MEDIAL meniscus

103
Q

What is typically diagnostic of meniscal involvement?

A

Mensical “click”

104
Q

What does MPL stand for?

A

Medial patella luxation

105
Q

What does LPL stand for?

A

Lateral patella luxation

106
Q

What is coxa vara?

A

Decreased femoral neck angle

107
Q

What is coxa valga?

A

increased femoral neck angle

108
Q

What is coxa vara indicative of?

109
Q

What is coxa valga indicative of?

110
Q

What is grade I luxating patella?

A

Luxation by force onle

111
Q

What is grade II luxating patella?

A

Luxates easily but still rides in groove

112
Q

What is grade III luxating patella?

A

Can be manually reduced but wants to stay out

113
Q

What is grade IV luxating patella?

A

cannot be reduced

114
Q

How do you diagnose a luxating patella?

A

Medial and lateral luxation to move patella out

115
Q

What is a disease that predisposes dogs to luxating patella?

A

Distal femur angular deformity

Diseases and Diagnosis (25 decks)

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