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Diseases and Diagnosis > Block 4 > Flashcards

Block 4 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the primary agent of large animal pyelonephritis??

A

Corynebacterium renale

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2
Q

Which kidney is more likely to get pyelonephritis?

A

Left

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3
Q

Is pyelonephritis a primary tubulointerstitial disease?

A

YES

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4
Q

What is found in urinalysis of large animal pyelonephritis?

A

Isosthenuria
Blood, protein, and leukocytes

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5
Q

What is the definitive diagnostic for pyelonephritis?

A

Urinalysis

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6
Q

What is most common stone in dogs?

A

Struvite

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7
Q

What is most common stone in cats?

A

Calcium oxylate

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8
Q

What stone is associated with UTI in dogs?

A

Struvite

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9
Q

What stone is associated with high Mg and high K in cats?

A

Struvite

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10
Q

What is the most common stone in cat’s bladder?

A

Struvite

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11
Q

What stone is predisposed to intact dogs?

A

Cystine

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12
Q

What are the 2 categories of mictoration disorders?

A

Disorders of voiding
Disorders of storage

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13
Q

What are the top 4 disorders of urine storage?

A

Urethral sphincter mechanism incompetence
Ectopic bladders
Overactive bladder
Idiopathic incontinence

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14
Q

What is the primary breed of urinary incontinence?

A

Boxer

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15
Q

What should you advise the client about spaying their dog in terms of urinary incontinence?

A

Should wait longer in larger dogs and wait until after first heat but before the 2nd heat!

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16
Q

What hormone leads to low urethral muscle tone?

A

Estrogen

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17
Q

What is a common breed for ectopic ureters?

A

Golden retriever

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18
Q

What are the 4 disorders of voiding?

A

Reflex Dyssyngeria
Bladder atony
Automatic bladder (UMN)
Autonomous bladder (LMN)

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19
Q

What is functional outflow obstruction? (FOO)

A

Poor relaxation of the detrusor muscle disallowing urine outflow (likely a neurological cause)

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20
Q

What is the true diagnosis of FOO?

A

Large amounts of residue urine (more common in male dogs)
When the dog stops urinating is the bladder still large?

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21
Q

What increases earlier that creatinine?

A

SDMA

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22
Q

How is uremia different from azotemia?

A

Azotemia is an increase in BUN or creatinine but uremia is just a general decrease in kidney function

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23
Q

What is first sign of CKD in cats?

A

Decrease in USG

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24
Q

What is first sign of CKD in dogs?

A

Proteinurea

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25
Q

What is the normal USG for cats?

A

> 1.040

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26
Q

What is something a lot of old cats with UTIs have?

A

CKD

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27
Q

What level phosphorus is CKD cats supposed to have compared with acute kidney cats?

A

CKD = low K
Acute = high K

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28
Q

What do you need to do before IRIS staging a patient?

A

Fast them

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29
Q

What is stage 1 of IRIS staging a cat? dog?

A

Creatinine
Cat - <1.6
Dog - < 1.4

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30
Q

What is stage 2 of IRIS staging a cat? Dog?

A

Cat - 1.6 - 2.8
Dog - 1.4 - 2.8

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31
Q

What is stage III of IRIS staging?

A

2.9-5.0

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32
Q

What is stage 4 of IRIS staging/

A

> 5.0

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33
Q

What is normotensive?

A

<150 systolic
<95 diastolic

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34
Q

What is borderline hypertensive?

A

150-159 systolic
95-99 diastolic

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35
Q

What is hypertensive?

A

160-179
100-119

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36
Q

What is severe hypertensive?

A

> 180
<120

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37
Q

What is non proteinuric in a cat? Dog?

A

Cat - <0.2
Dog - <0.2

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38
Q

What is borderline proteinuric in a cat? Dog?

A

Cat - 0.2-0.4
Dog - 0.2-0.5

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39
Q

What is proteinuric in cat? Dog?

A

Cat - >0.4
Dog - >0.5

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40
Q

What type of disease is CKD in a cat?

A

Tubulointerstial disease

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41
Q

What type of disease is CKD in a dog?

A

Proteinuric glomerular disease

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42
Q

What are 2 blood pressure things that cats get with CKD?

A

Hypertension
Retinal damage

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43
Q

Do dogs get hyper or hypo kalemia with CKD?

A

Hyperkalemia (opposite of cats)

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44
Q

CATS DONT WANT TO EAT WITH CKD

A
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45
Q

What is the primary reason for euthanasia of CKD cats?

A

Unwillingness to eat

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46
Q

When normal phosphorus management is disrupted, what is secreted?

A

PTH

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47
Q

How do you manage hyperphosphatemia in CKD cats?

A

Low phosphorus diet

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48
Q

Do CKD cats poop more or less?

A

Less

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49
Q

Hyperphosphatemia and hypokalemia in cats with CKD!!!

A
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50
Q

If you see a cat with retinal lesions, what should you think?

A

CKD!

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51
Q

What type of anemia is seen in cats with CKD?

A

Non-regenerative

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52
Q

What happens to the size and weight of FIC cats’ adrenal glands ?

A

Decreased

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53
Q

What is the GAG layer of the bladder?

A

Layer closed to lumen

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54
Q

What is pathophysiology of FIC?

A

C fibers activate SP which activate mast cells

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55
Q

Does FIC increase risk of crystalluria?

A

NO

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56
Q

What is most common clinical sign of FIC?

A

Peeing outside of the box (periuria)

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57
Q

What is a predisposing factor for FIC?

A

Overweight

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58
Q

Do male cats with obstruction history get FIC?

A

Yes, more often!!

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59
Q

What are 3 most common urinary issues with cats?

A

UTI
Urolithiasis
FIC

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60
Q

What is most common underlying cause in dogs of urinary issues?

A

Urinary calculus

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61
Q

What is most common underlying issue in cats of urinary issues?

A

FIC

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62
Q

What causes FIC the most in cats?

A

Urethral plugs

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63
Q

What does hyperkalemia during a blockage cause?

A

Bradycardia

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64
Q

What is a unique aspect of a feline PE for blockage?

A

Hypothermia

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65
Q

Will cats have a decreased or increased heart beats with urethral obstruction?

A

Decreased

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66
Q

What 2 things are very indicative of urinary obstruction (hyp erkalemia)?

A

Hypothermia
Bradycardia

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67
Q

What is the most common organ that causes uroabdomen?

A

Bladder

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68
Q

What develops in the peritoneum due to a bladder rupture?

A

Peritonitis

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69
Q

UO and uroabdomen are roughly the same

A
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70
Q

What should be seen in abdomenocentisis in uroabdomen?

A

Creatinine 2x that of blood

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71
Q

At what percent loss do we start to see an increase in phosphorus?

A

80%

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72
Q

What will the urine specific gravity be if the disease is pre-renal?

A

High

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73
Q

What will the urine specific gravity be if the disease is renal?

A

Low

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74
Q

What does high BUN compared to creatinine mean?

A

Dehydration or fluid loss

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75
Q

What does high creatinine compared to BUN mean?

A

Liver disease, muscle injury, well-muscled animal, low protein diet

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76
Q

What is isosthenuria?

A

1.007-1.015

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77
Q

What is a primary cause of polyurea?

A

Primary diabetes insipidus

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78
Q

What is secondary polyurea?

A

Can release ADH but can’t react to it

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79
Q

What are some common causes of secondary polyurea?

A

Diabetes mellitus
Cushing
Addisons
Chronic/acute renal disease
Liver disease

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80
Q

What is the top reason for PU/PD in dogs? Cat?s

A

Both renal disease

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81
Q

What is the #2 cause of PU/PD in dogs? Cat?

A

Dog - diabete mellitus
Cat - hyperthyroidism

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82
Q

What test is run last and differentiates between diabetes insipidus and psychogenic polydipsia?

A

Water Deprivation test (ddavp)

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83
Q

What do you put IV for an excretory urogram?

A

Iodinated solution NEVER BARIUM IV!!

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84
Q

What can you see on an excretory urogram that is unique?

A

Ureters

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85
Q

Is azotemia a contraindication for excretory urogram?

A

NO!
Dehydration is so rehydrate first!

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86
Q

What is seen on excretory urogram at about 5 minutes at the entry to the bladder?

A

J hook

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87
Q

What is in a positive contrast?

A

Iodinated

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88
Q

What is in a negative contrast?

A

CO2 or NO

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89
Q

What are indications for EU

A

See ureters
Better evaluate kidneys

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90
Q

What are indications for a contrast cystography?

A

Masses
Bladder tears
Calculus
Location of bladder

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91
Q

What are indications of contrast urethrogram?

A

Abnormal urination
Hematuira
Pelvic fractures

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92
Q

How is excretory urogram performed?

A

IV bolus of iodine

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93
Q

What are the red streaks in a kidney indicative of?

A

Acute pyelonephritis

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94
Q

What does chronic pyelonephritis look like?

A

Fibrotic lesions within the cortex and medulla

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95
Q

What is the most common bacteria of pyelonephritis

A

E. coli

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96
Q

What species most commonly gets ectopic ureters? What are they?

A

Dogs
Ureters that attach more caudal than the trigone

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97
Q

What species most commonly has a patent urachus?

A

Foals

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98
Q

What species causes canthardin toxicity?

A

Blister beetle

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99
Q

What is the most common tumor of the bladder tumors in dogs and cats?

A

Urethral cell carcinoma

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100
Q

What breed most commonly gets urothelial cell carcinomas?

A

Scottish terriers

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101
Q

Why type of infection (viral, fungal, bacterial) is most common for UTIs?

A

Bacterial

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102
Q

What does pollakuria mean?

A

Inflamed bladder

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103
Q

Does WBC in urine indicate a UTI?

A

NO! Just inflammation

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104
Q

Can you treat a dog with suspected UTI with antibiotics? Cats?

A

Dogs - Yes
Cats - NO!

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105
Q

Where should you get the urine for a culture?

A

Cysto

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106
Q

What is a complicated UTI?

A

Recurrent

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107
Q

What is a relapsing UTI infection?

A

Infection that is same bacterial infection, previous infection was not cleared

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108
Q

What is a reinfection UTI?

A

Infection that has a different bacteria

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109
Q

What will a patient normally have if they have a fungal UTI?

A

Diabetes

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110
Q

What changes in the mare 24-48hr prior to foaling?

A

Ca and K increase
Na decrease
PH decreases <7

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111
Q

What should the specific gravity of colostrum be above?

A

1.06

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112
Q

What level should serum antibodies be for a foal at 12 hr ?

A

> 800

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113
Q

What is the most common tumor in intact female dogs?

A

Mammary gland neoplasia

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114
Q

What are the 3 risk factors for mammary gland neoplasia?

A

Hormones (spay)
Diet (red meat)
Obesity (adipose tissue is source of estrogen)

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115
Q

What are benign neoplasms of the dog mammary gland called?

A

Mammary adenomas
Mixed mammary tumors

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116
Q

What are the malignant canine neoplasms of the dog?

A

Adenocarcinomas

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117
Q

What breed type most commonly gets mammary gland neoplasias?

A

Small dogs

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118
Q

What is the breakdown of malignant/benign in canine neoplasia?

A

50% benign 50% malignant

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119
Q

What percentage of feline mammary gland neoplasias are malignant?

A

Over 80%

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120
Q

What percent of female intact rats will get mammary neoplasia?

A

30-90%
Only 20% malignant

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121
Q

What are the 2 smooth muscle neoplasms of the uterus?

A

Leiomyomas (benign)
Leiomyosarcomas (malignant)

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122
Q

What is the most common neoplasms coming from the female reproductive tract?

A

Leiomyeloma

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123
Q

What is the most common uterine neoplasm in the cow?

A

Lymphosarcoma

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124
Q

What neoplasm is associated with bovine leukemia virus?

A

Lymphosarcoma

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125
Q

What is the most common malignancy in teh rabbit?

A

Adenocarcinoma (60-80% of intact rabbits, wow)

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126
Q

Where does the uterine adenocarcinoma arise from?

A

Endometrium

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127
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Endometrial tissue outside of the uterus

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128
Q

How Is vaginal polyp appear different from vaginal leiomyoma?

A

Poly is on top of the skin while leiomyomas are underneath of the dermal layer

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129
Q

What percent of intact female dogs will get pyometra by 10

A

25%

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130
Q

What is the poster child breed for pyometras?

A

Bernese mountain dog (older larger dogs)

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131
Q

What increases the risk of pyometras?

A

Higher risk if never pregnant

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132
Q

What is cystic endometrial hyperplasia?

A

Cystic thickening of the endometrium
Intact females develop over time
Comes from prolonged/repeat exposure to estrogens and progesterone

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133
Q

Not all dogs with cystic endometrial hyperplasia (CEH) will get pyometras

A
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134
Q

What is the process of pyometras?

A

Cervix opens > Bacterial colonization > Bacteria trapped (maybe in CEH cysts) > cervix closes > bacteria proliferates

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135
Q

What is an “open” pyo?

A

Cervix is open

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136
Q

Why do dogs with a pyo sometimes have Pu/PD?

A

Endotoxemia on kidney

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137
Q

What can you not differentiate between on a pyometra radiograph?

A

Early pregnancy

138
Q

What increases risk for retained fetal membranes?

A

Abnormal deliveries
Infectious disease
Twine
Induced partition

139
Q

When is a bovine considered to have RFM?

A

Over 8 hours

140
Q

When is a mare considered to have RFM>

A

3 hours

141
Q

When will clinical signs show up for equine RFM?

A

8 hours

142
Q

What are some clinical signs of equine RFM?

A

Colic
Digital pulse

Treatment is emergency

143
Q

At what time is RFM considered in dogs?

A

24hrs

144
Q

What type of dog shows the most RFM?

A

Toy breeds

145
Q

When is RFM more common in sheep and goats?

A

With brucellosis infections

146
Q

What are 2 normal causes of vaginal discharge?

A

Estrus (heat)
Lochia

147
Q

What are 3 pathological conditions for vaginal discharge?

A

Vaginitis
Metritis
Pyometra

148
Q

What is puppy vaginitis?

A

8 weeks to 1 year
Idiopathic etiology caused by non-infectious cause

149
Q

What are 3 causes for adult onset vaginitis?

A

Infectious
Urine pooling
UTI

150
Q

How does freemartism happen?

A

Mixing of male blood with female blood during sexual differentiation

151
Q

What percent of freemartins are sterile?

A

90%

152
Q

What about the vulva is indicative of a freemartin?

A

A tuft of hair

153
Q

What does intersex mean?

A

Disorders of sexual development

154
Q

What is a male calico?

A

Intersex: XXY

155
Q

What is a pseudohermaphrodite?

A

Genetics do not match the phenotype

156
Q

Wha this a male pseudohemaphrodite?

A

XY, testicles, female phenotype

157
Q

What is a true hermaphrodite?

A

Having both sets of gonads

158
Q

What is hypospadias?

A

Failure of closure of the urinary tract with abdominal opening

159
Q

What is polled-intersex syndrome?
How do you avoid it?

A

Goats may initially appear female but begin acting like a buck at puberty; have testicles but may lactate

Avoid by only breeding to bucks with horns

160
Q

What is fetal virilization?

A

Occurs when females are given androgens during pregnancy. Puppies have male external genitalia.

Avoid progesterone supplementations after 45 days of gestation.

161
Q

What is most common disorder of sexual development in dogs?

A

Male pseudohermaphroditism

162
Q

What is embryonic death?

A

Death of the fertilized ova or early embryo

163
Q

What is fetal death?

A

Abortion, stillbirth, mummification, maceration, etc

164
Q

What is stillbirth?

A

Death of the fetus after 20th week
Delivery of a fully formed dead neonate

165
Q

What is abortion?

A

Expulsion of the products of conception from the uterus before the fetus is viable

166
Q

What is mummification?

A

Desiccation of a dead fetus in utero
Bacterial infection cannot be present
Intact corpus luteum must be present

167
Q

What is maceration?

A

Fetal death in presence of in utero bacterial infection and inflammation

168
Q

What is the top reason for abortion?

A

Infectious (90%)

169
Q

What needs to be inspected on an abortion case?

A

Placenta
Fetus
Dam
Other animals

170
Q

What part of the uterine swab is important

A

It’s from the caruncles

171
Q

What should be sent out for culture on the fetus?

A

Placenta, STOMACH CONTENTS, lung, kidney, liver, thoracic fluid

172
Q

What is hydroamnios and hydroallantois (hydrops)?

A

Excessive fluid accumulation

173
Q

What is more common, hydroamnios or hydroallantois?

A

Hydroallantois
Accumulation in allantoic sac

174
Q

What causes hydroamnios

A

Fetal swallowing so due to malformation of the fetus

175
Q

Is brucella species specific?

A

YES

176
Q

How is brucillosis transmitted?

A

Contact with vaginal discharges and infected products

177
Q

What is pathogenesis of brucellosis?

A

Results if innate or adaptive cannot clear infection through macrophages (collects in reproductive organs)

178
Q

What are clinical signs of brucellosis?

A

Late term abortions or abortion storms

179
Q

What is seen on placenta of brucellosis cases?

A

Yellow edema

180
Q

What are 2 tests for brucellosis?

A

Milk ring test
Brucellosis card test

181
Q

How do you test a canine for brucellosis?

A

Rapid slide agglutination (RSAT)
If positive, use modified rapid slide agglutination (ME-RSAT)

182
Q

Is there a vaccination for canine brucellosis?

A

NO!

183
Q

What does it mean if the animal has metritis and mastitis at the same time?

A

Likely systemic infection = bad

184
Q

What is the name for a mammary gland that is not flowing?

A

Engorgement or galactostasis

185
Q

How do you diagnose mastitis?

A

Milk cytology (lots of neutrophils)

186
Q

Who is affected by mammary hypertrophy/hyperplasia?

A

Queens

187
Q

What causes mammary hyperplasia?

A

Progesterone

188
Q

Is mammary hyperplasia mastitis?

A

NO!
But can progress to mammary neoplasia

189
Q

Are uterine prolapses hereditary?

A

NO (others are tho)

190
Q

Why might a uterine prolapse occur?

A

Hypocalcemia - decreased uterine tone

191
Q

Is a uterine prolapse an emergency?

A

Yes!

192
Q

In treatment, what must be removed prior to partition of a prolapsed cow?

A

Bruner stitch

193
Q

What is a first, second, third, and fourth degree prolapse?

A

First - only when lying down
Second - vaginal floor protrudes all the time
Third - cervix and vagina out
Fourth - all of th above plus necrosis

194
Q

What is tumor is derived from granulosa cell of the follicle?

A

Granulosa theca cell tumor

195
Q

What do granulosa theca cell tumors look like upon ultrasound in a mare?

A

Honeycomb-like

196
Q

What is most common ovarian cancer in horses?

A

Granulosa-theca cell tumor

197
Q

What are clinical signs of a mare with granulosa theca cell tumor?

A

Stallion-like behavior and aggression, prolonged heat cycles

198
Q

**What hormones are drastically elevated with granulosa theca cell tumor?

A

Anti mullarian hormon and inhibin

199
Q

What neoplasm arises from germ cells that give rise to oocytes?

A

Teratomas

200
Q

What do teratomas differentiate from?

A

2 of the 3
Mesodermal, ectoderm, or endoderm

201
Q

What do cystadenomas and adenocarcinomas come from?

A

Epithelium over teh surface of the ovary

202
Q

What are 2 non-neoplastic ovarian disorders?

A

Enlarged ovaries
Small ovaries

203
Q

What are the 3 reasons for enlarged ovaries?

A

Cystic ovaries
Ovarian hematoma
Pregnancy/transition

204
Q

What are the 3 reasons for small ovaries?

A

Age-related
Exogenous hormones
Chromosomal abnormalities

205
Q

What causes ovarian cysts?

A

Follicle fails to ovulate/persistent anovulatory follicles (PAF)

206
Q

What causes an ovarian hematoma?

A

Excessive hemorrhage into a follicular lumen following ovulation

207
Q

What does diestrous ovulation cause?

A

After ovulation, the CL is refractory to PGF-2alpha for 5 days and the mare remains in diestrus for 60 days

208
Q

What is endometriosis?

A

Inflammation/infection of the lining of the uterus (prepartum)

209
Q

What is metritis?

A

Inflammation/infection of ALL layers of the uterus (postpartum)

210
Q

What is pyometra?

A

Pus-filled uterus. Typically during diestrus in non-pregnant animal

211
Q

What is the bacteria that likely causes toxic metritis?

A

Trueperella pyogenes

Cause smell: fusobacterium, bacteriodes

212
Q

What is SIPS

A

Subinvolution of placental sites

213
Q

What does SIPS cause?

A

Persistent vulvar discharge in postpartum bitch beyond 6-12 weeks (not metritis)

Bitch and puppies are normal

214
Q

What is balanitis?

A

Inflammation fo the head of the penis

215
Q

What is posthitis?

A

Inflammation of the prepuce

216
Q

What is balanoposthitis?

A

Inflammation of both the head and prepuce

217
Q

What is phalitis

A

Inflammation of the whole penis

218
Q

What is phimosis?

A

Inability to extrude the penis

219
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Inability to retract the penis into teh prepuce

220
Q

What is the condition where the urethra opens on teh ventral surface of the penis?

A

Hypospadia

221
Q

What are 3 diseases that affect the penis?

A

Equine herpesvirus 3
Bovine herpesvirus 1
Corynebacterium renale

222
Q

What is the goal of a renal biopsy?

A

To obtain glomeruli for histopath

223
Q

What are 4 times to do renal biopsy?

A

Nephrotic syndrome
Neoplasia
Renal cortical disease
Acute/progressive renal disease

224
Q

What is the blind renal biopsy?

A

Percutaneous biopsy

225
Q

What 2 renal biopsy methods can be performed under heavy sedation?

A

US guided
Percutaneous

226
Q

If it is a follicular ovarian cyst, how do you induce ovulation?

A

GnRH

227
Q

If it is a literal cyst, what do you want to give?

A

Luteolyse

228
Q

What do follicular cysts secrete?

A

Estradiol

229
Q

What do literal cysts secrete?

A

Progesterone

230
Q

Can you palpate difference between follicular and literal cysts?

A

NO

231
Q

Will luteal or follicular cysts be thicker upon US?

A

Luteal

232
Q

What is the most common cause of urinary tract disease in small ruminants?

A

Urolithiasis

233
Q

What type of diet increases risk of urolith formation?

A

High phosphorus (grain) diet
High calcium (alfalfa) diet

234
Q

What is a predisposing factor associated with castration time?

A

Longer you wait to castrate increases the urethra size so don’t castrate too soon

235
Q

What is a predisposed breed for Urolithiasis?

A

African decent

236
Q

What in the grain causes the goat to form stones more often?

A

High grain will cause goat to excrete less phosphorus through the saliva, increasing the urinary excretion

237
Q

What is a predisposing factor for pigs to get Urolithiasis?

A

Blind pouch

238
Q

Where in a ruminant is a stone most likely to form?

A

The distal sigmoid flexure (tight turn w/ decreased diameter)

239
Q

What diet are Struvite most likely to form?

A

Diet high in P, low in Ca (low Ca:P)
Alkaline urine
Radiolucent

240
Q

What diet causes calcium carbonate stones in small ruminants?

A

High calcium (alfalfa, clover)
Radiopaque

241
Q

How do you identify stones?

A

Send to Minnesota Urolith Center

242
Q

What are 3 sequela to urethral obstruction?

A

Bladder rupture
Urethral rupture
Hydronephorsis

243
Q

How do you diagnose a bladder rupture via abdominocentesis?

A

Creatinine level is >2:1

244
Q

What are you likely to see in the blood of a blocked goat?

A

Azotemia
Low Ca
Low Na
High K

245
Q

Wrap up: In ruminants and calcium, what are the dietary imbalances that cause stones?

A

High concentrate (grain), low roughage with imbalanced Ca:P, high magnesium

246
Q

What are the 3 Ps of birth?

A

Presentation, Position, Posture

247
Q

What is the long axis of the fetus to long axis of dam called? What are the subdivisions of this?

A

Longitudinal
Cranial or caudal

248
Q

What is the long axis of the fetus to short axis of the dam called?
What are the subdivisions of this?

A

Transverse
Ventral or dorsal

249
Q

What is the position called with the spine of the fetus to the sacrum of the dam?

A

Dorsal-sacral

250
Q

What is the position of the fetus with the spine of the fetus to the pelvis of the dam?

A

Dorsal-pubic

251
Q

What is it called when the fetus is either on the right or left side of the iliac?

A

Dorsal-ilial

252
Q

What are the options for the posture?

A

Head/Neck/limbs = flexed/extended

253
Q

Can you use J lube in obstetrics?

A

NO!

254
Q

What are the rules of obstetrics?

A

Be clean
Be gentle
Use lots of lube

255
Q

At what time point is labor an emergency for mares?

A

30 minutes

256
Q

At what point is labor an emergency for ruminants?

A

3-6 hours

257
Q

At what point is labor an emergency for dogs?

A

1-2 hours

258
Q

What is the time frame to resorting to C section?

A

10-15 minutes

259
Q

In which direction do the front limbs bend?

A

First two joints bend in same direction

260
Q

In which direction do the first 2 hind limbs bend?

A

Opposite directions

261
Q

What accessory sex gland does the canine have?

A

ONLY prostate

262
Q

What is the most prostatic disease in dogs?

A

BPH - benign prostatic hyperplasia

263
Q

What are clinical signs of benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Ribbon-like stool, hematuria, hemospermia

264
Q

What disease usually occurs secondary to benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Prostatitis

265
Q

Who gets prostatitis the most?

A

Common in dogs older than 9 years

266
Q

What might you think if you have a dog presented for recurrent UTI?

A

Chronic prostatitis
(Painful on palpation)

267
Q

What are the 2 types of prostatitis?

A

Acute and chronic

268
Q

What is the diagnostic for prostatitis?

A

Culture of prostatic fluid. Neutrophils in sperm

269
Q

What type of cancer is prostatic neoplasia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

270
Q

What is the normal amount of weight gain for a neonate?

A

5-10%/day

271
Q

When should you stop feeding puppies?

A

If temp is below 94

272
Q

Are sick neonates an emergency?

A

YES

273
Q

What are the 4 “H’s” of a sick neonate?

A

Hypothermia
Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Hypoglycemia

274
Q

Fading Puppy Syndrome - Part of the 4 “H’s”

A
275
Q

How do you identify hydration status on puppies/

A

NOT skin tent!
MM and Urine specific gravity

276
Q

When is gut closure post whelp?

A

12-16hrs

277
Q

What is the #2 cause of neonatal mortality?

A

Sepsis (don’t expose pups to other dogs until 3 weeks)

278
Q

What is a common blood disease that happens with kittens?

A

Neonatal isoerythrolysis (NI)

279
Q

What is the pathophysiology of NI?

A

“A” blood type kittens born to “B” mother
Hemolytic anemia within hours

280
Q

What to do if your kittens have neonatal isoerythrolyis?

A

STOP nursing

281
Q

What usually causes twin pregnancies?

A

2 ovulations

282
Q

Why must a twin pregnancy be addressed soon?

A

Could result in abortion of both fetuses

283
Q

When will spontaneous twin reduction most likely occur?

A

Embryos fixed in same horn
Embryos of unequal sizes

284
Q

How do you manage twines?

A

Earlier the better
Detection before D16
Manual crushing

285
Q

When should you no longer try to crush other twin?

A

D35 becomes too hard (puncture, cervical dislocation, PGF, fetal extraction)

286
Q

What are clinical presentations of placentitis?

A

Premature udder development
Colicky
Abdominal enlargement

287
Q

What does CTUP stand for?

A

Combined thickening of uterus and placenta

288
Q

What happens to electrolyte concentrations 48 hours before birth?

A

Potassium becomes higher than sodium

289
Q

Is canine herpesvirus-1 extremely temperature sensitive?

A

YES

290
Q

Where does canine herpesvirus best replicate?

A

Cooler respiratory tract and genital epithelial tissues

291
Q

Why does canine herpesvirus 1 like neonates so much?

A

Low and poorly regulated body temperature

292
Q

How are naïve adult animals infected?

A

Horizontally

293
Q

What are clinical signs in adult infected with canine herpesvirus?

A

Penile or vaginal ulceration

294
Q

What 2 ways do puppies get canine herpesvirus 1?

A

In utero (transplacental) (weak puppies that die quickly)
Oronasal before 1 week old

295
Q

Where does canine herpes virus localize? And what does it look like

A

Adrenal glands, kidneys, lungs, spleen, and liver
Multifocal hemorrhage and necrosis (kidney very common)

296
Q

What is orchitis?

A

Inflammation of the testicle

297
Q

What are 2 causes of orchitis?

A

Brucella abortus
Canine orchitis

298
Q

What is periorchitis?

A

Inflammation in the vaginal cavity

299
Q

What is hematocele?

A

Blood in the vaginal cavity

300
Q

What is hydrocele?

A

Low or high protein fluid in the vaginal cavity

301
Q

What is epididymitis?

A

Inflammation of the epididymis

302
Q

Is epididymitis commonly caused by ascending or descending infection?

A

Ascending (E Coli)

303
Q

What is priapism?

A

Persistent erection

304
Q

What is paraphimosis?

A

Cannot retract penis

305
Q

Is priapism an emergency?

A

YES!

306
Q

When is testicular descent in bulls and rams?

A

2nd trimester

307
Q

When is testicular descent for boars and humans?

A

3rd trimester

308
Q

When is testicular descent for colts?

A

Either third trimester or after partition

309
Q

When is testicular descent in dogs and cats?

A

After partiution

310
Q

What helps pull the testicle down through the inguinal ring during descent?

A

Gubernaculum

311
Q

What is a reason for testicular hypoplasia?

A

Crypt
Intersex conditions

312
Q

What hormone will be high in crypt patients?

A

Anti Mullerian hormone (AMH)

313
Q

What is the most common reproductive disease in male cats?

A

Cryptorchidism

314
Q

What sex glands do felines have?

A

Prostate and bulbourethral

315
Q

Which species have all accessory sex glands?

A

Equine and ruminants

316
Q

What does the swine lack in terms of accessory sex glands?

A

Ampulla

317
Q

What is vesicular adenitis?

A

Inflammation of the vesicular glands

318
Q

What causes vesicular adenitis?

A

Bacterial infection

319
Q

When are cases of vesicular adenitis usually found?

A

During routine BSEs

320
Q

What is a common disease of the stallion related to the ampulla?

A

Obstructed ampulla

321
Q

What causes obstructed ampulla?

A

Spermatozoa that blocks the ampulla

322
Q

What is a bacteria that also may cause prostatitis?

A

Brucella Canis

323
Q

Is benign prostatic hyperplasia androgen-dependent growth?

A

YES!

324
Q

What portion of the ejaculate comes from the prostate?

A

1st and 3rd

325
Q

What are the 3 primary neoplasias of the testicle?

A

Interstitial (leydig) cell tumors
Seminoma
Sustentacular (sertoli) cell tumor

326
Q

What are seminomas mostly reported in?

A

Dogs

327
Q

What are seminomas derived from?

A

Germ cells of the testis

328
Q

What do the tumors of seminomas arise from?

A

Spermatogonia

329
Q

What is the appearance of a seminoma?

A

White spots

330
Q

What is the appearance of a leydig cell tumor?

A

Yellow and spherical

331
Q

What species is the Sustentacular cell tumors most common in?

A

Dogs

332
Q

What is the most common tumor in crypt dogs?

A

Sustentacular cell tumors (sertoli)

333
Q

What is a neoplasia of the bull penis?

A

Transmissible fibropapilloma

334
Q

What does transmissible fibropapilloma masses come from?

A

Bovine papillomavirus

335
Q

What is preputial avulsion?

A

Separation of the penis from the prepuce

336
Q

What breeds are preputial prolapse and laceration most common in?

A

Bos indicus and polled Bos taurus

337
Q

What causes preputial prolapse in Bos indicus?

A

Poor preputial conformation (elongated prepuce and pendulous prepuce)

338
Q

What causes preputial prolapse in Bos Taurus breeds?

A

Lack of cranial preputial muscle

339
Q

What is likely the cause of penile hematoma?

A

Male misses while breeding

340
Q

What ruptures in a penile hematoma?

A

Tunica albuginea ruptures

Diseases and Diagnosis (23 decks)

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