Block 1 Flashcards
(311 cards)
1
Q
What is a morphological diagnosis?
A
Describes the affected structure, process, distribution, severity, time course. Long names
2
Q
What is the etiological diagnosis?
A
Diagnosis that names causative agent
3
Q
What is the disease diagnosis?
A
States name of disease
4
Q
What is a lesion localized to a single area
A
Focal
5
Q
What is a lesion in multiple areas on the same tissue/organ?
A
Multifocal
6
Q
What is a lesion in multiple areas with overlapping regions?
A
Multifocal to coalescing
7
Q
What is a lesion fulling spread throughout a tissue/organ?
A
Diffuse
8
Q
What is a lesion localized to one portion of an organ/tissue?
A
Locally extensive
9
Q
What are the 4 categories of duration?
A
Acute
Subacute
Chronic
Chronic-active
10
Q
What is the last part of a word that means inflammation?
A
“-itis”
11
Q
What does purulent mean?
A
Puss
12
Q
What are the two anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive cytokines?
A
IL-10 and TGF-B
13
Q
What is the subset CD4 T cells that help suppress the immune response via physical contact?
A
T regs
14
Q
What do T regs express on their cell surface?
A
CD4+ and CD25+
15
Q
What transcription factor do T regs express?
A
FOXP3
16
Q
What are the macrophages that suppress inflammation?
A
M2 macrophages
17
Q
What cytokines do M2 macrophages release to suppress inflammation?
A
IL-10 and TGF-B
18
Q
What does PD-1 do on T cells?
A
PD-1 is a cell surface suppressor which shuts down T cell activation
19
Q
What does cancer do to PD-1 on T cells?
A
PD-1 (programmed cell death) is upregulated which shuts down most all T cell activation therefore stopping the activation of the suppressive cells (stopping the cells that kill the cancerous cells)
20
Q
What is tolerance in immunilogical terms?
A
Tolerance is when the immune system fails to mount an immune response toward a specific antigen
21
Q
What does a failure of self-tolerance lead to?
A
Auto-immune disease
22
Q
What are the 2 mechanisms of tolerance in the immune system?
A
Central tolerance and peripheral tolerance
23
Q
What is a cryptic antigen?
A
Self-antigens that are revealed secondary to inflammation
24
Q
What are the 3 ways that peripheral tolerance addresses auto reactive imune cells?
A
Peripheral deletion
Anergy
Regulatory T cells
25
What is peripheral deletion?
T and B cells recognize self antigens in the lymph nodes
26
What is anergy?
Shut down of self reactive T and B cells due to lack of all 3 signals
27
What causes anergy?
Removal of either co-stimulation or cytokines (1 or 2 of the 3 signals required for activation)
28
What induces differentiation into T regs?
Presence of IL-10 or TGF-B
29
What blood do you use in a biochem panel?
Red top, serum
30
What "top tube" do you use for CBC? Biochem profile?
Purple top
Red top
31
What percent of healthy animals will have at least 1 abnormal result?
60%
32
What is the one type of result that is significant if it falls slightly outside of the reference interval?
Electrolytes
33
What type of error is most common in laboratory results?
Preanalytical
34
What is in a routine serum biochem profile?
Electrolytes, minerals, proteins, enzymes, lipids, and glucose
35
What are the 4 aspects to disease?
Etiology, pathogenesis, morphological change, functional consequences
36
What are the 2 subsets of etiology?
Intrinsic and extrinsic
37
What are the 2 subsets in intrinsic etiology?
Primary and secondary
38
What is a primary intrinsic etiology?
Genomic related
-Family/breed
-Mutation
39
What is a secondary intrinsic etiology?
Physical Abnormalities
-Age, sex, species
40
What are the 2 subsets of extrinsic etiology?
animate and inanimate
41
What is an animate extrinsic etiology?
Pathogens
42
What is an inanimate extrinsic etiology?
Energy, xenobiotics, surgical
43
***What is the flow of pathogenesis?
Biochemical change>Functional alterations>Morphological lesions >Clinical signs
44
What is idiosyncratic?
A patient specific disease
45
What are lesions?
Visible manifestation of disease
46
What are the different levels, in order, of visualizing lesions?
Gross pathology > Histopathology > Ultrastructural pathology
47
What is pathognomic?
A lesion so distinctive and unique that it can only be caused by one etiology
48
What is the prognosis?
Prediction of future outcomes
Usually worded (excellent, good, fair, guarded, poor)
49
What are disturbances in electrolytes normally caused by?
Vomiting, diarrhea, and kidney disease
50
What are the major cations?
Na+ (largest), Ca, Mg, K
51
What are the major anions?
Cl, PO4, HCO3, A (proteins)
52
What level is sodium when animal is dehydrates?
Higher
53
What balances the cation, Na?
Cl and HCO3
54
What disease is usually indicated from high potassium (hyperkalemia)?
Addison's
Low aldosterone = high levels of potassium
55
What hormone removes potassium from the blood?
Aldosterone
56
What does chloride usually follow?
Sodium (NaCl)
57
What is bicarbonate an indicator of?
Acid/base status
58
What is low bicarbonate indicative of?
Metabolic acidosis
A high bicarbonate is metabolic alkalosis
59
What different things can you check on a biochemical profile for the liver?
Hepatocellular injury
Cholestasis
Synthetic injury
60
What are the indicators for livers on a chem profile?
ALT, AST, ALP, cholesterol, CK, biliruben
61
What increases with hepatocellular injury?
ALT and AST
62
What increases with cholestasis?
ALP and bilirubin
63
Why is ALT increased during hepatocellular injury?
ALT is found in hepatocytes so when it is increased, that means there is damage to the hepatocytes
64
Why is an increase in AST nonspecific?
AST is found in liver, muscle, and blood
65
When is an increase in AST notable for hepatocellular damage?
When it is marketed (more than 3x)
66
What enzyme is measured most for muscle injury?
CK (creatinine kinase)
67
What liver biomarkers are used to assess synthetic function?
Cholesterol, albumin, glucose, and BUN
68
When should measuring cholesterol occue?
After fasting (or may be higher)
69
What are the steps of bilirubin metabolism?
Bilirubin in blood goes through liver
Liver conjugates bilirubin
Bilirubin enters intestine where it is either excreted in urine or stool
70
What is biliruben excreted in unrine called?
urobilinogen
71
What is biliruben excreted in stool called?
Stercobilinogen
72
Where is conjugated bile secreted?
Into bile
73
What is cholestasis?
Slowing or stopping of bile through the biliary system
74
Increased bilirubin can mean what 3 things?
Pre-hepatic icterus
Hepatic icterus
Post-hepatic icterus
75
What is total protein made up of?
Albumin and globulin
76
What does increased total protein mean?
Anything that increases immunoglobulins
Neoplasm, inflammation, dehydration
77
What does decreased total protein mean?
Decreased production via liver
Loss from GI or kidney
78
What causes hypoalbuminemia?
Decreased production by hepatocytes (liver disease)
Loss from renal or GI loss
79
Do younger animals have decreased globulins?
YES
80
How do you determine globulin from albumin and TP?
TP-albumin = globulin
81
What does decreased globulin indicate?
Liver disease, synthetic function
82
Will cats have hyperglycemia at vet?
YES, EXCITED
83
What is another name for persistent hyperglycemia?
Diabetes mellitus
84
What is DIC?
Disseminated intracellular coagulation (Death is coming)
85
What are the 4 mechanisms of cellular injuries?
Membrane injury
Nuclear damage
ATP depletion
disturbances in cellular metabolism
86
What are the 3 cell responses to injury/stress?
Adaptation
Degeneration
Cell death
87
What is adaptation related to cell injury/stress?
React to stress so that a new homeostatic state is established
88
What is Degeneration related to cell injury/death?
Reversible cell injury from which a cell can adapt and recover. Either intracellular or extracellular components
89
What is Death related to cell injury/death?
Irreversible cell injury results in cell death
90
What are the 2 reversible cell responses?
Adaptation
Degeneration
91
What are the 2 irreversible cell responses?
Necrosis
Autolysis
92
What are the 4 types of cell adaptation?
Hyperplasia
Metaplasia
Hypertrophy
Atrophy
93
What is atrophy?
Reduction of cell size
94
What is hypertrophy?
Increased cell size
95
What is hyperplasia?
More cells
96
What is metaplasia?
Replacement of cell type
97
What type of adaptation does a portosystemic shunt cause to the liver?
Atrophy of hepatocytes
Due to decreased blood flow
98
What type of cell adaptation would a chronic smokers mucosal lining undergo?
Metaplasia
99
What are the 4 types of reversible degeneration that a cell can undergo?
Hyropic (acute cell swelling)
Fatty change
Glycogen accumulation
Myxomatous
100
What causes degeneration of cells?
Sublethal injury
101
What is hydropic degeneration?
Swelling due to water accumulation
102
What happens to ATP when hydropic injury occurs?
ATP is decreased where water moves into cell
103
What is the cell degeneration, fatty change?
Fatty vacuole accumulation in non-adipose cells
104
What are causes of fatty change?
Hypoxia, anemia, starvation
105
Where does fatty change usually occur?
Liver, kidney, and muscle
106
What gross things can you appreciate on cellular degeneration?
Softer tissue
Light tissue
Larger organs
107
What is hepatic lipidosis in cats?
Accumulation lipoproteins in liver leading to fat storage
108
What stains can be used to see adipose cells?
Oil Red O
Suden Black
109
Where does glycogen accumulation begin?
Centrilobular regions due to lower oxygen content
110
What is myxomatous?
Accumulation of mucin-like material
111
What does myxomatous cause?
Conversion of mature proteins to embryonic forms
112
What types of tissue does myxomatous occur in?
Connective tissue and adipose tissue
113
When does myxomatous most often occur?
During cachexia (muscle loss) and starvation
114
What is microcirculation?
Exchange of nutrients and waste between blood and extravascular tissue
115
What is the space between cells and the microcirculation?
Interstitium
116
Edema is the accumulation of abnormal quantities of fluid in the interstium
117
What controls the balance of fluid between the arteriole and the interstitial space?
Physical barriers (arteriole wall)
Differences in pressure
Concentration of substance
118
What are the driving forces of fluid exchange?
Arteriole blood pressure (ABP)
Colloid osmotic pressure (COP)
Interstitial fluid pressure (IFP)
119
What is the active driving force of fluid exchange?
Arteriole blood pressure
120
What is the passive driving force of fluid exchange?
Colloid osmotic pressure
Interstitial fluid pressure
121
When do we get edema?
When this balance between the fluid exchange is off
122
What tube is used to run a chem profile?
Red top
123
What type of blood is used in a red top?
Serum
124
What does a purple top tube have that a red top doest? (In terms of the blood)
A buffy coat (fibrinogen)
125
What percent of error is pre-analytical? (Our fault)
65%
126
What percent of healthy animals will have at least 1 "abnormal" value?
60%
127
What are the tests most commonly used to determine kidney function tests (GFR)?
BUN, Creatinine, and Phosphorus
128
What is urea?
A by-product of protein breakdown produced in the liver
129
What is creatinine?
A by-product of muscle metabolism
130
What is an increase in BUN and Cr called?
Azotemia
131
What are the 3 different potential reasons for azotemia?
Pre-renal: dehydration (vomiting/diarrhea)
Renal: Acute or chronic kidney disease
Post-renal: ruptured bladder or urethral blockage
132
What are the minerals ran on a routine chem panel?
Mineral
Phosphorus
133
CALCIUM IS REPORTED AS TOTAL (NOT IONIZED) ON CHEM PANEL
134
What does high phosphorus indicate?
Kidneys are main route of phosphorus excretion so high phosphorus may indicate pre-renal, renal, or post-renal disease
135
What does low phosphorus indicate?
Possibly kidney disease
136
What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in dogs?
Neoplasia
137
What is a cause of hypocalcemia?
Low albumin (decreased protein-bound fraction)
138
Describe autolysis
Dead animal
Diffuse
No tissue reaction
139
Describe necrosis
Alive animal
Focal to multifocal
Induces local tissue reaction
140
How does autolysis occur?
Progressive tissue anoxia via microbes eating tissue, mostly from gut microflora
141
What type of animals will autolyse faster?
Large, obese, thick-coated, and herbivores (due to GI microflora)
142
What general idea causes quicker autolysis?
Anything that increases heat
143
What is livor mortis
Blue/purple color due to congestion of blood in external tissues
144
What is dessication?
Poikilotherms (cold blooded) may dry out instead of autolysis
145
What is putrefecation?
Bubble formation on internal tissues due to bacterial fermentation. Tissue also turns pale
146
What is imbibition?
Internal: Tissue discoloration
Hemoglobin imbibition: red stain
Pseudomelanosis: blue-black discoloration
Bile imbibition: Green-brown
147
What is chicken fat?
Clotted serum chunks in autolysis
148
What is currant jelly?
Clotted erythrocytes in autolysis
149
Where do blood clots settle in autolysis during microscopy?
Down due to gravity
150
How are thrombi in post mortem different from thrombi in ante mortem?
Post: unattached to walls, shiny/wet
Ante: thrombi attached to wall, dry/dull, tail extends downstream
151
What are organisms that grow on dead tissue?
Saprophytes
152
How do you know saprophytes are invaders?
Gram (+) anaerobic rods
No inflammatory response
153
Do autolytic borders have sharp or rigid borders?
SHARP
154
Is necrosis and oncotic necrosis the same?
YES
155
What are causative agents for cell death (necrosis)
Oxidative stress
ATP decrease
Loss of Ca homeostasis
Mitochondria damage
156
2 main causes of necrosis?
Failure of mitochondrial function
Breach of cell membranes
157
What is the pathogenesis of cell death?
Cell injury
Influx of Ca2+
Ca2+ activates degradative enzymes
Further mitochondrial/membrane breakdown
158
Describe free radicals
Molecule with unpaired electron. Normally controlled by antioxidants but if overwhelmed, the mitochondria will be further depleted
159
What are common gross morphological changes of necrotic tissue?
Irregular contours
Sharp demarcations
Paler
Colored rim: red or white
160
What are microscopic changes in necrotic cells?
Loss of internal cell detail
Hypereosinophilia of the cytoplasm
A visual gradient
Nuclear changes
161
What is karyolysis?
Nuclear fading
162
What is pyknosis?
Nuclear shrinkage
163
What is karyorrhexis?
Nuclear fragmentation
164
What are the functional molecules involved in apoptosis?
Caspases
165
What is the execution caspase for apoptosis?
Caspase 3
166
What are the 4 types of necrosis?
Coagulative
Liquifactive
Caseous
Gangerenous
167
What is coagulative necrosis?
Cell outline remains
common in kidney, liver, muscle
168
What causes coagulative necrosis?
Heat, decreased blood flow, toxins
169
What are the subtypes of coagulative necrosis?
Fat necrosis
Zenker's necrosis
170
What is fat necrosis?
Coagulative necrosis of adipose tissue
171
What is Zenker;s necrosis?
Coagulative loss of striated muscle (cardiac and skeletal muscle)
172
Describe saponification
Release of Ca an dK after adipose breakdown causing formation of soaps on pancreas surface
173
What is liquefactive necrosis?
Enzyme breakdown of tissues resulting in dissolving or liquefying
174
What is the term for liquefactive necrosis of the CNS
Malacia
175
What type of necrosis is an abcess?
Liquefactive necrosis! Bacterial enzymes consuming tissue
176
What does a thiamin deficiency cause?
Polioencephalomalacia
177
What is caseous necrosis?
Cheese-like
Granular and friable
178
What does a caseous necrosis typically form?
A granuloma
179
What is a granuloma?
Cell debris and inflammatory cells surrounded by connective tissue capsule
180
What is gangrenous necrosis?
Coagulative necrosis that turns into gangrenous
181
What are the 3 types of gangrenous necrosis?
Wet
Dry
Gas
182
What is wet gangrenous necrosis?
Coagulative + liquefactive + saprophytic bacteria
183
What is dry gangrenous necrosis?
coagulative + infarction
On distal limbs due to vasoconstriction
184
What is gas gangrenous necrosis?
coagulative + anaerobic bacteria producing a toxin
185
What happens if a quantity of dead tissue is too large to be removed from the body?
A sequestrum is formed
186
What is a sequestrum?
A persistent fragment of necrotic bone
187
What is immune regulation?
The ability for the body to balance clearing a pathogen while not harming self
188
What is contraction?
Massive reduction in CD8 and plasma cells
189
What remains after contraction?
Memory cells
190
What are the 2 immunoregulatory cytokines?
IL-10 and TGF-B
191
What does a Treg express?
CD4+, CD25+, and FOXP
192
What do M2 macrophages produce?
IL-10 and TGF-B
193
What does PD-1 do?
Cell surface receptor on T cells that deactivates T cells (cancer cells use this to deactivate T cells)
194
What is tolerance?
Lack of an immune response towards something (like self)
195
FAILURE OF SELF-TOLERANCE IS AN AUTO-IMMUNE DISEASE
196
What are cryptic antigens?
Antigens only revealed secondary to inflammation
197
What are the 3 methods of peripheral tolerance?
Peripheral deletion
Anergy
Regulatory T cells
198
What is peripheral deletion?
Apoptosis in lymph nodes of self reactive cells
199
What is anergy?
APC dont express all 3 signals required so self reactive T or B cell shuts down
200
How is pregnancy possible with 1/2 paternal?
Up regulation of Tregs and Tregs with IL-10 and TGF-B in placenta
201
What bovine disease causes abortions?
BVD
202
What is cytopathic BVD?
Infection is lytic, causing cell death (cytolytic)
203
What is non-cytopathic BVD?
Infection results in replication but not kill the cell
204
What type of BVD occurs in utero?
non-cytolytic BVD
205
When must exposure to BVDV occur in utero?
80-120 days
Prior to or during negative selection
206
Calves infected in utero become PI calves (persistently infected)
207
How is BVD tested for?
Ear notching shows brown/orange cirus
208
What are symptoms of BVD in non-pregnant cows?
Oral ulcerations
Diarrhea
Pneumonia
209
What is mucosal disease associated with BVD?
Disease that occurs in PI animals with infection of cytopathic strain of BVD
210
What is primary autoimmunity?
Genetic susceptibility with no obvious trigger
211
What is secondary autoimmunity?
A result of some trigger
212
What are superantigens?
Antigens produced by bacteria that activate massive numbers of T cells through bridging the MHCII
213
What are cryptic epitopes?
Self tissue released as antigen to T cells
214
What causes agglutination with IMHA?
Antibodies can bind 2 RBCs which causes agglutination of cells
215
What does a Coombs test detect?
Presence of erythrocyte-directed auto-antibodies
216
What is targeted in myasthenia gravis?
Acetylcholine receptors in neuronal junctions
217
How do you test for myasthenia gravis?
Tensilon test
218
What are the 2 phases of type 1 hypersensitivity?
Sensitization phase: first encounter
Effector phase: re-encounter
219
What is the primary cell in type 1 hypersensitivities?
Mast cells (IgE and histamines)
NOT eosinophils
220
How do infections result from atopic dermatitis?
Scratching from pruritus causes trauma and moisture
221
Which is the drug that actually treats the "itch"
Lokivetmab (cytopoint)
222
How does cytopoint work?
Anti IL-31 antibodies
223
What is hyperemia?
Too much blood flow in (erythema)
224
What is congestion?
Not enough blood flow out (cyanosis)
225
What is the nutmeg appearance?
Right sided heart failure in dogs due to hypoxia (cyanosis due to congestion)
226
What are the heart failure cells?
Hemosiderosis
227
What is melena?
Digested blood in feces
228
What is hematochezia?
Undigested blood in feces
229
What is rhexis?
Hemorrhage via physical disruption of the vascular wall
230
What is diapedesis?
Hemorrhage via a leakage through intact vascular wall
231
What is petechia?
Pinpoint hemorrhage
232
What is ecchymoses?
Blotchy hemorrhage
233
What is suffusive?
Paintbrush-like hemorrage streaks
234
What is hyphema?
Bleeding into anterior chamber of eye
235
What is hemoptysis?
Coughing up blood
236
What is Hematemesis
Vomiting up blood
237
What is hemorrhagic diathesis?
Systemic bleeding caused by a deficit of clotting factors
238
What is coagulopathy?
Hemostasis defect
239
Where does thrombosis normally occur?
Veins
more serious in arteries tho
240
What is released during endothelial damage and exposure of subendothelial release?
Platelet-activating factor (PAF)
241
What are the 3 corners of Virchow's Triad?
Endothelial damage
Abnormal flow rate
Hypercoagulability
242
What are the 6 types of thrombi?
Mural
Obterating
Occlusive
Saddle
Septic
Vegetative
243
What are the different characteristics between a venous thrombi and an arterial thrombi?
Venous: RBC, non-infarction, more common, embolize
Arterial: WBC, infarctious, more deadly, cause alternating layers
244
What does embolize mean?
Pieces breaking off a thrombi
245
What are alternating layers in arterial thrombi called?
Lines of Zahn
246
What are the 4 resolutions to a thrombi?
No scar
Inelastic scar
New channel formed
DIC
247
What are the possible outcomes of an embolism?
Either ischemia or infarction
248
What is an infarct?
A local area of ischemia necrosis from a blockage/occlusion
249
What color is an arterial infarction?
White
blood cant enter
250
What color is a venous infarction?
Red-black
blood cant leave
251
What happens in DIC?
Endothelial damage
Multiple thrombus form
consumes all clotting factors
widespread petechia and ecchymoses
252
What are Russell Bodies?
Hyaline bodies present in cytoplasm
253
What are Mott Cells?
Plasma cells that contain russell bodies (immunoglobulins)
254
What is hyaline
Abnormal accumulation of protein
255
How is hyaline found in cells?
Glomerular damage causes proteinurea, causing protein being taken up by tubular cells (intracellular hyaline droplets)
256
What are crystalline protein inclusion bodies?
"Brick inclusions"
Normal in hepatocytes and renal cells
257
What are viral inclusion bodies
Accumulation of viral proteins
258
What are amyloid fibrils?
Abnormally folded proteins into Beta sheets
259
What is the precursor for reactive systemic amyloid associated (AA)?
SAA
260
What is the precursor for primary amyloid amyloid light-chain (AL)?
AL
261
How does amyloid occur?
Circulating SAA
Misfolding (neoplasia or infection)
Enter cells
Mutated SAA aggregate together
262
What do you use to stain for amyliod in live tissue?
Fresh tissue - Lugol's iodine
263
What stain do you use for amyloid in histo?
Congo red stain
264
What stain do you use for amyloid in polarized light?
Congo red positive apple green fluorescence
265
What is the main consequence of amyloidosis?
Organ failure (liver and kidney)
266
Does gout occur in dogs, cats, cows, etc
NO
267
What dont other animals get gout?
They have an enzyme called uricase
268
What is gout?
Deposition of sodium urate crystals on tissues
269
What causes gout?
Dehydration, kidney failure, high protein diets
270
What are the 2 types of gout?
Articular
Visceral (pericardium and renal)
271
What are the 2 types of calcification?
Dystrophic
Metastatic
272
What is dystrophic calcification?
Calcification of necrotic or diseased tissue
273
What is metastatic calcification?
Calcification of normal tissue
Hypercalcemia
274
What are 4 ways that hypercalcemia happens resultin gin metastatic calcification?
Tumor causing increased PTH
Bone destruction from neoplasia
Vitamin D too high from intake
Renal disease causing retention
275
What is von Kossa stain used for?
Staining calcium black for metastatic calcification
276
Where do cats often get reactive amyloidosis?
Pancreatic islets of Langerhans
277
Why should you control the amount of vitamin D an alpaca gets?
Highly sensitive to it and may cause calcification
278
What causes cyanosis in cat foot pads?
Secondary to a saddle thrombosis
279
What are the borders like between autolytic and normal tissue?
SHARP borders
280
What is oncotic necrosis?
swelling of cells leading to eventual burst
281
What is karyolysis?
Nuclear fading
282
Unlike autolysis' clear line, what does necrosis have?
A visual gradient
283
What is karyorrhexis?
Nuclear fragmentation
284
What is pyknosis?
Nuclear shrinkage
285
What are the 4 electrolytes on a panel?
Chloride
Sodium
Potassium
Bicarb
286
What is sodium balanced by?
Chloride and bicarb
287
What disease does hyperkalemia indicate?
Addison's (hypoadreno)
288
What does transfusion plasma have in it?
albumin, antibodies, clotting factors
289
What transfusion cannot be used for dogs with von Willebrand?
Stored plasma (4 year shelf life)
290
What is cryoprececipitate?
Precipitate that forms when frozen fresh plasma (FFP) is thawed slowly
Used for von Willebrand disease
291
What are the different types of blood component therapies?
Whole blood
Packed RBCs
Fresh Plasma
Frozen fresh plasma
Stored plasma
Cryoprecipitate
Cryosupernate
292
Why are greyhounds good dogs for blood donor?
High DEA 1.1 negative
Higher PCV than other breeds
Docile
Good veins
293
What are 5 signs of inflammation?
Heat
Pain
Soreness
Loss of function
Swelling
294
What are the 4 main stages of leukocyte adhesion cascade?
Margination
Rolling
Activation/adhesion
Transmigration
295
What is the ligand that leukocytes bind to during endothelial transmigration?
PECAM-1 with CD31
296
What are the classifications of inflammations?
Serous
Fibrinous
Catarhhal
Hemorrhagic
Purulent
Eosinophilic
297
What is serous inflammation?
Fluid
298
What is fibrinous inflammation?
fluid and fibrin protein
299
What is catarrhal inflammation?
fluid, fibrin, and mucoid
300
What is hemorrhagic inflammation?
erythrocytes, protein, fluid
301
What is purulent/supprutative inflammation?
neutrophils and everything else
302
What is eosinophilic inflammation?
eosinophils
303
What are the 3 forms of chronic inflammation?
Supporutive
Nonsuppurative
Granulomatous
304
What are hallmark signs of suppurative chronic inflammation?
Abscess and/or cellulitis
305
What things normally cause nonsuppurative chronic inflammation?
Viruses
306
What are the 2 hallmarks of granulomatous chronic inflammation?
Macrophages +/- multinucleated giant cells
307
What are the 2 types of MNGC and what is their appearance?
Foreign body: In middle of cell scattered
Langhan's: Semi-circle
308
Draw out the granuloma architecture. What cells does it contain?
Fibroblasts
Macrophages
Multinucleated giant cell
Epithelioid cell
kymphocyte
309
What are the 4 outcomes of acute inflammation?
Resolution
Healing by fibrosis
Abscess formation
Chronic inflammation
310
What is the initiating response to injury?
***Direct Endothelial Damage***
311
