complete ARFF and Pump BOOK Flashcards
What NFPA standard outlines qualifications for Airport Firefighters?
NFPA 1003 - Standard for Airport Firefighter Professional Qualifications
What does NFPA 403 cover?
Standard for Aircraft Rescue Firefighting at Airports
What federal regulation governs ARFF requirements at airports?
DOT Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) Title 14 Part 139 (14 CFR Part 139)
What are the three primary ARFF mission goals?
Life Safety, Property Conservation, Environmental Protection
What event led to the formation of the FAA in 1958?
Safety concerns over a series of midair collisions
What is ICAO and what does it do?
International Civil Aviation Organization; sets rules for the United Nations and publishes standards for required vehicles, agent quantities, and response times
Where are airport flight data recorders typically located?
Cargo compartment or tail section
What foam is most commonly used by ARFF and what is its shelf life?
AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam), with a shelf life of 20 years
What defines a ‘Controlled Airport’?
An airport having an Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
What are the four functional positions in ARFF operations?
Airport Firefighter, EMS, Rescue Team Member, Driver/Operator, Officer
What NFPA standard outlines firefighter professional qualifications?
NFPA 1001 - Standard for Firefighter Professional Qualifications
What federal agency funds equipment purchases through the Airport Improvement Program?
FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)
What does NTSB stand for and what is its role?
National Transportation Safety Board; determines cause of accidents and maintains accident database
What agency was created after 9/11 and oversees national transportation security?
TSA (Transportation Security Administration)
What is the primary focus of ICAO regulations?
Sets rules for the United Nations regarding required vehicles, agent quantities, and response times
What is the role of aircraft crash charts?
Provide ARFF crews with aircraft-specific hazard and access information
What are key indicators of a survivable aircraft crash?
Low impact, intact fuselage, and absence of fuel fire
What are examples of ARFF functional positions?
EMS, Rescue Team Member, Driver/Operator, Officer
What is the purpose of cadet/recruit training?
Initial training prior to assignment to ARFF operations
What is OJT and when is it used?
On-the-job training used in daily ARFF operations under supervision
What does in-service training include?
Classroom instruction and hands-on live fire training
What organization sets the primary fire safety standards?
NFPA (National Fire Protection Association)
What does AOA stand for in airport operations?
Airport Operations Area
What are target hazards in airport environments?
Fuel storage, terminals, maintenance areas, and dangerous goods
What is the primary responsibility of the ARFF team during an aircraft incident?
Fire control, evacuation, and rescue
What are the primary extinguishing agents used by ARFF?
Water and foam
What are complementary extinguishing agents?
Dry chemical powder and clean agents
What defines a controlled airport?
An airport with an Air Traffic Control Tower (ATCT)
What is 14 CFR Part 139?
Code of Federal Regulations governing ARFF operations at airports
What color lights outline taxiways?
Blue
What color lights indicate the centerline of taxiways and approach ends of runways?
Green
What do red lights indicate on an airfield?
Obstructions such as buildings or parked aircraft
What do yellow guard lights indicate?
Areas that require permission to pass
What is a displaced threshold?
Marks the beginning of a runway suitable for takeoff but not landing
What is the Rapid Response Area (RRA)?
500’ each side from center of runway and 1650’ each end
What is CRFFAA?
Critical Rescue Firefighting Access Area — 500’ each side of runway and 3300’ each end
What are the primary colors of airport signage?
White, yellow, and red
What do white X markings indicate?
Closed taxiways or runways
What is the segmented circle used for at airports?
Displays traffic pattern indicators and wind direction
What is the width of a runway safety area?
250 feet on each side of the runway centerline
How long is the runway end safety area supposed to be?
At least 300 feet
What type of light configuration indicates the last 3000 feet of a runway?
Alternating red and white
What does a hold position marking consist of?
Two solid and two dashed yellow lines
How should airport fueling trucks be grounded?
Using a metal cable to equalize static electrical charge
What is a dead man device?
A valve device that must be manually held open to operate
What is the most common fueling method for smaller aircraft?
Over-the-wing fueling
What is the over-the-wing fueling hazard?
Static electricity and open flame proximity
What is the function of glycol containment tanks?
Contain de-icing fluid and prevent environmental contamination
Where should fuel extinguishers be located during fueling?
Every 100 feet and midway between gates
What is the required rating for portable extinguishers at aircraft fueling locations?
Minimum 20B
What is the preferred extinguishing agent for AVGAS fires?
Foam
Why should AVGAS fires not be extinguished with only water?
It may spread the fire due to its low flash point
What type of fire behavior do Jet A fuels exhibit?
Higher flash point and lower flame spread
Why are pitot tubes hazardous?
They can become extremely hot and cause burns
What type of light is located on the right side of an aircraft?
Green
What do red flashing lights on aircraft indicate?
Aircraft is under power
What safety area extends outward from approach and departure ends of a runway?
1000’ - 2000’
How are taxiways typically named?
Main ones by letters, stub feeders by adding numbers (e.g., Alpha, Alpha 1)
What markings indicate a non-movement area boundary?
One solid and one dashed yellow line
What does the color white indicate on runways?
Runway edge markings, centerlines, and threshold markings
What section of the aircraft houses most aircraft systems?
Fuselage
What is the purpose of static wicks?
Draw static electricity from the aircraft and discharge it into the atmosphere
What is the primary purpose of aircraft nacelles?
Housing the engine and containing pooled fuel which can pose a fire hazard
What component controls aircraft rolling or banking?
Ailerons located on the trailing edge of the wings
What is the function of elevators in aircraft?
Control pitch (up and down movement) via horizontal stabilizer
What aircraft section houses the rudder?
Vertical stabilizer, controlling yaw or turning
What component provides electrical and hydraulic power when main engines aren’t running?
APU (Auxiliary Power Unit)
What are the four sections of a gas turbine engine?
Compressor, combustion, turbine/exhaust, accessory section
What is the function of a turbofan engine?
Increases thrust by increasing total airflow
Which jet engine is commonly used in commuter and cargo aircraft?
Turboprop
Which type of engine is used in helicopters to drive the main and tail rotors?
Turboshaft
What aircraft engine component prevents icing but can cause burns?
Pitot tubes
What aircraft component helps slow it by redirecting jet exhaust?
Thrust reverser
What is the simplest type of jet engine?
Turbojet
What metal is most commonly used in aircraft construction?
Aluminum
Why is magnesium dangerous in aircraft fires?
It is difficult to extinguish and burns at high temperatures
What alloy is commonly used in landing gear structural members?
Aluminum lithium or beryllium
What component is used to shut off fuel during emergency aircraft operations?
‘T’ or ‘L’ shaped handle
How quickly should an escape slide deploy and be ready for use?
Within 6 seconds
How many passengers per minute can an escape slide accommodate?
70 passengers per minute
How fast must an aircraft be evacuated?
Within 90 seconds
What wind speed is the limit for safe escape slide use?
25 knots
What type of cargo class has built-in fire protection systems?
Class C
What type of cargo door is hinged at the top and swings out and up?
Cargo aircraft doors
How do most military cargo aircraft open cargo doors?
Manually or via electric/hydraulic systems
What device is used to gain access to aircraft doors when electrical power fails?
Ratchet (1/4, 3/8, or 1/2 inch)
What should never be used on mechanically opening aircraft doors?
Pneumatic drivers
What is the safest angle to approach a fighter jet with potential rocket munitions?
45° angle
What aircraft system provides emergency electrical/hydraulic power in flight?
RAT (Ram Air Turbine)
What aircraft fuel has the lowest flash point and greatest volatility?
AVGAS
What foam has the ability to ‘self-heal’ if disturbed?
AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
What is the most common foam concentrate in ARFF?
AFFF
What is the expansion ratio for high expansion foam?
200:1 to 1000:1
What type of foam is required for polar solvents?
Alcohol-resistant Class B foam
What is the foam ratio for hydrocarbon fires?
1-3% Class B foam
What is the foam ratio for polar solvent fires?
3-6% Class B foam
What is the ideal foam application method for a pool of liquid fire?
Roll-on method
Which method is best for applying foam at an elevated object near liquid?
Deflection or bank-down method
What is the PCA in foam firefighting?
Practical Critical Area, 2/3 the size of the Theoretical Critical Area (TCA)
What is the TCA formula for an aircraft over 65 feet long?
TCA = L x (100 + W)
What happens if inlet water pressure exceeds 10 psi on a foam proportioner?
Venturi effect fails and no foam is drawn in
How often should foam be tested with a refractometer?
At least twice per year
What type of nozzle produces the best quality foam?
Aspirating nozzle
Which foam system uses compressed air to inject air into the stream?
High energy foam system
What is the best extinguishing agent for engine/APU/EPU fires?
Clean agent
Which agent should be used first in 3D aircraft fires?
Dry chemical (PKP or similar)
What is the standard nozzle flow rate for a dry chemical handline?
Minimum 5 lbs/sec
What is the required range for a dry chemical handline?
At least 25 feet
What kind of extinguisher is best for electronics with no residue?
Clean agent
What is the ideal suppression method for a wheel fire involving magnesium?
Water from a safe distance followed by Class D extinguisher
What is the critical burn-through time for aluminum aircraft skin?
1 minute
What is the recommended nozzle positioning after fire extinguishment?
Back away with nozzle pointed at fire area
What aircraft fuel produces the highest flame spread and is similar to Jet B?
AVGAS
What is the function of the Aircraft Certification Manual (ACM)?
Outlines how an airport will meet Part 139 certification requirements
How often must an emergency plan be tested?
Every 3 years
What are the three levels of aircraft alerts?
Alert I – Local standby, Alert II – Full emergency, Alert III – Aircraft accident
What is the difference between an emergency and an incident?
Emergency requires immediate action; an incident does not
What critical phase of flight has the highest risk?
5 minutes after takeoff and 10 minutes before landing
What is the ‘Sterile Cockpit Rule’?
No non-essential duties below 10,000 feet
What distance does the Clear Zone cover?
3000 feet from runway end
What agency is responsible for family support after aviation disasters?
Red Cross (under Aviation Disaster Family Assistance Act of 1996)
What document identifies the location of dangerous goods on aircraft?
Cargo manifest
What are Action Potential Zones (APZ) used for?
To determine zones at higher risk for aircraft incidents
What is the response time required for ARFF vehicles?
First vehicle in 3 minutes, others in 4 minutes
Who investigates civil aircraft accidents?
FAA or NTSB
What are the responsibilities of law enforcement during aircraft incidents?
Scene security, access control, perimeter, large-scale evacuations
What agency assists with locating downed aircraft?
Civil Air Patrol (CAP)
What is the primary hazard of military aircraft crashes?
Weapons systems and emergency escape devices
What is the hazard of hydrazine?
Highly toxic, hypergolic fuel used in military aircraft EPUs
How far should personnel retreat if a weapon cannot be extinguished on a fighter aircraft?
2000 feet
What is the most dangerous and difficult landing gear failure to manage?
Single main gear up
What material should be used to insulate fuselage during overhaul?
Blankets or insulation to preserve aircraft structure
What does NFPA 402 cover?
Guide for Aircraft Rescue and Firefighting operations
What is the main priority when ARFF arrives on scene?
Life safety and establishing rescue paths
What are the three zones established at a hazardous materials incident?
Hot, Warm, and Cold Zones
Where is the decontamination corridor located?
Upwind side of the Warm Zone
What are the four goals of emergency response?
Life Safety, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation, Societal Restoration
What is the best suppression agent for running or flowing fuel fires?
Dry chemical (PKP)
What is the preferred method for fuel tank cooling during a fire?
Water fog or mist
What are the primary indicators of an uncontained engine failure?
Engine fragments scattered outside casing
What is Skydrol and its hazard?
Aviation hydraulic fluid that decomposes into toxic vapors at high temperatures
What system is used to identify hazardous materials in U.S. air transport?
CFR Title 49 Part 175
What is the purpose of EMAS (Engineered Materials Arrestor System)?
Stops aircraft overruns at end of runways
What defines a high-impact crash?
G-forces that exceed human tolerance levels
What are the triage color categories?
Red – Immediate, Yellow – Delayed, Green – Minor, Black – Deceased
What is the purpose of a PASS device?
Alerts rescuers if firefighter is motionless for 30 seconds
What is the ideal sound level for a PASS device?
95 decibels at 3 meters
How often should batteries in PASS devices be changed?
Every 6 months
How should composite fibers be handled during extrication?
Wear respiratory protection due to irritation risk
What is the main hazard with LOX (Liquid Oxygen)?
Extremely unstable and shock-sensitive
What action should be taken when encountering an undetonated aircraft ejection seat?
Do not touch it unless trained
How long can a jet engine remain hot after shutdown?
Up to 20 minutes
What is the typical red beacon light an indicator of?
Running aircraft engine
What is the width of a wheel fragment zone?
45° out to 289 feet
What are ballistic recovery systems (BRS)?
Parachute systems that deploy from small aircraft in emergencies
How far away should you remain from a propeller in motion?
At least 15 feet
What is the hazard of helicopter main rotor blades?
Can dip to within 4 feet of the ground
What is the danger of approaching a helicopter from the rear?
Main tail rotor is invisible and lethal
What do emergency locator beacons (ELB) do?
Transmit signals to aid in locating downed aircraft
What does SERP stand for?
Standard Emergency Response Plan
What type of signals are used for air searches?
ELB – Emergency Locator Beacon
What type of signals are used for ground searches?
Personal Locator Beacon
What should be the minimum clearance around a landing helicopter?
100 feet on all sides
How should helicopter tools be carried when approaching the aircraft?
Below waist level
What method is preferred for fighting cargo hold fires?
Use clean agent through access ports and secure hatch
What happens if fire burns through an aircraft skin?
Structural failure and possible collapse
What method is used to locate hidden fires inside aircraft walls?
Blistered paint or discoloration as indicators
What is the best foam to use when multiple agents may be deployed simultaneously?
AFFF
When should Class D extinguishers be used?
Only on magnesium or titanium fires
What is the flash point of Jet A fuel?
Approximately 100°F
What is the flash point of AVGAS?
-49°F
How long does it take to burn through aircraft aluminum skin?
60 seconds
How are aircraft fuel tanks typically vented?
To the opposite side of fueling
What is the purpose of vortex generators?
Maintain steady airflow over flight control surfaces
How should foam be reapplied during a long fire operation?
Reapply as water drains or vaporizes to maintain blanket
What color are hold short signs on taxiways?
White letters on red background
What type of nozzle must be used with protein and fluoroprotein foam?
Aspirating nozzle
What ARFF feature alerts drivers of safe maneuvering limits?
LAI – Lateral Acceleration Indicator
What does DEVS stand for?
Driver Enhanced Vision System
What foam system expands at a 20:1 ratio and is injected with compressed air?
CAFS – Compressed Air Foam System
What is the most common type of aircraft accident?
General Aviation (GA) crashes
Where should initial triage be performed?
At the location victims are found
What is the function of MADAS?
Monitoring and Data Acquisition System
What is the ideal nozzle angle for applying water to a burning wheel assembly?
45° angle
What does the FAA prohibit ARFF vehicles from carrying?
Alcohol-resistant foam concentrate purchased with FAA funds
What is the average foam application range of a turret?
Must begin within 30 feet of the vehicle
What types of hand tools are required in ARFF operations?
Crash axe, dearm tool, reciprocating saw, and webbing
What is the main job of the flight crew during an emergency if conscious?
Initiate aircraft evacuation
What is the best position for a rescue ladder near a door?
Opposite the door hinge or on the fuselage
What does FFFP foam combine?
Heat resistance of FPF and knockdown of AFFF
What is the flash point of Jet B fuel?
Approximately -20°F
What causes ‘tailpipe fire’ in an aircraft?
Too much fuel injected without ignition
What technique is used to ventilate using water fog?
Hydraulic ventilation
What is a common method of mechanical ventilation on aircraft?
Using PPV or opening existing doors and hatches
What hazard is associated with radar systems on aircraft?
Ignition source and health hazard if active
Where is the aircraft radar system typically located?
In the nose of the aircraft
What colors indicate danger areas on airfield signs?
Red background with white lettering
What is a common use of colored salvage tarps in ARFF?
Triage area organization
What is the NFPA standard for hazmat response that includes decon corridor guidelines?
NFPA 472
What are the three main parts of an aircraft fuselage?
Cockpit, passenger cabin, and cargo section
What is the primary hazard of the aircraft’s electronic and avionics bays?
Confined space and possible electrical or fuel fires
What is the minimum flow rate for ASPN (Aircraft Skin Penetrating Nozzle)?
Typically 350 GPM
How should ARFF drivers position apparatus at an aircraft crash scene?
For the greatest amount of good for the greatest amount of people
What is the function of a Load Sequencer?
Turns equipment on in sequence to prevent overload
What should the maximum play in a steering wheel be?
No more than 10% each side
What is the minimum required extinguisher rating at a fueling location?
20B
What is the foam concentrate requirement for 500 gallons of water?
15 gallons of foam
What are the four principles of emergency apparatus inspection?
Fluids, tires, equipment, and safety features
What are the most common causes of firefighter injury at the airport?
Accidents and poor situational awareness
What is the preferred method for aircraft ventilation post-fire?
Positive pressure ventilation (PPV)
What is the primary benefit of an aspirating nozzle?
Produces high-expansion, stable foam
What is a RIT team and when is it required?
Rapid Intervention Team, required at B-E index airports
What is the benefit of compressed air foam (CAFS)?
Greater expansion ratio and better coverage
What is a ‘crash net’?
Direct line conference circuit connecting ATCT and emergency responders
What is the duty of the flight service station (FSS)?
Assist with weather info and traffic updates at airports without towers
What is a critical safety practice when operating near fuel spills?
Remove ignition sources and cover spills with foam
How long can an aircraft’s metal surfaces retain heat after a fire?
Up to 20 minutes
Why should composite aircraft materials be handled with care after cutting?
They can cause respiratory and skin irritation
What is the recommended nozzle pressure for foam application?
Typically around 100 psi for handlines
What are the two primary types of foam proportioning systems?
Venturi and pressurized injection
What is the hazard of allowing firefighting foam to degrade during an incident?
Reignition of flammable surfaces
What should be done if composite material fire is smoldering?
Apply water or foam, avoid disturbing fibers
What does ‘piggyback’ mean in dry chemical application?
Vehicle-mounted unit with high lb/sec discharge rate
What determines the classification of an ARFF apparatus (Index A–E)?
Length of aircraft and number of daily departures
What is the safest firefighting technique for magnesium fires in aircraft wheels?
Let burn or extinguish from distance using Class D agent
What is the required extinguisher rating for high flow fuel servicing locations?
Minimum 80B and 125 lbs
What is the maximum reach for dry chemical turret application?
100 feet under no wind conditions
What is the function of MADAS?
Records 120 seconds before and 15 seconds after ARFF accidents
What is the common reaction between water/foam and aircraft metals like magnesium?
Violent reactions, possible explosions
What is the cargo classification for fully cargo-filled aircraft with no passenger access?
Class D Cargo Compartment
What are ‘unit load devices’ used for?
Cargo pallets or containers secured in aircraft cargo holds
What is the expansion ratio for protein-based foams?
Typically 6:1 to 10:1 with aspirating nozzles
What is the most stable foam type for long-term application?
AFFF (Aqueous Film Forming Foam)
What is the hazard of water-only application on a Class B fire?
Can spread the fire or worsen it
What is the flash point of Jet A-1?
Approximately 100°F
What nozzle is preferred for using protein or fluoroprotein foams?
Aspirating nozzle
What are the characteristics of wide-body aircraft?
Dual aisles, high passenger capacity, more than 64,000 gallons fuel
What is the main structural material for older aircraft?
Aluminum
What is the function of a vertical stabilizer?
Houses the rudder for directional (yaw) control
What is the danger zone around an active jet engine?
30 feet from front and sides
What happens if you disturb LOX with tools or boots?
It may detonate due to shock sensitivity
What aircraft system provides power while engines are shut down?
APU – Auxiliary Power Unit
How does a turboprop engine generate thrust?
Turbojet drives a propeller via gearbox
How should a RAT be deployed in an emergency?
Automatically or manually from under fuselage
How long is an escape slide designed to empty an aircraft?
90 seconds
What determines the ARFF index for an airport?
Length of the largest aircraft with five or more daily departures
What is a displaced threshold?
Portion of runway usable for takeoff but not for landing
What color indicates runway edge lighting?
White
How should tool staging areas be organized?
By tool function and accessibility
What should be done before opening cargo doors on aircraft?
Secure power and determine manual access
What are Vortex Generators used for?
Maintaining steady airflow over flight control surfaces
What is the range for dry chemical HRET systems?
100 feet
What is the ideal method of communication in high-noise aircraft incidents?
Hand signals
What action should be taken if agent supply is exhausted during operations?
Flash headlights and sound siren
How should hoses be deployed during dry chemical application?
Fully unrolled to prevent surge or rupture
What is the function of FPF (Fluoroprotein Foam)?
Fuel shedding quality, used for subsurface injection
What is a common construction hazard on airports for ARFF?
Topography limiting access and fuel drainage
What are the characteristics of the main landing gear?
Brakes, steering, and may retract into fuselage or wings
What is the difference between radial and reciprocating engines?
Radial is round and used in large aircraft; reciprocating in small aircraft
What is the hazard of magnetic ignition systems (magnetos)?
Can spark even when battery is disconnected
Why is pitot tube location important?
Located near fuselage, can cause burns
How should you approach a helicopter during rescue?
From the front or sides, never from the rear
What are the warning signs of hot brakes?
Smoke, odor, glowing parts
What is the most common location for aircraft fuel leaks?
Wing tanks and nacelles
What is the function of a segmented circle at an airport?
Displays wind direction and traffic pattern indicators
What are white and red alternating lights used for?
Marking the last 3000 feet of a runway
What is a significant fire hazard in general aviation aircraft?
Heating systems located in the nose
What is the difference between hydrocarbon and polar solvent fuels?
Hydrocarbons repel water; polar solvents mix with water
What percentage of modern automobile fuel is a polar solvent?
Up to 10%
What is required before discharging a wheeled extinguisher?
Fully deploy hose line
What action should be taken before approaching an aircraft with suspected radioactive cargo?
Verify manifest and isolate area
What is the expansion ratio of medium expansion foam?
20:1 to 200:1
What should be worn within 10 feet of a waterline during operations?
Flotation device
What is the proper method of laddering a wing?
Ladder the leading edge, never flaps or slats
What are the signs of structural fatigue after a cargo hold fire?
Sagging floor or weakened supports above
What type of foam must be used with non-aspirating nozzles?
Film-forming foam like AFFF
How are dead man devices used in fueling operations?
They must be manually held to keep valve open
What causes a tailpipe fire?
Excess unburned fuel injected into the engine
What do alternating red and green tower lights signal?
Exercise extreme caution
How is foam typically stored on ARFF trucks?
In tanks or 5-gallon pails/barrels
How often must truck-mounted foam be tested?
At least once per year
What does ‘Suck, Squeeze, Bang, Blow’ refer to?
Operating principle of a jet engine
What is the max slope a fully loaded ARFF truck should climb?
As defined by angle of approach and departure specs from manufacturer
What are the two most common wheel assembly hazards?
Hot brakes and wheel fires
What does the acronym CAP stand for?
Civil Air Patrol
Where should the treatment zones be set up during an MCI?
As close to the scene as safely possible
What is the first priority for ARFF personnel at a crash scene?
Protecting occupant evacuation routes
What temperature do fusible plugs in wheel assemblies typically melt?
Between 300°F to 400°F
What is the most dangerous result of landing with one main gear up?
Severe instability and potential structural failure
What federal directive mandates NIMS compliance for federal funding?
HSPD-5 (Homeland Security Presidential Directive)
What is the primary fire hazard in GA aircraft?
Nose-located heating system with a history of fires
What tool is used to disarm military ejection seats?
Dearm Tool
What aircraft section is commonly used for black box (FDR/CVR) placement?
Tail section or cargo compartment
What is the hazard of composite aircraft materials when burned?
Can create respiratory damage similar to asbestos
What is the #1 killer of burned or trauma victims?
Shock (a form of hypothermia)
What type of extinguisher should be used around avionics?
Clean agent (e.g., Halon 1211, 1301)
What is the difference between rocket and missile?
Rocket has no guidance system; missile has one
What is a gravity bomb and how should it be extinguished?
Unguided bomb; water is the agent of choice
What are the dimensions of a CRFFAA zone?
500’ each side of runway center and 3300’ at each end
What is the ‘short burst’ technique?
5–10 seconds of foam discharge followed by reassessment
What does a ‘black letter on yellow sign’ at an airport signify?
Location, direction, destination, or informational signage
What are signs of a backdraft hazard in aircraft fire?
Smoke-stained windows, puffing smoke, hot doors
What equipment should be worn when filling dry chemical extinguishers?
Eye protection and a dust mask or respirator
What should be done if an ARFF truck’s DEVS or FLIR systems reduce visibility?
Use slow, cautious driving
What is the function of load monitors in ARFF trucks?
Prevent electrical system overload by shedding low-priority loads
What is the function of the fire station’s public address system?
Relay information to responding personnel
What is the role of Unicom frequency?
Non-government communication at GA airports
What foam proportioning system requires PTO to operate?
Bypass Type Balanced Pressure Proportioner
What is the function of the Airport Operations Area (AOA)?
Taxiways, runways, ramps where aircraft and support vehicles operate
What action should be taken before disconnecting a GPU?
Shut down the unit to prevent surge or damage
What is the safest direction to approach a rocket engine fire?
45° angle
What are the two types of foam proportioning technologies?
Induction and injection
What is the preferred method to apply foam to a large surface fire?
Begin at farthest point and move toward you
What are two exceptions to the ‘2 in, 2 out’ rule?
Known life hazard and incipient stage with potential rescue
What agency governs hazardous materials transport via aircraft?
Department of Transportation (CFR Title 49, Part 175)
What is the best method for ventilation in aircraft with reinforced nose or tail?
Avoid cutting reinforced areas, ventilate through hatches or windows
How long should foam take to drain from a 5-gallon bucket into ARFF tank?
Under 20 seconds
What is the acronym GPU?
Ground Power Unit
Why is magnesium used in aircraft despite its hazards?
Lightweight, used where forcible entry is unlikely
What is the main purpose of vortex generators on wings?
Maintain smooth airflow over control surfaces
What is the difference between FPF and FFFP foams?
FPF has fuel-shedding ability; FFFP combines FPF and AFFF features
What is the most common nozzle on ARFF handlines?
Fog or air aspirating nozzle
What is the function of a speed brake?
Helps slow aircraft using drag from rear or underside of fuselage
What is the backup system for electrical and hydraulic power in flight?
RAT (Ram Air Turbine)
What should never be used with pneumatic rescue tools?
Compressed oxygen (can cause explosion)
What is a main hazard of ejection seats during rescue?
Gas or rocket-powered deployment, lethal if activated
What does ‘situational awareness’ refer to?
Understanding environment and anticipating events or hazards
What is the primary role of the Emergency Operations Center (EOC)?
Coordinate large-scale response and logistics
What are warning signs of uncontained engine failure?
Fragments and debris around engine exterior
What are components of COPLA/F in ICS?
Command, Operations, Planning, Logistics, Admin/Finance, Intelligence
What is the purpose of dry powder extinguishing agents?
Used for Class D metal fires (e.g., magnesium, titanium)
What type of hazard is depleted uranium in aircraft noses?
Radiological and physical hazard
Why should hatches be approached with caution?
They may fall open or be jettisoned unexpectedly
What is the benefit of vehicle-mounted thermal imaging cameras (TIC)?
Locate hidden fires and heat sources
What foam component must be mixed before air is introduced?
Foam solution
What is a key safety precaution with hot brakes?
Avoid direct frontal approach; cool with water fog from safe angle
What is the optimal ladder placement for upper deck access in NLA?
Use aerial or platform with fall protection
What are ‘guard lights’ and where are they located?
Amber lights indicating hold bars or restricted areas
What are signs that composite materials are burning?
Black smoke, sweet smell, skin/eye irritation
What is the advantage of HRET systems?
Allows agent delivery at elevation or into fuselage with ASPN
What does ‘black on yellow’ mean in airfield signs?
Location, direction, or destination indicators
How should foam be applied using ‘rain down’ method?
Apply in a high arc to reach large fires or tank tops
What causes hydraulic ventilation?
Water fog draws smoke out through window or vent
What are three sources for cargo manifest verification?
Flight deck, loading pouch, and aircraft exterior
What are signs of fuel pooling under an aircraft?
Shiny surface, rainbow sheen, fuel odor
What is the maximum flame temperature of titanium fires?
Above 3000°F
What is a common cause of partial evacuation failure?
Lodged cabin door or stairs in commuter aircraft
How is ‘load shedding’ triggered?
Automatically by load monitor to prevent power overload
What are three common dry chemical agents?
Sodium bicarbonate, PKP, potassium chloride
What material are most aircraft windows made of?
Triple-pane plastic composite
What is the nozzle reaction effect?
Force felt from flowing water or agent, impacts stability
What is the expansion ratio for low-expansion foam?
Up to 20:1
What ARFF class vehicle carries up to 500 gallons of water?
Class 1 Rapid Intervention Vehicle
What are the hazards of over-the-wing fueling?
Static discharge, ignition source proximity
What is the best method to identify hidden fires in voids?
Thermal imaging or visual inspection after overhaul
What are the three flow methods for dry chemical on ARFF trucks?
Handline, piggyback, and water stream injection
What is the purpose of a ‘command post beacon’?
Green rotating light to mark command location
What are typical reaction signs of composite fiber inhalation?
Coughing, eye irritation, respiratory discomfort
What safety equipment should be issued to ARFF crew?
Helmet, SCBA, PASS device, turnout or proximity gear
What does NFPA 1901 cover?
Standards for ARFF apparatus equipment and features
What are the two ways foam can degrade effectiveness?
Drainage due to heat and mechanical disruption
Why are dry chemical agents last resort for interior fires?
Corrosive and may damage sensitive systems
How do you ensure effective batch mixing of foam?
Flush system, pre-measure concentrate, mix thoroughly
What is a common problem with water-only fire attacks?
Does not suppress vapor or reignition
What is required before using a cutting torch on an aircraft?
Verify no fuel or explosive hazards are present
What causes aircraft tires to explode during fires?
Heat buildup and trapped pressure in wheel assemblies
What happens to aircraft tires with fusible plugs during heat exposure?
Plugs melt, releasing air to prevent explosion
How should flammable liquids on water be treated?
Sweep or blanket with foam, avoid ignition sources
What is EMAS and where is it located?
Engineered Materials Arrestor System at runway ends to stop overruns
What is the benefit of trenching foam on water?
Contains floating fuel and limits fire spread
What does FSS stand for?
Flight Service Station
How do aircraft windows typically fail during fires?
Melt or pop out from heat and pressure
What is the safety consideration with auto-deploying escape slides?
They deploy rapidly and forcefully, risk of injury
What should be done before entering E&E bays?
Shut down power and assess fire risk
What are hot brakes and how are they identified?
Brakes that overheat during landing; identified by odor, smoke, or glow
What does a red light with a white letter indicate on an airfield?
Runway hold position – stop required
What is the danger of igniting composite materials?
Toxic smoke and possible structural collapse
How should personnel respond to signs of composite fiber exposure?
Exit area, decontaminate, and seek medical attention
What is the primary method for ARFF to handle uncontained fuel fires?
Apply foam in roll-on or bank-down pattern
Why is interior aircraft overhaul more complex than in structures?
Numerous void spaces, hidden fires, and sensitive materials
How often should direct communication lines between ATCT and fire station be tested?
Every 24 hours
What are the symptoms of hydrazine exposure?
Ammonia smell, eye/nose irritation, dizziness, nausea
Where is the APU typically located?
Tail section of the aircraft
How can a tailpipe fire usually be extinguished?
Shut off fuel and spool engine – self-extinguishes
What does ‘PPV’ stand for?
Positive Pressure Ventilation
What equipment is used to detect foam concentration accuracy?
Refractometer or conductivity meter
What is the minimum air pressure to operate ARFF vehicle accessories?
80 PSI
What is the most effective cooling agent for landing gear fires?
Water fog or mist
What is the main reason foam application must be reapplied?
Drainage or vaporization from heat
What is the hazard of dry chemical residue?
Corrosive, can damage avionics and electrical systems
What should be done if an escape hatch is jammed?
Use 3-sided cut or access alternate exit
What is the preferred entry point on business/corporate aircraft?
Main cabin door, usually forward of the left wing
What aircraft part often contains flammable hydraulic fluid?
Landing gear bays and flight control systems
How can jet engine failure be categorized?
Contained or uncontained, based on debris containment
Why is quick foam knockdown critical in large aircraft fires?
Preserves escape routes and protects trapped occupants
What is the maximum number of passengers on a New Large Aircraft (NLA)?
Up to 900 people
What are signs of a smoldering fire?
White smoke, heat with no visible flames, discoloration
What does the ICAO provide in terms of fire protection standards?
Response times, agent quantities, and required vehicles
What color light indicates the approach end of a runway?
Green
What is the ICAO width for a typical clear zone?
3000 feet
What is the purpose of the Aircraft Community Emergency Plan (A/CEP)?
Coordinate mutual aid and define agency roles
What material is used for insulation in aircraft fuselages?
Composite material or fire-resistant padding
Why is helicopter blade sag dangerous?
Can strike personnel as it dips close to ground
What should be avoided during overhaul if aircraft is under investigation?
Disturbing evidence or bodies before documentation
What system stores vehicle telemetry and crash data?
MADAS – Monitoring and Data Acquisition System
What airport area must support the weight of ARFF trucks?
Runway End Safety Area (RESA)
What are the dimensions of the RRA?
500 feet from centerline, 1650 feet from runway ends
What tactic should be used for an engine nacelle fire?
Use clean agent or water stream injection
What ARFF foam system is compatible with dry chemical?
AFFF – Film-forming foam
What is the warning associated with radar systems on aircraft?
Active radar is an ignition and health hazard
What should be done with damaged or suspect foam concentrate?
Test and replace if beyond shelf life or degraded
What is the responsibility of the TSA in aircraft incidents?
Screening, cargo checks, and securing transportation systems
What component in aircraft fuel systems prevents over-pressurization?
Vent system to opposite wing or fuel tank
What is required before operating a manual regeneration switch for a DPF system?
The vehicle must be in park.
What does the HEST indicator signify on post-2007 diesel apparatus?
High Exhaust System Temperature during active regeneration.
What can happen if DEF fluid is not topped off regularly?
The engine can be derated or enter a 5 MPH limp mode.
How long should a hot engine idle to cool before shutdown?
3 to 5 minutes.
Why should a diesel engine never be shut off while in motion?
It cuts off fuel flow that lubricates injectors and may cause pressure build-up.
What is ‘due regard’ in emergency vehicle operations?
Operating with the safety of others in mind.
What type of apparatus has the most frequent mechanical issues?
Homebuilt apparatus.
What is ‘situational awareness’ while driving?
Knowing surroundings and anticipating events.
Where do most emergency vehicle crashes occur?
At intersections.
What causes brake fade?
Overuse of brakes leading to loss of function.
What are the three angles used to assess truck movement over terrain?
Angle of Approach, Angle of Departure, and Breakover Angle.
What happens when the steering axle is too heavy?
Hard steering and increased tire wear.
What is engine lugging?
Using too high of a gear for the engine’s demand.
What is overthrottling?
Injecting more fuel than can be burned, causing carbon buildup and oil dilution.
How much following distance should emergency vehicles maintain?
300 to 500 feet.
Why should apparatus turn headlights on during daytime responses?
To increase visibility to civilians.
What is the function of strobe light preemption devices?
To change traffic lights in favor of approaching emergency vehicles.
What is visual head time?
The time a driver has to see and react to conditions ahead.
What is the purpose of an exhaust brake?
To help slow the vehicle by restricting exhaust flow.
What should always be done when backing apparatus?
Use one or more spotters positioned 8–10 feet behind the truck.
What is the NFPA standard that prohibits dashboard riding?
NFPA 1500.
What safety feature is required during hose loading operations?
One dedicated spotter and forward movement at no more than 5 MPH.
What does DPF stand for and what does it do?
Diesel Particulate Filter; collects soot from exhaust gases.
What causes diesel particulate filters to enter ‘regen’ mode?
Accumulated soot requiring high heat to burn off during regeneration.
What component allows operators to inhibit regen for safety?
Regen Inhibit Switch.
What is the danger of running an engine without DEF fluid?
It may enter limp mode at 5 MPH and require dealership servicing.
What are the three zones established at hazmat incidents?
Hot Zone, Warm Zone, and Cold Zone.
What does a 2 short horn blast signal mean during backing operations?
The spotter is signaling the operator to stop or pause backing.
How much should apparatus cabinets be able to restrain?
10 times the weight of the contents.
What is the recommended method for positioning apparatus for fire attack?
Pre-incident planning and pulling past the building for visibility.
When should pumpers lay their own supply lines?
When access is limited or narrow, to avoid delays.
Why should pumpers park uphill during a fuel spill incident?
To prevent fuel from running toward the apparatus.
What is a collapse zone and how is it calculated?
1.5 times the height of the building.
What is the preferred side of the building for aerial apparatus during collapse risk?
Corner of the building.
When positioning pumpers for high-rise support, where should they park?
As close to the aerial as possible.
What is a dry hydrant?
A non-pressurized pipe with a strainer submerged in water for drafting.
How deep must the strainer be for a dry hydrant?
At least 2 feet under water.
What is dual pumping?
Using one hydrant to supply two pumpers.
What is tandem pumping?
Using two pumpers in series to increase pressure or distance of supply.
When should relay pumping be used?
To increase volume over long distances between source and fire.
Where should wildland engines be parked during a fire attack?
Leeward side of structures with AC set to recirculate.
How far should units stage in Level 1 staging?
1 to 2 blocks away.
What distinguishes Level 2 staging?
It’s used for multiple alarms and managed by a Staging Area Manager.
Where should the side-mounted pump panel face?
Toward the fire scene for visibility and access.
How far must fire apparatus park from railroad tracks?
Maintain a 30-foot clear zone.
What is the function of a breakover angle?
It determines the point where the midpoint of the chassis could contact the ground.
How does excessive rear overhang affect the angle of departure?
Increases the risk of bottoming out when exiting slopes.
Why should firefighters avoid parking on vaulted surfaces?
Due to structural collapse risks from underground voids like basements or culverts.
What is the appropriate response if the operator loses visual contact with a spotter?
Stop immediately, set the parking brake, and exit the cab.
What is the difference between forward lay and reverse lay?
Forward lay runs hose from source to scene; reverse lay goes from scene to source.
What is the main risk when using the exhaust brake system in bad weather?
Loss of traction and control due to reduced braking balance.
What is the total stopping distance composed of?
Braking distance plus reaction distance.
What is the skid recovery technique for a locked wheel skid?
Ease off the brake and straighten the steering wheel.
What type of skid results from excessive throttle?
Acceleration skid.
What are the three basic types of auxiliary braking systems?
Engine compression brake, transmission output retarder, exhaust brake.
What is the required auxiliary braking system for vehicles over 36,000 lbs per NFPA 1901?
At least one auxiliary braking system.
Why should automatic traction control (ATC) be used carefully?
Improper use can reduce traction on slick surfaces by limiting power.
What is the Driver Controlled Differential Lock (DCDL)?
Locks wheels to turn at the same speed for improved traction.
How should the DCDL be used on slopes?
Disengage while turning or descending downhill.
What does the Interaxle Differential Lock do?
Locks tandem axles to improve traction.
What is Roll Stability Control (RSC)?
Reduces engine power or applies brakes to avoid rollover.
What does Electronic Stability Control (ESC) do?
Applies brakes to specific wheels to maintain direction of travel.
What is the visual and audio signal for backing a truck?
Two short horn blasts and visual contact with a spotter.
How fast can hose deploy from a moving truck?
7 feet per second at 5 MPH.
What is the weight of one cubic foot of water?
62.4 pounds.
What is the boiling point of water?
212°F.
How much does a gallon of water weigh?
8.3 pounds.
How much does water expand when converted to steam?
1700 times its original volume.
What extinguishment methods does water provide?
Cooling and smothering (for fuels with specific gravity >1).
What is surface tension and how does it affect firefighting?
It resists water penetration; wetting agents help reduce it.
Why are water curtains ineffective against radiant heat?
Radiant heat passes through water vapor.
What is atmospheric pressure at sea level?
14.7 psi.
How much head pressure does 1 psi create?
2.304 feet.
What is residual pressure?
Pressure remaining in the system after water flows.
What does friction loss vary directly with?
Length of hose and velocity of water flow.
What effect does hose diameter have on friction loss?
Larger diameter decreases friction loss.
How many 1.5” lines are needed to equal the flow of one 3” line?
Four 1.5” lines.
What are the components of a municipal water system?
Primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors.
What is an OS&Y valve used for?
Indicating valve for sprinkler systems.
What is a PIV valve?
Post Indicator Valve that shows open/closed position for water supply.
What happens to friction loss in older hose?
It can be up to 50% greater than in new hose.
What does NPDP stand for?
Net Pump Discharge Pressure.
How is NPDP calculated?
Pump discharge minus intake pressure.
What is the formula for Total Pressure Loss (TPL)?
TPL = Friction Loss + Elevation + Appliance loss.
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 1 3/4” hose?
15.5
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 2.5” hose?
2
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 3” hose?
0.677
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 4” hose?
0.2
What is the coefficient for friction loss in 5” hose?
0.08
What nozzle type produces a solid stream?
Smoothbore nozzle.
How is GPM calculated for smoothbore nozzles?
GPM = 29.7 x d² x √NP
What is the typical nozzle pressure for fog nozzles?
100 psi or 50–75 psi for low-pressure fog nozzles.
What angle range defines a narrow fog stream?
15° to 45°.
What is a cellar nozzle used for?
Distributing water in concealed spaces without shut-off capability.
What is a piercing nozzle designed for?
Penetrating walls or floors to deliver water to concealed fires.
What pressure and flow rate is common for a piercing nozzle?
125 GPM at 100 psi.
What is nozzle reaction?
The backward force generated by water leaving a nozzle.
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a solid stream?
NR = 1.57 x d² x NP
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a fog nozzle?
NR = 0.0505 x Q x √NP
What is a constant flow nozzle?
A nozzle that discharges the same volume of water regardless of stream pattern.
What is an automatic fog nozzle?
A nozzle that adjusts flow rate to maintain constant pressure.
What is considered a handline in terms of GPM?
Less than 350 GPM.
What is the purpose of a master stream?
To deliver large volumes of water in defensive operations or where handlines are ineffective.
When should a master stream be used?
Defensive fire, limited personnel, or when greater reach is needed.
What is the typical psi loss for appliances flowing more than 350 GPM?
10 psi for handline appliances, 25 psi for master stream or elevated waterway.
How is elevation pressure calculated in buildings?
5 psi per floor above the first.
What is the formula for Friction Loss (FL)?
FL = C x Q² x L.
What does each variable in FL = C x Q² x L represent?
C = Coefficient, Q = Flow rate in hundreds of GPM, L = Length of hose in hundreds of feet.
What is the standard nozzle pressure for smoothbore handlines?
50 psi.
What is the standard nozzle pressure for fog handlines?
100 psi.
What is the standard nozzle pressure for smoothbore master streams?
80 psi.
What is a residual pressure reading used for?
Determining how many additional lines can be added to a system.
What is considered a safe residual pressure threshold?
No less than 20 psi.
What are the four categories of residual percentage drop?
0-10% = 3 lines; 11-15% = 2 lines; 16-25% = 1 line; >25% = 0 lines.
What is cavitation?
Formation of air bubbles due to water being discharged faster than intake.
What are signs of cavitation?
Popping noise, pressure fluctuation, gravel sound, no pressure gauge response.
What is the ideal lift height for drafting?
10 feet.
What is the maximum recommended lift height for effective fire streams?
20 feet.
What happens to pump capacity at 20 feet of lift?
Drops to 60% of rated capacity.
What is the purpose of a primer?
To create a vacuum for drafting by evacuating air from the pump.
What is the most common drafting issue?
Air leak on the intake side.
What is a low-level strainer ideal for?
Drafting from portable tanks or pools with low water levels.
How much water should cover a barrel strainer during drafting?
At least 24 inches.
What is the most common blockage point in a drafting operation?
Distal end of the intake strainer.
What is the formula for pump discharge pressure (PDP)?
PDP = Nozzle Pressure + Total Pressure Loss (TPL).
Why must you shut the tank-to-pump valve when switching to external water supply?
To prevent tank over-pressurization.
How much psi is added for elevation when calculating PDP for standpipe operations?
5 psi per floor above the 1st.
What is the maximum standpipe pressure per NFPA?
Do not exceed 185 psi.
Why should you confirm a fire before charging an FDC?
To avoid wasting water on false activations or malfunctions.
What is the preferred position of a pumper when supplying an FDC?
Close to water source with a straight lay to the FDC.
What are the components of a dry standpipe?
A pipe system requiring external water supply before use.
What nozzle pressure is used for standpipe fog lines?
100 psi.
What is a hydraulic water tower?
An aerial with a large capacity elevated stream (up to 300 GPM).
What is the primary difference between aerial ladders and telescoping booms?
Aerial ladders are for climbing, telescoping booms are not.
What is a platform rated to hold without water?
At least 750 lbs.
How much weight can a platform hold when water is flowing?
At least 500 lbs.
What is the flow requirement for aerial apparatus in any position?
At least 1000 GPM.
How long should an aerial <110 ft take to fully deploy and rotate 90°?
150 seconds.
What are the two types of waterway systems on aerial ladders?
Bed-mounted and telescoping.
What is a pinnable waterway?
Allows switching between rescue and elevated stream positions.
What type of bolts are used in aerial ladders and cannot be reused?
Huck bolts.
What angle provides maximum load capacity for aerial ladders?
70° to 80°.
What is torsional stress?
Twisting force on the ladder, often from uneven loading or angle.
What is a gravity circle?
The rotating footprint traced by the aerial during operation.
What is the preferred stabilization method?
Use of jack plates and stabilizers on a level surface.
What is short-jacking?
When one side of the truck cannot fully extend stabilizers due to obstructions.
What are the three common types of stabilizers?
Post, box, and A-frame (scissor).
What is the safe lateral unevenness limit for aerials?
5% (5 feet for every 100 feet).
What should be used when placing stabilizers on ice or soft surfaces?
Jack pads or cribbing.
How can uneven apparatus leveling affect aerial operations?
Shifts the center of gravity and reduces safe working load.
What is a common stabilization failure in cold weather?
Melting snow leaves voids under jack plates, reducing support.
What does NFPA 1901 require for aerial tip radios?
Hands-free radio at the tip/platform.
What type of aerial platform can perform below-grade rescues?
Bronto Skylift or similar articulating platforms.
What causes ‘deadheading’ in hydraulic systems?
Running the hydraulic pump with no fluid flow, causing heat buildup.
What is the effect of high hydraulic oil temperature?
Pump failure or reduced aerial operation efficiency.
What happens if a water curtain nozzle is used improperly?
Can create false sense of safety in high-heat conditions.
What is the maximum allowable ice buildup on aerial ladders per NFPA 1901?
0.14 inches.
What technique helps remove ice from an aerial ladder?
Slowly extend and retract the ladder to ‘shrug’ off ice.
Why should an aerial never be extended or retracted while someone is on it?
Creates pinch points and unsafe conditions.
What is the 75-80-80 rule for aerial ladders?
75° elevation, 80% extension, 80 psi nozzle pressure.
What are dynamic loads in aerial operations?
Loads that involve motion, such as climbing or equipment movement.
What is the preferred direction for ladder operation on grades?
Over the uphill side.
What is the most stable aerial operating position?
Directly over the front or rear of the truck.
What is jackknifing and what is its effect on stability?
Turning the trailer at an angle; 60° is most stable.
How much clearance is required from power lines?
10 feet for standard, 50 feet for high-voltage lines.
How should rescue ladders be placed for aircraft access?
Treat doors like windows and wings like roofs.
What is the best ladder placement for mid-rise rescue?
Outside of the engine for ≤5 floors, inside for >5 floors.
What is the primary use of aerial ladders in aircraft incidents?
Scene lighting and crew access—not typically rescue.
What is the minimum load a platform must support while flowing water?
500 lbs.
Why are floodlights mounted near aerial tips?
To illuminate the work area during nighttime or interior ops.
How should electrical cords be managed on aerials?
Should not exceed 200 feet in length to prevent overheating.
What are four types of hydraulic rescue tools?
Shears, Spreaders, Combination tools, Rams.
What is the maximum practical length for hydraulic tool hose?
100 feet.
What kind of aerial uses a knuckle boom design?
Articulating platform.
What aerial platform design allows for ‘up and over’ movement?
Articulating platform.
How is torque managed during aerial operations?
Avoid lateral loads and operate at high elevation angles.
What are signs of structural collapse?
Bulging walls, falling bricks, sagging roofs, interior collapse.
What is the collapse zone distance?
1.5 times the height of the structure.
Why are building corners preferred for aerial operations?
They are the safest areas in case of collapse.
What is the base rail of an aerial ladder?
The lower support structure running the length of the ladder.
What is ‘K’ bracing in aerial ladders?
Diagonal supports for rigidity between rungs and rails.
What is a turntable?
The rotating platform that supports the aerial device.
What is an interlock system on aerials?
Prevents aerial operation unless stabilizers are deployed.
What safety device is used to prevent hydraulic backflow?
Interlock valves.
What is a tiller apparatus?
A tractor-drawn aerial with a separate rear steering control.
What is the primary function of a water curtain nozzle?
Protect personnel from radiant heat during emergency operations.
What is the function of a selector valve?
Diverts hydraulic fluid to either the ladder or stabilizers.
What aerial component operates at over 3,500 psi?
The hydraulic system including actuators and pump.
Why is huck bolt removal critical?
They are single-use and must be drilled out for replacement.
What is the aerial ladder’s platform height measured to?
The highest handrail at full extension.
What differentiates a telescopic platform from an articulating platform?
Telescopic extends straight; articulating folds like an elbow.
What is the minimum water flow from any platform position?
1000 GPM.
What aerial design offers the greatest reach at low angles?
Telescoping platforms.
Why is grease applied to aerial sections in winter?
Helps shed ice buildup when extending or retracting.
What does NFPA 1901 require for salvage equipment?
Salvage covers and two scoop shovels per truck.
What is the purpose of ventilation with smoke ejectors?
To remove heat and smoke using negative pressure.
What is service testing for trucks?
Annual inspection and testing while the vehicle is in service.
What is a nondestructive test?
Testing aerial metal strength without stressing or damaging components.
What is the first priority when positioning aerial apparatus?
Stabilization, even if the aerial is only raised a few feet.
What is a ‘hot shift’ system in modern aerials?
Allows PTO engagement with the transmission in neutral.
How large are stabilizer pads typically?
24 inches by 24 inches with built-in handles.
What tool can be used to estimate stabilizer clearance?
A short pike pole or arm span.
How should stabilizers be deployed in a 4-jack system?
Parallel side to side or front to back, not one at a time.
What causes repetitive stabilizer damage?
Operating one side repeatedly without alternating load distribution.
What grade level is considered safe for aerial operations?
Up to 5% lateral unevenness.
What should be avoided when placing stabilizers?
Curbs, sidewalks, unpaved, icy, or sandy surfaces.
Why should trucks not be parked over storm drains or manholes?
Potential for explosion or collapse.
How should trucks be parked on bridges during incidents?
Staggered and not clustered to avoid weight concentration.
What emergency vehicle gets parking priority at medical scenes?
EMS/ambulance.
How should aerial apparatus be parked near a structure fire?
To protect operator side and apparatus from heat or collapse.
What are the three types of aircraft incidents involving aerials?
Extrication only, extrication with fire, and non-accident roadway fires.
What are signs of structural instability or collapse?
Cracks, falling bricks, bulging walls, sagging roof.
What are common aerial access challenges?
Narrow driveways, overhead obstructions, dead ends.
How should apparatus be positioned near railroads?
Same side as incident, 25 feet away from tracks.
What is a vault surface and why is it a hazard?
Underground voids like basements that may collapse under apparatus weight.
What should be used when visual contact with the aerial tip is lost?
A spotter to assist with operations.
What happens to stress on the aerial if rungs are not parallel to the ground?
Stress increases and stability decreases.
What is feathering?
Slow and controlled movement of aerial controls.
What is the preferred parking direction for rear-mount aerials?
Backing in, for best operational positioning.
What is the danger of operating a ladder near power lines?
Electrocution risk and equipment damage.
What distance should be maintained near high-voltage lines?
At least 50 feet.
What type of lighting improves civilian response to emergency vehicles?
Sound and light combinations with changing pitch or tone.
Why are headlights used during daytime response?
Improves visibility to civilian drivers.
What is the danger of overthrottling a diesel engine?
Wasted fuel, excessive carbon buildup, and oil dilution.
What should be done before climbing or descending an aerial?
Personnel must be anchored or tethered.
What can affect acceleration and braking on hills?
Differential lock and load distribution.
What should be done before manually operating a regen system?
Ensure the vehicle is parked and not in pump gear.
What is the recommended post-fire overhaul method?
Use of thermal imaging and careful inspection for hidden fire.
What is the function of a PASS device?
To alert rescuers when a firefighter is motionless.
What does positive pressure ventilation accomplish?
Clears smoke and heat by creating airflow out of the structure.
What is the function of a smoke ejector?
Negative pressure fan used to draw smoke out.
What does the term ‘nozzle reaction’ refer to?
The force pushing back on the firefighter from water flow.
How is engine compression braking accomplished?
By converting mechanical energy into heat through compression.
Why is DEF fluid important in diesel engines?
Reduces emissions and prevents engine derating.
What happens if DEF is empty?
Vehicle may enter 5 MPH limp mode and need dealer service.
What do strobe light preemption systems do?
Change traffic signals in favor of emergency vehicles.
What are the two common nozzle types for interior fire attack?
Fog and smoothbore.
What type of nozzle should be used with protein-based foam?
Aspirating nozzle.
What is the primary concern with wheel fires?
Risk of explosion due to heat and pressure buildup.
What is the preferred suppression method for magnesium fires?
Class D extinguisher from a safe distance.
What is the most dangerous gear failure during landing?
One main gear up failure.
What causes the greatest risk in fuel vapor fires?
Unconfined vapor and ignition source proximity.
What are the two primary extinguishing agents for ARFF?
Water/foam and dry chemical agents.
What is used to measure foam concentrate accuracy?
Refractometer or conductivity meter.
What happens when a pump is cavitating?
Water intake is insufficient, creating vapor bubbles and damage.
What is the function of a bypass valve during pump operation?
Allows water to circulate and prevent overheating.
What is the difference between maintenance and repair in apparatus serviceability?
Maintenance is keeping equipment in a state of readiness; repair is restoring something that has become inoperable.
What does NFPA 1002 require driver/operators to be skilled in?
Routine maintenance checks and functions.
What standard outlines qualifications for fire apparatus mechanics?
NFPA 1071.
Who determines maintenance and repair assignments within each department?
The Authority Having Jurisdiction (AHJ).
Why must tire types not be mixed on fire apparatus?
Mixing radial and bias-ply tires can cause unsafe handling and instability.
How often must all fire apparatus tires be replaced according to NFPA 1911?
Every seven years, regardless of condition.
What can cause poor road handling and excessive fuel use in fire apparatus tires?
Incorrect tire pressure.
Why should road salt be rinsed off fire apparatus?
Salt causes corrosion on steel parts and electrical components.
What is load shedding in electrical load management systems?
The automatic shutdown of less important equipment to prevent electrical overload.
What should be done before lifting a tilt cab?
Ensure adequate vertical clearance and secure all loose items.
What is the primary function of slack adjusters?
Connect the brake actuator to the brake drum and maintain proper brake adjustment.
What is the maximum air pressure drop allowed in 1 minute during an air brake leak test on a straight chassis?
3 psi.
What is the air pressure cutout range for fire apparatus compressors?
120 to 130 psi.
What temperature warning must be heeded when checking radiator coolant?
Check coolant levels only when the engine is cool.
What type of fluid check requires the engine to be running and warm?
Transmission fluid.
What is a sign that apparatus batteries may need service?
Regular need for charging or jump-starting.
How often should a driver/operator lift a tilt cab for inspection?
Weekly, even if inspection doors are used.
What is the acceptable pressure loss in a hard intake hose service test over 5 minutes?
No more than 10 inches of mercury.
According to USFA 2010, how many firefighters were killed while responding or returning from incidents?
17 firefighters.
What does NFPA 1002 establish?
Minimum qualifications for apparatus driver/operators.
What training must be completed to meet NFPA 1002?
Firefighter I course or equivalent.
Why is a full water tank safer than a partially filled one?
Provides better braking and stability due to consistent weight distribution.
What is the definition of ‘Due Regard’ in emergency vehicle driving?
A legal obligation to drive with care and caution for public safety.
What is brake fade?
Loss of braking function due to excessive use and heat buildup.
What must be confirmed verbally before apparatus is in motion?
That all personnel are onboard and belted.
How should hose loading be performed while the vehicle is in motion?
With at least one safety observer, driving slowly (max 5 mph), and no riders on the apparatus.
How often should mirrors be adjusted?
At the start of each shift and whenever driving responsibility changes.
What is the definition of angle of approach?
The angle from level ground to the lowest front projection from tire contact point.
What does Roll Stability Control (RSC) do?
Reduces engine power or applies brakes when rollover risk is detected.
What is the purpose of the regeneration inhibit switch?
To prevent DPF regeneration during unsafe conditions like parked on dry grass.
What happens if the DEF tank is empty?
Engine speed is limited to 5 mph and may require dealer service.
What are the four types of auxiliary braking systems?
Exhaust brake, Engine Compression Brake, Transmission Output Retarder, Electromagnetic Retarder.
What are signs of a locked-wheel skid?
Vehicle skids despite steering; wheels are locked from hard braking.
What type of retarder offers the highest braking torque?
Transmission output and electromagnetic retarders.
What must you do before removing an inlet or discharge cap?
Open the drain or bleeder valve to relieve trapped pressure.
What are the responsibilities of tiller operators?
Trailer placement, cornering, public and crew safety, and local regulation familiarity.
What must be done when climbing on top of apparatus without railings?
Maintain three points of contact, use slip-resistant surfaces, and have a second person present.
What should a driver/operator consider when positioning apparatus on a narrow street?
Ensure access for aerial apparatus and allow space for supply hose lays.
What is the primary tactical priority in a rescue situation?
Life safety.
Why should the pumper be pulled past the building during investigation mode?
To allow viewing of three sides of the structure.
What action must a driver take if standard placement isn’t possible?
Notify incoming units of situation and any necessary changes.
What zone must be maintained around a potentially collapsing structure?
1.5 times the height of the building.
Why are corners considered safe for aerial positioning during structural collapse risks?
They are generally more stable and safer if collapse occurs.
What distance should be maintained for potential falling glass from high-rises?
At least 200 feet.
Why should drivers avoid positioning apparatus directly under utility lines?
Fire or weather conditions could bring lines down onto the apparatus.
What is the ‘Inside/Outside’ method of positioning aerial and attack pumpers?
Buildings <5 floors: aerial outside pumper; buildings >5 floors: aerial inside closer to structure.
What is the best position for a pumper supporting an FDC?
As close to both the FDC and a water source as possible.
What should be avoided during drafting operations from natural sources?
Soft or unstable surfaces that may collapse or trap apparatus.
What must personnel working near water edges wear?
Personal flotation devices (PFDs).
What intake hose type should not be connected directly to a hydrant?
Hard intake hose not rated for positive pressure.
What is the recommended pumper placement for large diameter intake hose connections?
A few feet short of being in line with the hydrant, allowing a slight curve.
What is the wildland/urban interface?
Where structures meet undeveloped land, often requiring unique apparatus positioning.
Why should wildland apparatus back into position facing an exit route?
To allow for quick escape if fire conditions change.
What positioning precautions should be taken during wildland firefighting?
Avoid unburned fuels, position off road, close windows, use anchor points.
What is Level I Staging?
Initial staging for multi-company responses; units stop 1–2 blocks away and await orders.
What is Level II Staging?
Used in large incidents with multiple resources, assigned a specific staging area.
What is a ‘Base’ in incident management?
Central location for logistics, personnel coordination, and initial orders.
How should apparatus be used to protect firefighters on highways?
Position to shield from traffic; may block one additional lane for safety.
Why should firefighters avoid stepping beyond the tailboard in highway operations?
To reduce the risk of being struck by vehicles.
What is the best approach direction for hazmat incidents?
From uphill and upwind.
What is the purpose of control zones at hazmat scenes?
To regulate access and protect personnel based on hazard level.
How should hoses be laid across active railroad tracks?
Only if confirmed that rail traffic is stopped; otherwise use overhead or under-rail methods.
Where should apparatus be parked near railroads?
Same side as incident, no closer than 30 feet from tracks.
What positioning considerations exist for EMS incidents?
Ensure ambulance loading access, protect from traffic, avoid exhaust near patients.
What is the recommended intake connection distance for dry hydrants?
15 inches (375 mm).
What is the specific weight of water per cubic foot and per gallon?
62.4 lb/ft³ and 8.3 lb/gal.
What is the expansion ratio of steam at 212°F and at 500°F?
1700:1 at 212°F and approximately 2400:1 at 500°F.
What is water’s primary extinguishment method on Class A fires?
Cooling by heat absorption.
Why is water not suitable for fires involving sodium or combustible metals?
It reacts violently and can cause explosions or spread fire.
What does high surface tension in water affect?
Penetration into dense materials; wetting agents help reduce it.
What is the force exerted by a 1 ft high water column?
0.434 psi.
How much elevation is needed to generate 1 psi of water pressure?
2.304 feet.
What principle explains why pressure is the same in all directions in a confined fluid?
Pascal’s Law (3rd Principle of Fluid Pressure).
What principle states that fluid pressure is independent of vessel shape?
6th Principle of Fluid Pressure.
What is atmospheric pressure at sea level in psi and mmHg?
14.7 psi and 759 mmHg.
What is head pressure and how is it calculated?
The pressure due to elevation; ft ÷ 2.304 = psi.
What is the primary cause of friction loss in fire hose?
Contact of water molecules with hose surfaces and internal friction.
What effect does older hose have on friction loss?
Up to 50% more friction loss than new hose.
How does friction loss relate to hose length?
Directly proportional — doubling the length doubles the loss.
What is the relationship between hose diameter and friction loss?
Inversely proportional to the fifth power of the diameter.
What causes water hammer?
Sudden stop of water flow, creating a pressure surge.
How can water hammer be prevented?
Close valves and nozzles slowly in stages.
What are the three basic rates of water consumption used in system design?
Average Daily, Maximum Daily, and Peak Hourly Consumption.
What type of valve visually shows its open or closed position?
Indicating valve (e.g., PIV, OS&Y).
What is the purpose of backflow prevention in private water systems?
To prevent contamination of municipal water supplies.
What are the three methods of moving water in municipal systems?
Direct pumping, gravity, and combination systems.
What is the advantage of a combination water system?
Redundant pumping and elevated tanks maintain pressure and supply.
What are the three types of water mains in a grid system?
Primary feeders, secondary feeders, and distributors.
What hazard can sedimentation and encrustation cause in water mains?
Reduced effective diameter and increased friction loss.
What is critical velocity?
The point at which water flow becomes turbulent and reduces flow efficiency.
What are the four principles of friction loss?
- Varies with length, 2. Increases with square of velocity, 3. Inversely with diameter⁵, 4. Unaffected by pressure.
What is the purpose of elevated storage tanks in water systems?
Provide emergency storage and maintain pressure during peak demand or failure.
What is a dead-end hydrant?
A hydrant fed from only one direction, prone to low pressure.
Why should hydrants be flushed periodically?
To remove sediment and maintain water quality and flow.
What are the three basic fire streams?
Solid, fog, and broken streams.
How is a solid fire stream created?
Using a smooth bore nozzle with a fixed orifice.
What nozzle pressure is typical for solid stream handlines?
50 psi (350 kPa).
What nozzle pressure is typical for solid stream master stream appliances?
80 psi (560 kPa).
What is the formula for calculating GPM from a solid stream nozzle (customary)?
GPM = 29.7 × d² × √NP
What is the metric formula for solid stream nozzle discharge?
L/min = 0.067 × d² × √NP
How are fog streams formed?
By deflecting water against an obstruction to create finely divided particles.
What nozzle type maintains constant GPM at all stream patterns?
Constant flow fog nozzle.
What is a selectable gallonage nozzle?
A nozzle with adjustable flow settings predetermined before use.
What is a high pressure fog nozzle used for?
Wildland fires, flowing 8–15 GPM at up to 800 psi.
What is the maximum flow rate for handline nozzles?
350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
What is the minimum flow rate for master stream nozzles?
Greater than 350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
What are the three types of master stream appliances?
Fixed, combination, and portable monitors.
What types of master stream appliances are found on aerial devices?
Elevated master streams.
What is the flow rate and pressure of a piercing nozzle?
125 GPM at 100 psi.
What is a chimney nozzle?
A solid brass or steel device producing a fine mist for chimney flues, flowing 1.5–3 GPM.
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a solid stream (customary)?
NR = 1.57 × d² × NP
What is the nozzle reaction formula for a fog stream (customary)?
NR = 0.0505 × Q × √NP
What is the ‘rule of thumb’ for estimating nozzle reaction (solid stream)?
NR ≈ Q / 3
What is the ‘rule of thumb’ for fog stream nozzle reaction?
NR ≈ Q / 2
Why is excessive nozzle reaction dangerous?
It can injure firefighters or hinder hoseline control.
What is the main function of a master stream device?
To apply large volumes of water from a fixed position.
What happens if driver/operator supplies incorrect pressure to a selectable gallonage nozzle?
It will not flow the selected gallonage correctly.
What allows automatic fog nozzles to adapt to variable flow?
A spring-activated device adjusts the baffle opening.
Why are cellar nozzles often used with inline shut-off valves?
For safety and ease of operation.
What types of monitors are considered combination monitors?
Monitors that can be apparatus-mounted or detached for remote use.
What are piercing nozzles used for?
Aircraft fires, car fires, or fires in inaccessible voids.
What are the components of Total Pressure Loss (TPL)?
Friction Loss, Elevation Pressure Loss, and Appliance Loss.
What is the formula for friction loss (customary)?
FL = C × Q² × L
What does each variable in the friction loss formula represent?
C = coefficient, Q = flow rate ÷ 100, L = hose length ÷ 100.
When is appliance pressure loss considered insignificant?
When flow is less than 350 GPM (1,400 L/min).
How much pressure loss is added for each appliance at ≥ 350 GPM?
10 psi (70 kPa).
How much pressure loss is added for master stream appliances?
25 psi (175 kPa).
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss (customary)?
EP = 0.5 × Height (ft).
What is the formula for elevation pressure loss in multistory buildings?
EP = 5 psi × (Stories – 1).
What is the pressure loss in 200 ft of 2½” hose at 200 GPM?
16 psi.
What is the pressure loss in 150 ft of 1¾” hose at 150 GPM?
52.3 psi.
What is the total pressure loss for 200 ft of 1¾” hose at 180 GPM with 10 ft elevation?
105.4 psi.
How is pump discharge pressure (PDP) calculated?
PDP = Nozzle Pressure + Total Pressure Loss (TPL).
What is the formula for Net Pump Discharge Pressure from a pressurized source?
NPDP = PDP – Intake Pressure.
How is PDP set when supplying multiple hoselines?
Based on the line with the highest pressure requirement.
What pressure is added for elevated waterways with master stream appliances?
25 psi.
What nozzle pressures are typical for fog nozzles?
100 psi (standard), 50 or 75 psi (low pressure).
What is the pump pressure loss for aerial piping bends in elevated waterways?
Approximately 25 psi, though varies by manufacturer.
What should a driver/operator do to determine pressure loss specific to apparatus?
Consult manufacturer or conduct field testing.
How is friction loss calculated in wyed hoselines of equal length?
Add FL from one attack line + FL from supply + appliance and elevation losses.
What must be done if wyed or manifold lines have unequal lengths?
Calculate each line’s FL separately; gate down lower-pressure lines.
What are the four types of hose layouts?
Single, Multiple Equal, Wyed, and Siamesed.
What is the advantage of siamesed hoselines?
Reduced friction loss—approximately 25% less than a single line.
How much pressure is added for a Siamese appliance at flows > 350 GPM?
10 psi.
What’s the friction loss for 300 ft of 4-inch hose at 400 GPM?
9.6 psi.
How can drivers avoid overpressuring lower-pressure lines in multi-line setups?
Use gated discharges or valves to reduce pressure.
What PPE should driver/operators wear when operating pump panels?
Full PPE to reduce injury risk during mechanical failures.
Why is wheel chocking recommended even when the parking brake is set?
For added safety in case of brake failure or unintentional movement.
What is the first step after exiting the cab to operate the pump from tank water?
Chock the wheels.
What should be used to cool the pump if no water is flowing?
Tank fill line or circulator valve to prevent overheating.
What is the minimum residual pressure to maintain from a pressurized source?
20 psi (140 kPa).
Why must the bleeder valve on the intake be opened when transitioning to an external source?
To release air and prevent disruption of attack lines.
What is a four-way hydrant valve used for?
Allows uninterrupted supply transition from hydrant pressure to pump pressure.
Why might forward lay be insufficient in long hose stretches?
Available hydrant pressure may be inadequate; second pumper needed.
When is reverse lay typically used?
When the first pumper arrives at the fire and must stay at scene while a second pumper lays hose to a water source.
What is the key function of a transfer valve in a two-stage pump?
To switch between pressure (series) and volume (parallel) modes.
Why should throttle not be increased below 20 psi intake pressure?
Risk of pump cavitation.
How do you estimate additional water available from a hydrant?
Using the Percentage, First-Digit, or Squaring-the-Lines Method.
What causes pump cavitation?
Water discharges faster than it enters the pump, forming air bubbles.
What is the ideal lift height for drafting to retain full pump capacity?
10 feet (3 meters).
What is the minimum water depth required over and around a strainer during drafting?
24 inches (600 mm).
What is a floating strainer used for?
Shallow water drafting; reduces whirlpool and debris risk.
What does high vacuum reading near 22 inches Hg indicate?
Pump is near maximum capacity; risk of cavitation increases.
What are symptoms of cavitation?
Popping sounds, pressure fluctuation, gravel noise, no gauge change with throttle.
What type of water requires flushing the pump system afterward?
Nonpotable water with salt, sediment, or chemicals.
What pressure does atmospheric pressure drop to at 5,000 ft elevation?
Approximately 12.2 psi (85 kPa).
How can you compensate for increased lift during drafting?
Use larger diameter or additional intake hose.
What is the purpose of a jet siphon?
Uses Venturi effect to create water movement for water transfer.
What is the maximum rated lift for NFPA/UL fire pumps?
25 feet, though only 60% capacity remains at 20 feet.
Why is it better to lay 100 ft of supply hose to a better drafting site?
To improve water quality and reduce friction loss.
What causes loss of prime during operation?
Air leaks, suction hose defects, sudden discharge opening, or whirlpools.
What action is recommended when booster tank is empty and tank-to-pump valve does not seal?
Prime cannot be achieved; refill tank or repair valve.
How does salt water affect pump operation?
Causes corrosion; requires fresh water flushing afterward.
How should strainers be supported in sloped terrain?
Use rope, ladders, or metal objects to elevate and stabilize strainer.
What causes suction hose inner liner to collapse?
Vacuum stress during high lift or defective hose.
What is the general pump discharge pressure for sprinkler/standpipe FDCs if unknown?
150 psi (1,050 kPa).
What are the three elements needed to create foam?
Foam concentrate, water, and air.
What is eduction in foam systems?
Using the Venturi effect to mix foam concentrate with water in a nozzle or proportioner.
Why is mixing different foam concentrates during incidents problematic?
It can clog eductors and reduce foam quality due to incompatibility.
What are the two main categories of Class B fuels?
Hydrocarbon fuels and polar solvents.
What foam type is needed for polar solvents?
Alcohol-resistant foam.
What does ‘miscible’ mean in reference to polar solvents?
They mix with water in all proportions.
What are the four methods of foam proportioning?
Induction, injection, batch mixing, and premixing.
What is the primary method of foam discharge in CAFS?
Compressed air injected into foam solution before discharge.
What does the Jet Ratio Controller (JRC) do?
Supplies foam concentrate to a self-educting master stream from distances up to 3,000 feet.
What is the proportioning range for Class A foam?
0.1% to 1.0%.
What are the recommended Class A foam percentages for fire attack with standard fog nozzles?
0.2% to 0.5%.
What is the expansion ratio for medium-expansion foam?
20:1 to 200:1.
What is the formula to calculate application rate for Class B foam?
Application Rate = Nozzle Flow Rate ÷ Fire Area.
What is the foam type that forms an air/vapor excluding film?
Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF).
What is burnback resistance?
The foam’s ability to resist flame re-ignition after initial extinguishment.
What is the main hazard of discharging foam into natural water bodies?
It reduces oxygen levels and can be harmful to aquatic life.
What are durable agents made of?
Water-absorbent polymers used for fire blocking and structure pretreatment.
What is the correct nozzle/eductor back pressure limit for in-line foam eductors?
70% of the inlet pressure.
Why should foam tanks be airtight?
To prevent the formation of surface film on the foam concentrate.
What is batch mixing primarily used for?
Class A and regular AFFF foams when no other system is available.
What are the three main foam application methods for Class B fuels?
Roll-on, bank-down, and rain-down.
How should AR-AFFF be applied to polar solvents?
Gently, to allow membrane formation; use aspirating nozzles for best results.
What is the typical shelf life of properly stored synthetic Class B foam?
20–25 years.
What are compressed air foam systems (CAFS) best known for?
Creating high-quality, clingy foam with long drainage time.
What is the advantage of foam nozzle eductors?
Nozzle and eductor are matched for proper flow and pressure.
What is the biggest drawback of batch mixing?
The entire tank must be emptied before changing foam percentage or type.
What can happen if you exceed the rated GPM of an in-line eductor?
Foam quality may decrease or stop entirely.
What device allows foam and water to be delivered from different outlets at the same time?
Bypass-type balanced pressure proportioners.
What type of foam has the highest expansion ratio?
High-expansion foam (200:1 to 1000:1).
What method uses foam solution sprayed into the air to fall gently onto a fuel surface?
Rain-down method.
What is the primary purpose of aerial fire apparatus?
To place personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions.
What are the three NFPA® 1901 categories of aerial devices?
Aerial ladders, elevating platforms, and water towers.
What structural advantage do truss ladders provide?
They are lighter than solid beams with equal strength due to triangular stress distribution.
What is the typical pressure in hydraulic aerial systems?
May exceed 3,500 psi (24,500 kPa).
What is the function of the selector valve in hydraulic systems?
Directs fluid to stabilizers or aerial device; must be preset during inspection.
What are the types of hydraulic pumps used in aerial systems?
Load sensing piston, rotary vane, and rotary gear positive-displacement pumps.
What function do counterbalance valves serve?
Prevent aerial motion if hydraulic lines fail.
What is a trunnion?
The pivoting end of a piston rod in a hydraulic hoisting cylinder.
How much can modern elevating platforms typically flow?
Up to 2,000 GPM (8,000 L/min).
What are the three types of elevating platforms?
Aerial ladder platforms, telescoping platforms, and articulating platforms.
What is the minimum floor space of an elevating platform per NFPA®?
14 square feet (1.3 m²).
What is the maximum uncharged load capacity of a platform?
750 lbs (375 kg); 500 lbs (250 kg) when charged.
What does the fog curtain nozzle under platforms do?
Creates a protective fog shield and must flow at least 75 GPM (300 L/min).
What are the primary uses of articulating aerial platforms?
Rescue, ventilation, elevated master streams, and access to upper floors.
What is the purpose of a pinnable waterway?
Allows monitor positioning at base or tip depending on operation (rescue or fire suppression).
What does NFPA® 1901 require for communication on aerials?
A two-way system with hands-free capability at the tip/platform.
What does a tiller operator interlock do?
Prevents the vehicle from starting unless the tiller operator is seated or engages override.
What is the purpose of a deadman foot switch?
Ensures intentional activation of aerial movement.
What happens if a waterway monitor isn’t anchored properly before charging?
It can launch from pressure and cause damage or injury.
What is the maximum nozzle movement range for detachable ladder pipes?
15° to either side of center.
What is the flow range of water towers?
1,000 to 5,000 GPM (4,000 to 20,000 L/min).
What are key safety features of hoisting cylinders?
Safety valves that lock oil in place during leaks to prevent collapse.
What kind of lighting is recommended near the tip of the aerial device?
Floodlighting, though not required by NFPA® 1901.
What are the four standard aerial apparatus control levers (right to left)?
Elevation, rotation, extension, and platform controls.
What are the key power generation options on aerials?
Inverters, portable generators, and vehicle-mounted generators.
What NFPA® standard governs breathing air systems if installed?
NFPA® 1989.
What is the danger of exceeding air system pressure in aerial breathing systems?
It can damage moisture filters and cause pressure loss.
What is the most common hydraulic tool power source on aerials?
Hydraulic pump powered by PTO, electric motor, gas engine, or compressed air.
What size ladder is required for fourth or fifth story access?
Pole ladders (≥ 40 ft or 12 m).
What is required testing frequency for aerial apparatus according to NFPA® 1911?
Annually for service tests, every 5 years for nondestructive testing.
What is the most important factor when initially placing an aerial apparatus?
Getting it right the first time due to fixed reach and limited repositioning options.
What building height affects SOP placement of engines and aerials?
5 stories (≈60 ft); aerials outside engines for <5 stories, inside for >5.
What is the ‘collapse zone’?
Area beneath a wall that would be impacted if it collapsed.
Why is a low angle with long extension discouraged?
It increases stress and reduces load capacity of the aerial device.
What term describes loads involving motion, such as wind or vibration?
Dynamic load.
How should aerials be positioned in windy conditions?
Parallel to wind, minimize extension, operate over front or rear.
What clearance should be maintained from power lines energized from 600–50,000 volts?
10 feet (3 m).
What should you do if a vehicle becomes energized by a power line?
Stay in or on the vehicle until it’s de-energized and grounded by professionals.
What is the best practice for jackknifing a tillered aerial?
60° from in-line with aerial extended away for maximum stability.
When should aerial devices avoid supported positioning?
When a structure is weakened or shows collapse signs.
What direction should you approach incidents from when possible?
Uphill and upwind.
What should be done in dead-end access situations?
Back apparatus in to allow a quick escape.
What surface warning sign appears during hot weather?
Shiny/glassy ‘bleeding’ asphalt.
What should never be done with warning lights on highways at night?
Never shut off all warning lights.
What is the minimum clearance from railroad tracks?
25 feet (7.5 m).
What must be confirmed before raising an aerial over railroad tracks?
Train traffic is halted and device is 25 ft above rails.
Where should apparatus be positioned on bridges?
On separate spans or lanes; not all units on same area.
What is the recommended angle of aerial operation for best stability?
Inline with the vehicle’s longitudinal axis (front or rear).
What are key hazards to avoid during structural incidents?
Collapse zones, falling debris, roof signs, parapet walls.
What is the priority for aerial placement during medical incidents?
Shielding personnel and providing ambulance access.
What causes excessive stress on aerial devices?
Low angles, long extensions, sudden movements, heat, wind, torsion.
What should driver/operators avoid at hazmat incidents?
Parking over manholes/storm drains or approaching from downwind/downhill.
Why must aerials avoid blocking aircraft slides?
Slides are primary evacuation paths and deploy automatically from doors or wings.
Where should aerials park at petroleum storage sites?
Outside the dike walls unless a roadway is built atop the dike.
What does OSHA recommend for power line clearance during construction operations?
20 ft for <350 kV lines, 50 ft for >350 kV.
What should you do if someone is trapped in an energized vehicle?
Do NOT touch them—wait for power company; instruct them to stay inside unless fire threatens.
What must be considered when operating aerials near bridges?
Load capacity, wind, movement, superstructures, and safe staggered parking.
Why avoid placing apparatus on vaulted surfaces?
They may collapse due to being above underground voids like basements or culverts.
What does ‘Look Up and Live’ refer to?
Checking for power lines before and during aerial operation.
What is the function of stabilizer pads?
Distribute aerial weight more evenly on ground surfaces to prevent sinking or tilting.
What causes most aerial tip-overs during stabilization?
Operator error and improper jack placement on unfamiliar apparatus.
What does short-jacking mean?
Deploying stabilizers to unequal lengths, often due to space restrictions.
What risk does short-jacking introduce?
Gravity circle may extend beyond base of stability, risking overturning.
What are the three types of stabilizers?
Post-type, box (H-style), and fulcrum-type (A-frame, X-style).
What is the gravity circle?
The lateral shift of the center of gravity when the aerial rotates or extends.
When does the gravity circle become dangerous?
When it extends beyond the base of stability.
What action can broaden the base of stability?
Full extension and deployment of stabilizers.
Why should PTO only be engaged when properly positioned?
To prevent drivetrain or pump system damage.
What must be done before stabilizer deployment?
Activate PTO, chock wheels, and check terrain for stability.
What tool is commonly used to estimate stabilizer travel?
Short pike pole or firefighter’s arm span.
What is a stabilizer shoe?
Flat metal pad at the bottom of the stabilizer to distribute load.
Why avoid placing stabilizers over manholes, curbs, or water covers?
These may collapse or provide unstable footing.
What is cribbing used for?
To supplement stabilizer support on unstable or uneven surfaces.
What slope is acceptable for lateral grade correction?
Up to 5% or approximately 3°.
How should stabilizers be deployed on lateral grade?
Lower uphill side first, then downhill side to level apparatus.
What direction is safest for aerial operation on slopes?
Over the uphill side of the apparatus.
What happens when operating on longitudinal grade?
Ladder rungs no longer remain level, introducing lateral stresses.
Why are icy or snowy conditions dangerous for stabilization?
Melting causes voids under pads; surfaces become slippery.
How can stability be enhanced on icy ground?
Use sand or friction material—never salt, which reduces traction.
How do stabilizer interlocks work?
Prevent aerial operation unless stabilizers are deployed and locked.
What provides mechanical locking of jacks?
Steel pins inserted through post holes below the jack housing.
What must be checked before retracting stabilizers?
Ensure personnel and equipment are clear; remove safety pins.
What is the correct order to retract stabilizers?
Reverse the order they were deployed to avoid chassis stress.
What must be done after raising stabilizers?
Disengage PTO and return stabilizer pads to storage.
How do manual stabilizers differ from hydraulic ones?
They require manual arm extension and screw jack adjustment.
What angle provides maximum stability in tillered aerials?
60° between tractor and trailer with ladder operated outward.
What should be avoided when jackknifing tiller apparatus?
Angles >90° due to poor stability and possible damage.
What should be done after setting tiller angle?
Set all brakes, including trailer axle brake, and deploy stabilizers.
What does Skill Sheet 18-1 cover?
Steps to deploy, lock, and stow hydraulic stabilizers.
What does Skill Sheet 18-2 cover?
Steps to stabilize a tractor-trailer aerial apparatus.
What must a pedestal operator be ready to do during tower ladder operation?
Override unsafe basket movements and warn of danger.
What is the first priority before climbing or descending an aerial ladder?
Ensure the device is in position and stable.
When must personnel be tethered while on aerial devices?
Any time not actively climbing, descending, entering, or exiting.
Where should safety tethers be anchored?
To structural features only, never to cables, wires, or non-structural elements.
Why must ladder belts and tethers meet NFPA® 1983?
To ensure fall protection equipment meets life safety standards.
What is a fall hazard during aerial operation?
Operating with unsecured personnel on a moving device.
What is the danger of extending/retracting aerials with people on them?
Pinch and crush hazards from moving rungs and sections.
What is required before rotating or elevating aerials with personnel aboard?
All personnel must be tethered and communication maintained.
Why is using wire rope near pulleys a hazard?
It creates pinch points and tension-related injury risks.
What should be avoided when giving rotation commands?
Ambiguous terms like ‘left/right’ without clarifying viewpoint.
What is the primary control position on an aerial apparatus?
Lower control station, typically on the turntable.
When can secondary controls be used?
Only with a trained operator present at the primary controls.
What must secondary control operators be aware of?
Tip movement, ladder personnel, water flow, and electrical hazards.
What is the purpose of the load chart?
To determine safe operating limits based on extension, elevation, and conditions.
What are electronic load systems used for?
Monitoring aerial stability, but not replacing operator judgment.
What sequence should be followed when raising a telescoping aerial device?
Elevate, rotate, extend, and then lower to objective.
What is feathering in aerial control?
Slow, smooth movements to avoid dynamic stress or hydraulic spikes.
What does Skill Sheet 19-1 cover?
Raising and lowering a telescoping aerial without a platform.
How does the operation of articulating aerials differ?
Includes concern for knuckle movement and requires additional spatial awareness.
What are pinnable waterways?
Fixed nozzles that can be mounted at the tip or one section lower.
Why is video monitoring helpful on aerial platforms?
It enhances safety by allowing operators to see tip hazards remotely.
What is the 75-80-80 guideline?
75° elevation, 80% extension, 80 psi nozzle pressure for safe ops.
What are key dangers of detachable waterways?
No tip control, exposure risk, and hose/nozzle failure risk.
How does cold weather affect aerial operation?
Increases oil viscosity, forms ice, and adds weight to aerial device.
What is ice shrugging?
Slowly extending/retracting aerial device to remove ice buildup.
What are signs of heat damage to an aerial?
Discoloration, deformed welds, warped metal, improper function.
When must a damaged aerial be removed from service?
Immediately, until EVT repairs and NFPA® 1911 retesting is complete.
What signs indicate aerial mechanical/power failure?
Unusual noise, fluid leaks, gauge abnormalities, or aerial drift.
What action is taken if aerial failure occurs?
Stop operation, remove personnel, bed device, and take unit out of service.
When can below-grade operations be performed?
Only if the manufacturer approves and within rated limits.
What are the four fireground strategies for aerial devices?
Rescue, Ventilation, Elevated Fire Attack, Exposure Protection.
What should be announced before aerial master stream operations?
Interior attack crews must be notified and clear.
What is the safest rescue approach with an aerial device?
Upwind, level grade, no obstructions, with the turntable upwind of the target.
Why should you avoid contacting a building with an aerial ladder during victim boarding?
It can cause twisting and potential failure if the opposite beam bends.
What is the ‘knee-sit method’?
Rescue method where victim sits on firefighter’s knee while descending the aerial ladder.
What angle should the blitz attack stream enter a window?
Approximately 30 degrees upward toward the ceiling.
What is the first priority during rescue operations?
Victims most severely threatened.
What does ‘platform placement’ depend on?
Rescue method: either lifting over rail or entering through access gate.
What is required for rope rescue using aerials?
NFPA® 1983 compliant equipment and personnel trained to NFPA® 1670.
When should a Stokes basket be used with an aerial?
When victims are unconscious or unable to climb down.
Why are aerial devices not ideal for water rescues?
They are not designed for lateral forces and may become unstable or damaged.
How should aerials be used for ventilation?
From the unburned side, with 6 ft of ladder extending past roof edge.
Why should you avoid breaking windows during exposure protection?
May worsen fire spread and increase water damage.
How should fog streams be positioned for cross ventilation?
Slightly above window and to the upwind side.
What is the role of elevated standpipes?
Provide hoselines to upper levels when interior standpipe systems are inoperable.
What stream should be used to avoid pushing fire into unburned areas?
Solid or straight stream aimed from the unburned side.
What is a significant risk of foam use in elevated master streams?
Wind can break up the foam due to its high air content.
How should apparatus be placed for exposure protection?
With a clear escape route and ability to swing stream between fire and exposure.
What happens if rope is anchored to the ground while using an aerial device?
Device bears double the load, increasing collapse risk.
What does Skill Sheet 20-1 cover?
Steps for deploying elevated master stream operations.
What is the main advantage of articulating aerial devices for parapets?
Ability to reach over parapet and set platform directly on roof level.
Why must extension locks be engaged before aerial rescues?
To reduce twisting and increase structural rigidity of the aerial device.
What are indicators for switching to a defensive attack?
Unsafe conditions for handlines, IC decision, or high water needs (e.g., attic fires).
What hazard may result from elevated stream use on structure fires?
Structural collapse due to water weight (2,000 lb per 250 gpm).
How can aerial devices aid in aircraft rescue?
Providing elevated access to aircraft or assisting with ventilation and thermal imaging.
What is the water and AFFF capacity of CFR-80?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 420 gal, Halotron 1: 460 lb
What is the water and AFFF capacity of CFR-81?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 420 gal, PKP: 450 lb
What is the extinguishing agent capacity of CFR-82?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 400 gal, Halotron 1: 460 lb
What is the extinguishing agent capacity of CFR-84?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 400 gal, Halotron 1: 460 lb
What is the extinguishing agent capacity of CFR-86?
Water: 3,000 gal, AFFF: 400 gal, PKP: 500 lb
What are the tank capacities of Engine 88 (E-One)?
Water: 1,000 gal, AFFF: 30 gal
What are the tank capacities of Engine 188 (Sutphen)?
Water: 750 gal, AFFF: 50 gal (20 gal in Tank A, 30 gal in Tank B)
What are the tank capacities of Tower 88?
Water: 270 gal, AFFF: 30 gal
What are the extinguishing agents on Chemical-1?
3% Water/AFFF Mix: 100 gal, PKP: 450 lb
What are the extinguishing agent capacities of S-88?
Water: 230 gal, AFFF: 20 gal
What are the HRET monitor nozzle flow rates?
High Flow: 1000 GPM, Low Flow: 500 GPM
What is the flow rate for HRET piercing tips?
250 GPM / 12 PPS Halotron 1
What is the flow rate of PKP roof turrets?
16 PPS
What is the discharge rate of PKP dual-agent handlines?
5–6 PPS
What is the discharge rate of Halotron 1 handlines?
5–6 PPS
What is the requalification interval for HRET operators?
12 months.
What must be documented in ARFF training records?
Initial and recurrent training, including operator proficiency.
What does proficiency for HRET operators include?
Stationary and pump-and-roll operations.
What is required if only one FLIR camera is installed?
It must monitor piercing operations.
What is the advantage of dual FLIR setups?
Improved tactical evaluation and wider monitoring capability.
How does FLIR help during pre-fire checks?
Identifies normal vs. abnormal heat signatures.
What driving consideration is crucial for HRET-equipped vehicles?
High center of gravity affects turning, stopping, and slope handling.
What stream should be avoided to preserve foam blankets?
Straight stream.
What is the minimum standoff distance when applying agent to aircraft?
Enough to avoid damage from slides, heat, and poor visibility zones.
Why is agent weight a concern during aircraft operations?
8.34 lbs/gal can shift the aircraft’s center of gravity.
Where should HRET piercing be avoided?
Near wing roots, door frames, or floor reinforcements.
What interior materials may trap extinguishing agent?
Gill liners and thermal batting.
What can reduce pooling from HRET piercing?
Use secondary pierce points or target bilge-area drains.
What determines pooling direction from a piercing tip?
Piercing angle—too high hits ceilings; too low hits seats.
What agents can be discharged from tip-mounted nozzles?
Halotron, Halon 1211, and dry chemical.
When are complementary agents most effective?
Engine accessory fires or APUs.
What is the typical ULD spacing in cargo aircraft?
12” in narrow-body, up to 46” in wide-body aircraft.
Why must lesson plans be unique for each ARFF vehicle?
They must include specific hazards, specs, and SOGs.
What do lesson plans require?
Specs, hazards, inspections, capacities, flow rates, and SOGs.
What did FAA testing prove about HRET speed?
Extinguishes pooled fuel fires 53% faster than roof-mounted turrets.
What boom position increases coverage area?
Down-in-front.
What is the flow rate and spray diameter of the HRET penetrating nozzle?
250 GPM and 40 ft spray diameter.
In what order should agents be used to minimize damage?
Halotron/Halon first, AFFF second, dry chem last.
Why create drain holes above rivet lines?
To prevent tail tipping from water accumulation.
What should be installed on ARFF simulators for training?
Cab mockups or desktop joystick simulators (AIP-fundable).
What kind of fires can HRET reach without repositioning?
Underwing and fuselage fires in low-attack mode.
What is the ideal standoff range for piercing all target zones?
15–25 feet.
Why is striking structural aircraft members hazardous?
Can damage nozzles or bend the HRET boom.
What aircraft features should HRET operators be trained on?
ULDs, cargo layouts, fuselage structure, door access.
What should be used during overhaul to check for residual heat?
Thermal imaging.
What camera angle improves interior visibility during piercing?
Tip-mounted, forward-facing camera.
What distance must be maintained from overhead power lines?
At least 10 feet.
What document governs HRET airspace clearance?
FAA AC 150/5300-13.
What is the best piercing zone for passenger aircraft?
10–12” above window line.
What is the best piercing zone for cargo aircraft?
10:00 & 2:00 for main deck; 4:00 & 8:00 for belly deck.
Why should water not be applied near wing roots?
These are reinforced zones and difficult to penetrate.
What are common cargo ULD materials?
Metal, Lexan, vinyl, floor-loaded freight.
How can vinyl and Lexan react in fire?
Burn quickly or fail catastrophically.
What allows night operations or work in poor visibility?
Spotlights and forward-facing cameras.
What contributes to boom stress during discharge?
Locked booms—must allow slight flex to relieve stress.
What should be avoided to protect foam blankets on fuel spills?
Disruption from air, stream, or movement.
What tactic allows piercing nozzle use as entry point?
Removing passenger windows or accessing via door.
What priority order governs ARFF tactics?
Life safety > Property > Environment.
What additional roles can HRET fulfill beyond extinguishment?
Ventilation, interior visibility, thermal monitoring.
Why avoid overhead piercing near floorline supports?
These are structural and can damage the nozzle.
Why is documentation required in all HRET training?
To prove requalification, proficiency, and instructor records.
What structural bays are preferred for piercing?
Fuselage bays between frames, away from reinforcements.
Why should tactics be updated regularly?
To reflect lessons from training and real incidents.
What document defines HRET booms?
NFPA 414.
What is a proper tactic to avoid collateral aircraft damage?
Use Halon agents before switching to foams or dry chem.
What factors determine the ARFF Index per §139.315?
Aircraft length and average daily departures.
What are the length ranges for Index A through E under §139.315?
A: <90 ft, B: 90–126 ft, C: 126–159 ft, D: 159–200 ft, E: ≥200 ft.
What must occur to qualify for an ARFF index level?
At least 5 average daily departures of the longest aircraft in that group.
What index is used if fewer than 5 daily departures occur for a given aircraft length?
The next lower index.
How soon must ARFF vehicles arrive per §139.317?
Within 3 minutes of aircraft movement notification.
How fast must 50% of agents be discharged after arrival?
Within 1 minute.
What is the required vehicle and agent capacity for Index A?
One vehicle with 500 lbs dry chem or 450 lbs Halon 1211 or 100 gal water (foam).
What is required for Index B?
Two vehicles: one with 500 lbs dry chem / 450 lbs Halon 1211 / 100 gal foam; second with 1,500 gal foam.
What is required for Index C?
Three vehicles: one with 500 lbs dry chem / 450 lbs Halon 1211 / 100 gal foam; two with total 3,000 gal foam.
What is required for Index D?
Same as C, but with 4,000 gallons water (foam) total on the two vehicles.
What is required for Index E?
Same as C, but with 6,000 gallons water (foam) total on the two vehicles.
Can combinations of agents be used in ARFF vehicles?
Yes, combinations of dry chem, Halon 1211, and water (foam) are allowed.
What are ARFF vehicle performance expectations?
Must meet manufacturer specs and FAA requirements.
What training is required for ARFF vehicle operators?
System familiarity, inspection, operation, and maintenance training.
How many firefighters must be present during air carrier operations?
At least one trained firefighter.
What training must all ARFF personnel receive?
Initial and annual recurrent ARFF training.
List required ARFF training topics from §139.319.
Airport and aircraft familiarization, safety, comms, PPE, SCBA, hoses, nozzles, aircraft evacuation, fire suppression.
How often must ARFF personnel participate in a live-fire drill?
At least once every 12 months.
How long must training and performance records be maintained?
12 months.
What are the required inspection frequencies for ARFF vehicles?
Daily inspection, operational check each shift, monthly in-depth inspection.
What must be done if equipment discrepancies are found?
They must be corrected before use.
What communication capabilities must ARFF have?
Direct contact with ATC and with airport ops and response vehicles.
What are the requirements for mutual aid agreements?
Must detail responsibility, type of response, training, and annual joint training.
What color smoke is produced from minor hot brakes?
Light blue.
What color smoke and indicators suggest extreme brake overheating?
Moderate to heavy dark smoke and visible flame.
What makes overheated aircraft tires especially dangerous?
They can exceed 200+ psi and are nitrogen-filled.
From where should wheel temperatures be measured?
From the rim, not the brake assembly.
What angle and gear are required when approaching hot brakes?
Approach at 45º angle in full PPE, SCBA, shields down.
How should cooling water be applied to overheated brakes?
Use a fog pattern, continuous flow, not aimed directly at wheel.
Is a booster line appropriate for wheel fire suppression?
No, it is only acceptable for cooling, not suppression.
What is the minimum safe distance from a suspected hot tire?
At least 25 feet (7.6 meters).
When should turrets be used on hot brake fires?
When fire is present, apply large volumes of water from a distance.
What is the minimum handline size allowed for wheel fire suppression?
1½ inch diameter.
What direction should firefighters approach burning aircraft wheels?
From the fore or aft (not from the side).
What is the primary hazard of brake explosion?
Shrapnel from wheel/tire assembly failure.
What pressure can aircraft tires reach under normal conditions?
Over 200 psi with nitrogen fill.
Why are direct streams avoided when cooling hot brakes?
To prevent uneven cooling and risk of explosion.
What must be confirmed before using handlines on wheel fires?
Proper nozzle type and pressure; use of fog pattern.
What foam type is not used for wheel cooling?
AFFF foam is not applied directly to brake assemblies.
What is the proper ARFF PPE for hot brake response?
Full PPE, helmet shield down, SCBA on air.
What method is used to monitor wheel/brake heat levels?
Use non-contact infrared thermometer on the rim.
What structural component poses danger in a wheel explosion?
Landing gear strut and wheel components.
What should be done after cooling hot brakes?
Reassess temperature and visually inspect for fire extension.
What is the function of misting hot brakes?
To lower brake temperature gradually and prevent ignition.
What causes wheel assembly explosion during brake fires?
Rapid heat buildup and confined gas pressure.
What must be avoided when approaching aircraft with suspected brake fires?
Side approach or placing personnel directly in front of wheel/tire.
What minimum training must crews have before engaging hot brake operations?
ARFF basic certification and departmental SOGs for hot brakes.
What distance is recommended for turret attack on wheel fire?
Greater than 100 feet if possible.
What is a ‘Specific Threat with PTI’?
A verbal bomb threat made in person by a suspect, usually reported by air carrier staff.
What are the three identifiers of a Specific Bomb Threat?
Flight number, airline name and departure time, or airline name and location.
What does Signal 55A indicate?
A specific bomb threat with PTI.
What does Signal 55 indicate?
A bomb has exploded.
What is the required ARFF staging distance from an aircraft under bomb threat?
At least 1,200 feet, determined by D-8.
Who are the joint Incident Commanders during a bomb threat response?
Airfield Operations and Orlando Police Department (OPD).
What is ARFF’s primary responsibility during a bomb threat?
Support and rescue operations only.
When is ARFF allowed to approach the aircraft during a bomb threat?
Only under direct instruction from D-8.
What units respond if the aircraft hot spot is on the east side?
Centerfield and Eastfield units respond; Westfield remains in quarters.
What units respond if the aircraft hot spot is on the west side?
Westfield and Centerfield units respond; Eastfield remains in quarters.
Where should Centerfield respond if the hot spot is east?
Taxiway Sierra, just west of Runway 18L-36R.
Where should Eastfield respond if the hot spot is east?
Taxiway Sierra, east of Runway 18L-36R.
Where should Centerfield respond if the hot spot is west?
Taxiway Lima, west of Runway 18R-36L.
Where should Westfield respond if the hot spot is west?
Taxiway Lima, east of Runway 18R-36L.
What is the ARFF stance on approaching the aircraft with a bomb threat?
No approach unless directed by D-8.
What is the ARFF mission during a Specific Bomb Threat?
To assist with rescue and suppression as needed, without taking command.
Who determines the safe staging location for ARFF units?
D-8, the Airport Operations Center.
What must ARFF personnel wear during a bomb threat standby?
Full PPE, staged safely behind apparatus.
What is the typical staging location for Centerfield during a west hot spot?
Near Taxiway Lima, maintaining visual contact but at a safe distance.
What role does OPD play during a bomb threat?
Joint Incident Commander and lead law enforcement agency.
What is a ‘Specific Threat with PTI’ in a building context?
A verbal bomb threat made in person by a suspect, usually at a ticket counter.
What defines a Specific Bomb Threat to a building?
Any threat containing the building name and location.
What does Signal 55A indicate in building threat protocols?
A specific bomb threat with PTI.
What does Signal 55 mean in building threat response?
A bomb has exploded.
How far must ARFF stage from a threatened building?
At least 1,200 feet, as designated by D-8.
Which ARFF units respond to a specific threat to a building?
One engine or tower, one rescue, and District-8.
Who forms Unified Command for building-specific threats?
Airfield Ops or Landside Ops and OPD.
What is ARFF’s primary mission during a building bomb threat?
Support and rescue only.
Can ARFF approach the building without permission?
No, only under D-8 direction.
What is ARFF’s responsibility if a device detonates?
Fire suppression and victim rescue under OPD/D-8 coordination.
What staging location is typically used for Terminal A threats?
North end of South Cell Lot.
What staging location is used for Terminal B threats?
South end of South Cell Lot.
Where should units stage for North Terminal Parking Garage threats?
Top floor of the North Garage.
Where should units stage for South Terminal Parking Garage threats?
Top floor of the South Garage.
Who determines if the building must be evacuated?
OPD and Unified Command, not ARFF alone.
What is the role of D-8 in building threat response?
Command, communications, and staging coordination.
When are additional units requested by ARFF?
Only after initial size-up and if necessary.
What must be worn by ARFF at all times during standby?
Full PPE, helmet face shields down, and SCBA on air if needed.
What determines ARFF’s response level to buildings?
Signal type, location, and instructions from D-8.
What is emphasized in the ARFF SOG for building threats?
Rescue readiness, safety, and strict command compliance.
What is the primary purpose of SOG 200.05?
To establish a standard response guideline for aircraft hangar emergencies at Orlando International Airport.
Who assigns interior quadrants and exterior divisions during a hangar response?
Command.
Where are search and rescue efforts prioritized inside a hangar?
Office areas, due to the highest occupant load.
What is the assignment of the crash apparatus during a hangar response?
Access hangar bays and protect or remove aircraft if possible.
What is the engine crew’s role in a hangar response?
Protect rescue crews and locate/extinguish fire.
When can the sprinkler system be shut down?
Only after ‘fire out’ is confirmed and with Command authorization.
Who must be notified if fuel runoff reaches storm drains or holding ponds?
GOAA Environmental Protection Officer.
What equipment is used to block water flow to canals during a hangar fire?
Earth-moving equipment provided by GOAA Facilities.
Who has ultimate responsibility for fuel removal and environmental protection?
Command.
What areas outside the hangar may require protection from fire spread?
Fuel trucks, storage areas, and adjacent structures.
What is the designated role of ARFF during hangar emergencies?
Rescue, aircraft protection, and initial extinguishment.
What must be coordinated if fire reaches foam or chemical systems?
Shutoff and reactivation plans must be communicated with Command.
What type of foam is typically used for hangar suppression systems?
High-expansion foam.
What is required if aircraft must be moved during fire conditions?
Coordination with Command and aircraft tug personnel.
When is the fire officially considered under control during a hangar incident?
When forward fire progress has stopped and Command confirms containment.
What is S-88’s primary role in a parking garage fire?
Proceed directly to the fire or stage near the entrance if vehicle size prohibits access; assist E-88 crew.
Where should T-88 be positioned during a garage fire?
At a corner advantageous to two sides, ready for rescue, water supply, or master stream use.
What is R-88’s role during a garage fire?
Establish initial RIT in the stairwell nearest the fire or one floor below; pair with mutual aid RIT if assigned.
When should GOAA Maintenance be contacted during a garage fire?
If sprinkler systems are activated or for water removal due to runoff.
Who handles fire investigation if a fire is suspicious?
Orlando Fire Department arson investigator.
What must be done if a vehicle is involved in the garage fire?
Notify owner, request tow truck, and coordinate with OPD if needed.
When should structural engineering be requested?
If concrete spalls or flames affect structural members.
Where does E-88 position during a garage fire?
Locate the fire floor, identify stairwells, and establish water supply via standpipe or S-88 support.
What tactic is recommended for stairwell fire attack?
Use closest stairwell with standpipe; advance hoseline from one floor below the fire.
Who may be assigned to assist with water supply and standpipe support?
S-88, especially if E-88 uses standpipe for suppression.
What must be ensured before ventilating the garage?
Fire is under control and ventilation is approved by Command.
What specific threat exists in enclosed garages during fires?
Toxic smoke buildup due to limited natural ventilation.
What role does mutual aid typically provide?
RIT, suppression support, or structural assessment assistance.
What is the incident command priority for garage fires?
Life safety, fire control, protection of adjacent vehicles and structure.
What is the key ARFF consideration in garage fires near terminals?
Avoid interfering with passenger operations; coordinate egress with Command.
What is the minimum HOT ZONE distance for electrical hazards?
30 feet.
What agents are used for fires involving energized electrical equipment?
Dry chemical, Halotron, CO2, or other non-conductive agents.
When is it acceptable to use water or foam on an electrical fire?
Only after power is confirmed shut off and hazard is no longer energized.
What PPE must be worn during an electrical fire response?
Full bunker gear, including gloves and rubber boots.
Is bunker gear sufficient to protect against electrical shock?
No.
Which units respond to a general electrical fire?
D-8, E-88 or T-88, and appropriate Rescue unit.
Which units may respond to a large-scale electrical fire?
CFR with dry chem, Chemical-1, and mutual aid.
What should a person do if trapped in a vehicle near live wires?
Jump out and hop or shuffle at least 35 feet away.
What agency is notified if firewater runoff is excessive?
GOAA Maintenance.
What items should be kept away from energized equipment?
Ladders and vehicles.
What is ARFF’s priority in an electrical fire response?
Rescue and hazard mitigation only when safe to do so.
What should be used to block traffic near electrical hazards?
Apparatus positioned for protection and traffic control.
What must be done before using handlines on electrical fire?
Power must be confirmed OFF.
How should downed power lines be treated?
As if they are energized until confirmed otherwise.
What is the hazard of runoff water near energized sources?
It may become electrically charged and pose a shock hazard.
What kind of foam is NOT safe for live electrical use?
AFFF foam or water streams.
Who should determine when it is safe to enter an energized area?
GOAA Electric or utility technician.
Can you conduct a search operation while equipment is energized?
No, only after confirmation power is secured.
What is ARFF’s role while power is still energized?
Establish safe zone, monitor hazards, wait for GOAA Electric.
When is salvage and overhaul performed in electrical incidents?
After hazard is confirmed de-energized and under control.
What are the three categories of fuel spills?
Category A: 1–25 gallons, Category B: 26–100 gallons, Category C: over 100 gallons.
Who is responsible for determining the fuel spill category?
The Incident Commander (IC).
When must GOAA Environmental be notified?
For spills larger than Category A or spills entering storm drains.
What is the first ARFF action upon arriving at a fuel spill?
Establish a hot zone and ensure scene safety.
What is a Category A fuel spill?
A spill of 1 to 25 gallons of fuel.
What is a Category B fuel spill?
A spill of 26 to 100 gallons of fuel.
What is a Category C fuel spill?
A spill of more than 100 gallons of fuel.
When can an aircraft be pushed back from a gate after a spill?
Once the spill is mitigated and ARFF confirms it’s safe.
Can an aircraft engine or APU be operating during pushback after a spill?
No, they must remain off until aircraft is repositioned.
What must be done if a spill enters storm drains?
Notify GOAA Environmental and take immediate containment actions.
What zone must ARFF establish around a fuel spill?
A hot zone where only essential personnel are permitted.
What is ARFF’s role at a fuel spill?
Establish command, ensure safety, and assist with mitigation and evacuation if needed.
What must happen to absorbent materials used in spill cleanup?
They must be cleaned up and properly disposed of by the responsible party.
Who is responsible for cleanup after a fuel spill?
The FBO, fueling agency, or airline that caused the spill.
What is done if a fuel spill occurs near people or equipment?
Evacuate non-essential personnel and isolate the area.
What is an anchor point in wildland firefighting?
A point where the fire line meets a noncombustible area like a road or stream.
What is a black line?
An area intentionally burned or plowed to stop fire spread.
What is a backfire and who typically sets it?
A controlled fire set to burn fuel toward the fire; usually Division of Forestry or mutual aid.
What is a plow line?
A barrier created by plowing to control a fire; not always passable by fire apparatus.
What is the minimum number of escape routes required?
Two.
What size is one acre?
208 ft by 208 ft, approximately the size of a football field.
Who coordinates runway closures for brush fires?
Airside Operations and ATCT.
What is the recommended hose diameter for long-distance supply in wildland fires?
3-inch or larger.
What is indirect attack?
Fighting fire by cutting off fuel ahead of it, not directly engaging the flames.
What is direct attack?
Attacking the flame front directly at the edge of the fire.
What must be established for wildland fires on GOAA property?
A command post and staging area.
What agency must be contacted for large brush fires or plow line assistance?
Florida Division of Forestry.
When is it safe to enter a blackened area?
Only after it has cooled and is declared safe by Command.
What is the role of rehab in wildland firefighting?
Ensure personnel rest, rehydrate, and recover during operations.
Who is responsible for arranging mutual aid response for brush fires?
District-8 or Incident Command.
When are ATCT and Airside Ops notified in a brush fire event?
Immediately, especially if near runways or taxiways.
What fuel source creates fast-spreading ground fires?
Dry grass and brush.
What gear must be worn during wildland firefighting?
Full PPE including brush jackets or turnout gear as applicable.
What must be monitored during mop-up operations?
Hot spots, smoldering material, and weather changes.
What must be documented after wildland fire suppression?
Incident details, mutual aid usage, and rehab actions.
What voltage powers the SAPM system?
750 volts (DC).
What is the Ten (10) Foot Envelope?
Area within 10 feet of the elevated guideway—requires authorization to enter.
What is a Blue Light Station (BLS)?
A station where power can be shut off and radio communications can be established via emergency switch.
What tool must be used before entry into SAPM guideways?
Voltmeter (hot stick) to confirm power is off.
What does MRD stand for in the CMSI system?
Manual Release Device – manual door handle for emergency egress.
What unit is responsible for elevated SAPM ladder access?
Tower-88 (T-88).
Who provides standby during controlled evacuations under COOP?
E-88, R-88, and D-8; T-88 stages at Gate E-30.
What must always be confirmed before entering SAPM trackway?
Power has been shut off and confirmed de-energized.
How many passengers can each SAPM car hold?
210 passengers (105 seated, 105 standing).
How are APM cars identified?
By alpha/numeric ID numbers and colored stripes.
What are the two APM systems at MCO?
APM (North Terminal) and SAPM (South Terminal).
Who is responsible for cutting power during SAPM emergencies?
MCO Control Room personnel using BLS or main breakers.
What are the key hazards of SAPM guideways?
High voltage, height, limited egress, moving vehicles.
Where are ladders stored for SAPM evacuation?
Inside SAPM stations and onboard T-88.
Who assumes command during any SAPM emergency?
District-8 or the first arriving officer until relieved.
What is a ‘controlled evacuation’ of SAPM?
One initiated by CMSI/MCO where cars stop at a station and power is off.
What is an ‘uncontrolled evacuation’ of SAPM?
Firefighters must access, assess, shut down power, and evacuate passengers from track.
How is communication maintained with SAPM passengers?
Via intercom system or through opened car doors.
What must be done after emergency SAPM evacuation?
Document incident, notify GOAA, coordinate reset with CMSI.
What is the procedure if no emergency exists, but a door is stuck?
Use MRD or coordinate with CMSI for access; no hot zone entry needed.
What is required to operate in the SAPM Hot Zone?
Power shutoff confirmed with voltmeter and permission from Command.
What must be worn by ARFF in SAPM operations?
Full PPE including helmet, gloves, and high visibility vest.
What is the staging location for T-88 during SAPM response?
Gate E-30 or other designated area based on Command instructions.
What is a ‘walkboard’ in SAPM context?
A narrow walkway along guideways for rescue/inspection access.
Who coordinates reactivation of SAPM after an incident?
CMSI, in conjunction with Command and GOAA Operations.
When must vehicle checks be completed?
Between 0700 and 0800 unless call volume or special details interfere.
Who is exempt from mandatory backup spotter procedures?
Administrative staff vehicles and District-8 (D-8).
What should be done before moving any vehicle?
Confirm all compartment and bay doors are closed or opened properly.
What is the policy when operating vehicles near bay doors?
Open doors fully before movement; back in only with spotters.
When must emergency lights be used?
When entering or exiting the station and during all emergency responses.
What must always be followed when driving on the airfield?
All speed and traffic regulations.
Who always has the right of way on the airfield?
Aircraft.
What light setting is required when in front of aircraft at night?
Headlights off; use parking lights only.
What should be done if an unrelated emergency is encountered during response?
Stop and handle the incident; notify GOAA 911 to send a replacement unit.
What must be worn at all times during vehicle operations on the airfield?
High-visibility vest or safety gear.
What must be done if a department vehicle is damaged?
Notify the officer immediately and complete a written report.
What happens after vehicle damage is reported?
The vehicle is taken out of service and inspected by a mechanic and safety officer.
What is the backing policy for large apparatus?
A spotter must be used at all times unless exempted.
Where should spotters stand during backing?
Driver-side rear corner, visible in side mirror.
What is required before leaving the scene of an accident with a department vehicle?
Scene documentation and GOAA PD report if applicable.
When should the bay be checked for obstructions?
Before moving vehicles in or out of the bay.
Who should be contacted if a bay door malfunctions?
GOAA Maintenance.
What is the safe distance to stop behind another vehicle or aircraft?
Maintain enough clearance to prevent collision if stopped suddenly.
Can you leave a vehicle idling in gear?
No, place it in park and set the brake before exiting.
When must backup alarms and warning devices be operational?
At all times—report any malfunction immediately.
What pressure is used to test 1¾” and 3” hose?
300 psi for 3 minutes.
What pressure is used to test 4” and 5” hose?
200 psi for 3 minutes.
How many feet of hose can be tested per discharge at one time?
300 feet.
What must be done before applying pressure to test hose?
Lay hose straight and bleed all air from inside.
What does the hose number ‘19-10’ indicate?
Hose was placed in service in 2019 and is the 10th section.
What should be marked on couplings before testing?
Coupling shanks should be marked to detect slippage.
What should be done with hose that fails testing?
Roll in reverse (male out), label OOS, and report failure.
What should be recorded in the RMS after hose testing?
Pass/fail status, hose number, and date of testing.
Who is responsible for ensuring all assigned hose is tested?
The company officer.
How should hose be labeled after being placed in service?
With the year and section number (e.g., 23-01).
Where is the hose testing record maintained?
In the RMS (Records Management System).
How is a failing hose section visually identified after rolling?
Rolled with the male coupling exposed (male out).
What documentation is required for a failed hose section?
Out-of-service form submitted and section removed from inventory.
What condition must the hose be in during testing?
Dry, clean, straight, and on a flat surface.
What equipment is used to measure test pressure?
Calibrated pressure gauge at the far end of the hose line.
What is the maximum time hose should remain pressurized during the test?
3 minutes.
What is the purpose of coupling marking?
To detect any movement or slippage during the pressure test.
What is done if coupling slippage is noted?
The hose is removed from service and reported as failed.
When should new hose be tested?
Before being placed in service.
What safety precaution must be taken during testing?
No personnel should stand over pressurized hose during the test.
Where is E-88 stationed?
Centerfield.
Who responds first to structural fires and MVAs from Centerfield?
E-88 and R-88 or S-88 (first due), T-88 (second due).
Who responds to odor investigations at AS-1 and AS-3?
CFR-82 (first due), CFR-86 (second due).
Who responds to fuel spills at AS-2 and AS-4?
CFR-80 and CFR-86 (first due), CFR-82 (second due).
Who responds to the South ITF and SAPM during a COOP evacuation?
E-88, R-88, and D-8 (first due); T-88 stages near Gate E-30.
What is the function of S-88?
Low-profile ALS truck capable of pumping water and foam.
What unit staffs the Special Service Vehicle (SSV) during Alert 2?
S-88 (unless unavailable—then R-88 cross-staffs).
What units lead Alert 2 response for Runway 36L/18R?
CFR-82 leads; CFR-86 and T-88 respond; T-88 leads if 82 is out.
What units lead Alert 2 response for Runway 35L/17R?
Same as 36L/18R — CFR-82 leads unless committed.
What unit responds first due to trash can fires or small exterior fires?
Closest available engine or rescue unit.
Which unit stages on Runway 9R/27L for Alert 2 if CFR-82 is unavailable?
T-88 leads the response.
What unit is responsible for Runway 9L/27R east side incidents?
CFR-80 and CFR-86.
What unit is responsible for the west side of Runway 9L/27R?
CFR-82.
Who responds to AS-1 baggage belt motor fires?
CFR-82 (first due), CFR-86 (second due).
What is the first due rescue for Centerfield operations?
R-88 or S-88.
What unit is typically second due to North Terminal Gate Alerts?
T-88.
What is D-8’s primary role during large incidents?
Incident Commander or Support as needed.
What units cover emergencies in the Southfield SAPM tunnel?
E-88, R-88, D-8 (interior), T-88 stages at E-30.
Who responds to fire alarms at AS-2?
CFR-86 (first due), CFR-80 (second due).
Who responds to AS-4 fire alarms?
CFR-86 and CFR-82.
Who leads Alert 2s at Runway 17L/35R?
CFR-80 (lead), with support from CFR-86 and CFR-82.
What’s the main responsibility of CFR units during Alert 2?
Lead rapid access to aircraft, establish rescue and suppression readiness.
When is R-88 used for suppression support?
When cross-staffing with T-88 or when needed on scene as assigned by D-8.
Which unit provides dual-agent capability at low profile for SAPM?
S-88.
What happens if a primary alert unit is OOS?
Next closest ARFF or structural unit assumes lead per matrix.
What is a Ramp Safety Survey?
A slow, methodical visual inspection from a vehicle looking for violations and safety issues.
How many Ramp Safety Surveys are required per day?
At least two (2) surveys at designated ramp areas.
What is the speed limit on ramps during patrol?
20 MPH on ramps, 5 MPH around aircraft.
What NFPA code governs egress obstruction violations?
NFPA 101: 7.1.10.1 – egress must be free of obstruction.
Who must be notified for fuel equipment violations?
Fuel agency supervisor, Ops-2, and Fuel Safety Coordinator (804).
What is considered a FOD hazard?
Loose objects such as tools, garbage, cones, or luggage straps on the ramp.
What must be done with a vehicle parked on a marked safety egress path?
Document and report as a safety violation.
What action is required for damaged fuel hoses observed during survey?
Document, notify the fuel agency supervisor, and remove from service.
Where are completed surveys documented?
In the GOAA Ramp Safety Survey Log with all relevant details.
What is the safe zone distance around aircraft?
5 MPH speed limit and maintain clear distance to avoid jet blast and damage.
What agency’s safety codes must be followed during ramp inspection?
GOAA, FAA, and NFPA codes.
What should be done if a cone is found under an aircraft?
Document, remove the FOD, and notify Operations.
What type of equipment must have a fire extinguisher visible and accessible?
All fueling equipment and trucks on the ramp.
How must fire extinguishers on fuel trucks be mounted?
Securely, visibly, and not blocked or hidden.
What information must be included in a survey report?
Date, time, airside, unit, personnel, observations, and GOAA sticker number.
Who conducts the Ramp Safety Survey?
The assigned ARFF unit or personnel based on rotation or duty.
What is the procedure if damaged cones or equipment are found?
Tag for replacement and document in report.
Who must be notified of recurring violations by the same vehicle or company?
Fuel Safety Coordinator and Airside Ops Supervisor.
What is the required frequency for completing all assigned areas?
Twice per shift—once during daylight and once at night if possible.
What must be done if vehicle ramps are leaking fluids?
Mark as out-of-service and notify fuel or vehicle supervisor.
How should fueling operations be checked?
Visually inspect hoses, fittings, extinguishers, and spill kits.
What is the minimum safety requirement for cone placement near aircraft?
Proper distance maintained; cones must be upright and undamaged.
What is the procedure if a non-operational fuel truck is observed?
Document, notify fuel supervisor, and ensure it is removed or repaired.
What must be checked regarding egress routes during survey?
They must be unobstructed, clear of vehicles or debris, and signed properly.
What is the Ramp Safety Survey’s ultimate goal?
Ensure safety, regulatory compliance, and prevent airfield incidents.
Who manages the Relief Driver program at OIAFR?
The Training Division.
What is the minimum passing score for Relief Driver written and practical exams?
70% for each vehicle type.
Who assists with test development for the Relief Driver program?
Engineers assigned to the apparatus.
What must be completed before starting the Relief Driver Task Book?
Firefighter probationary period.
What does the letter ‘E’ on the Relief Driver List indicate?
Qualified for Structural Engine (E-88 or similar).
What does the letter ‘C’ indicate on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for OSHKOSH T-3000 (CFR unit).
What does the letter ‘F’ represent on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for FT-4 (CFR vehicle).
What does ‘FT’ stand for on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for Striker with High Reach Extendable Turret (HRET).
What does ‘R’ indicate on the Relief Driver List?
Qualified for Rescue unit (R-88 or similar).
What are the three categories of vehicles used in the Relief Driver certification?
Structural Engines, CFR Units, CFR HRET Units.
What must Relief Drivers complete for each vehicle type?
Written test, practical exam, Task Book, and OJT sign-offs.
How long must a Relief Driver perform supervised driving before independent ops?
Minimum 5 shifts of documented OJT with Engineer sign-off.
Where are Relief Driver certifications documented?
In the driver’s official personnel training file.
Who can approve independent operation of a vehicle after training?
District-8 or designated officer based on completion of requirements.
What is the purpose of the Relief Driver Task Book?
To ensure competency in operation, systems, and tactics of each assigned vehicle.
What unit is designated ‘S-88’ in the Relief Driver program?
Low profile ALS support vehicle with suppression capability.
What is the purpose of having classifications (E, C, F, R, FT) on the list?
To easily identify which vehicles a Relief Driver is qualified to operate.
What is the standard for maintaining Relief Driver status?
Meet annual refresher requirements and maintain certifications.
What is the prerequisite for starting OJT in the Relief Driver program?
Completion of written exam and Task Book for that apparatus type.
What happens if a Relief Driver fails their written or practical exam?
They must retest after additional training and approval by the Training Division.
What does ASHER stand for?
Active Shooter/Hostile Event Response.
What is the purpose of the ASHER and Civil Unrest Policy?
To guide fire department response during civil unrest or violent activity.
What are the three operational zones in an ASHER incident?
Hot Zone, Warm Zone, and Cold Zone.
What is a Casualty Collection Point?
An area where SAVE Teams bring patients for transport, typically guarded by law enforcement.
What is the M.A.R.C.H. acronym used for?
Major Hemorrhage, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Head & Hypothermia.
What defines a Civil Disturbance?
A breach of peace by a significant number of people or unruly mob gathering.
What is a SAVE Team composed of?
Minimum 3 Fire Rescue and 4 Law Enforcement officers.
What is the role of the Medical Team Leader (MTL)?
Lead Fire Rescue member of a SAVE Team, prioritizes treatment and coordinates with RTL.
What is the purpose of the Forward Control Point (FCP)?
Control access, maintain accountability, and enhance situational awareness.
What does THREAT stand for?
Threat Suppression, Hemorrhage Control, Rapid Extrication, Assessment, Transport.
What PPE is required in ASHER operations?
Ballistic vest, helmet, gloves, and eye protection.
What is Direct Threat Care (DTC)?
Medical care in the Hot Zone focused on massive hemorrhage control.
What is Indirect Threat Care (ITC)?
Medical care in the Warm Zone under relative safety.
What must be done when encountering a demonstration?
Notify ECC, avoid the area, and coordinate with law enforcement.
What is the protocol for civil unrest response?
Establish Unified Command, monitor situation, and adjust deployments.
What is the minimum response to a PVS?
Command Officer, Suppression Unit, and Rescue/Medic Unit.
What must be done when staging for a PVS?
Select location out of sight, provide escape route, and turn off emergency lights.
What is the role of Incident Command at a hostile event?
Establish command, coordinate Unified Command, define zones, and develop IAP.
What actions must Rescue Task Forces avoid?
Entering the Hot Zone or delaying patient extraction.
What must be done every 5 minutes during PVS response?
Conduct a Personnel Accountability Report until advised to stop.
What is the primary purpose of a RIT team?
Immediate rescue of a trapped or endangered firefighter and to provide emergency egress.
What is the minimum personnel required for an initial RIT team?
3 members, including one officer.
What is the ideal RIT team size as resources become available?
5 to 6 members.
What are the three benchmarks for firefighter rescue by RIT?
Locate, place on air, remove from hazard/building.
What happens automatically upon RIT deployment due to a Mayday?
A second alarm is requested.
Who is the RIT Group Supervisor?
The officer assigned to manage multiple RIT teams under the command structure.
What should RIT officers confirm upon arrival at the scene?
Location of Command, other RITs, strategy/tactics, and availability of secondary egress.
What is included in a basic RIT bag?
SCBA, 100’ rope, webbing, lights, wire cutters, and quick-fill hose.
Where should RIT be positioned on a fireground?
Close to the entry point or near the most threatened crews, with clear egress.
When should RIT pre-deployment checks be completed?
Immediately upon assignment to RIT duty.
What must be done before entering a structure for RIT operations?
Conduct a 360°, assess hazards, confirm interior crew location if possible.
What are common tools carried by RIT?
TIC, irons, rope, wire cutters, RIT bag, saws, lights, ladders.
What does the acronym LUNAR stand for in a Mayday?
Location, Unit, Name, Assignment, Resources needed.
What command protocol is used to transition during a Mayday?
Switch to a dedicated RIT channel, assign RIT Group Supervisor, establish rescue plan.
What key info should be gathered prior to RIT deployment?
Last known location, air status, assignment, time since entry, radio traffic history.
What is the RIT Officer responsible for during a rescue?
Direction of the team, communication with Command, and task assignment.
What is the minimum equipment required for a RIT team?
RIT pack, hand tools, lights, rope, TIC, and radios.
What role can additional RITs serve during extended operations?
Support, relief, egress preparation, and equipment shuttling.
How should RIT prepare entry points?
Force doors, place ladders, mark secondary egress routes, confirm access.
Who coordinates with the RIT Group Supervisor during a rescue?
Incident Command and Operations Section Chief.
When should ladders be thrown by RIT?
Proactively to upper floors or as needed for firefighter egress.
What PPE is required for RIT team members?
Full turnout gear with SCBA and PASS devices operational.
What tactic should RIT avoid during rescue?
Freelancing or entering structure without known location of firefighter.
How often should RIT status and readiness be confirmed?
Routinely by Command, minimum every 15 minutes.
What post-incident responsibility does RIT have?
Assist in debrief, equipment rehab, and after-action review.
What is the purpose of SOG 1008.00?
To reduce firefighter exposure to cancer-causing agents through PPE and equipment decontamination.
What are the two levels of decontamination?
Primary (on-scene) and Secondary (at the fire station).
When must firefighters remain on SCBA air?
During removal of grossly contaminated PPE at the fire scene.
What must be done with uniforms worn during a fire incident?
Do not store them in personal lockers; wash before reuse.
What items should not be brought into sleeping or living areas post-fire?
Contaminated gear or uniforms.
What PPE should be worn when performing gear or apparatus cleaning?
Department-approved decontamination gloves.
How should helmets be cleaned?
Damp cloth and mild detergent; remove and clean liners and ear flaps separately.
What is primary decontamination?
Initial cleaning of gear and equipment on-scene using soap, water, and brushes.
What is secondary decontamination?
Detailed cleaning of PPE and tools back at the station.
What should be done with SCBA masks post-incident?
Clean with approved disinfectant and rinse thoroughly.
How should turnout gear be transported for cleaning?
In sealed bags or designated containers to avoid cross-contamination.
What is the role of the Company Officer in gear decon?
Ensure all primary decon is completed and document gross decon actions.
What is the responsibility of the Engineer during decon?
Rinse and clean tools, hose, and vehicle exterior surfaces.
What is the firefighter’s role in decontamination?
Clean own gear, perform primary decon, and follow PPE removal protocols.
What substance should be used to clean contaminated gear?
Mild detergent and water (not bleach or harsh solvents).
How should gloves be cleaned?
Washed separately from other PPE using warm water and mild detergent.
What is prohibited inside the cab of a fire apparatus?
Contaminated turnout gear or unbagged equipment post-fire.
What should be used to document completed gear decon?
Department’s RMS or assigned tracking system.
What surfaces inside the apparatus should be cleaned?
Seats, seat belts, SCBA holders, and commonly touched areas.
What action should be taken for gear exposed to known carcinogens?
Send for advanced cleaning and notify Command.
What must be done with gear that was not grossly contaminated?
Still undergo primary and secondary cleaning protocols.
How often should gear decon policies be reviewed?
At least annually or after major exposure events.
When should turnout gear be dried?
After cleaning, hang in a well-ventilated area; do not use direct sunlight or high heat.
Who should be notified if gear damage is found during cleaning?
Company Officer and Logistics or PPE coordinator.
What should be done with tools exposed to contaminants?
Clean with water and approved decon agents; inspect for damage.
What are the three types of offenses under GOAA 204.02?
Minor, Major, and Dismissal offenses.
What is the form used to acknowledge receipt of policy 204.02?
Form 204.02.1 – Employee Acknowledgment.
What disciplinary step is typically first for a minor offense?
Written Admonition to Written Reprimand.
What happens after a third minor offense?
Suspension or Notice of Dismissal.
What form is used to document disciplinary action?
Form 204.02.2 – Notice of Disciplinary Action.
Who must approve dismissals, suspensions, or demotions?
Senior Director of Human Resources or designee.
Can an employee appeal a dismissal?
Yes, through a Post Termination Review request within 5 business days.
What disciplinary action can result from a major offense?
Suspension, demotion, or dismissal.
What is required for due process before dismissal?
Investigation, documentation, opportunity for the employee to respond.
How should violations be documented?
Clearly, with facts, forms, and supporting documentation.
What does a ‘Notice of Disciplinary Action’ include?
Details of misconduct, prior offenses, disciplinary decision, appeal rights.
Can an employee be represented during disciplinary meetings?
Yes, representation is permitted during formal proceedings.
What is a supervisor’s responsibility under 204.02?
Timely documentation and reporting of observed or alleged misconduct.
What does progressive discipline mean?
Applying increasingly serious consequences for repeated or severe misconduct.
How long do disciplinary actions remain in an employee’s file?
As determined by Human Resources policies and legal standards.
What can trigger an investigation under 204.02?
Employee complaint, witness report, or observed violation.
What is the goal of the misconduct policy?
To ensure fair, consistent, and corrective disciplinary practices.
When must disciplinary action be reported to HR?
Immediately following an infraction or investigation.
What may be used as supporting documents in an investigation?
Witness statements, time records, surveillance, or written reports.
Is counseling considered disciplinary action?
No, it’s corrective and not part of formal disciplinary records.
What are examples of dismissal-level offenses?
Workplace violence, theft, serious safety violations, falsification of records.
What is the minimum documentation required for suspension?
Form 204.02.2, offense details, prior history, and HR approval.
How soon must a post-termination review be filed?
Within 5 business days of dismissal.
What is the employee’s right after a reprimand?
They may respond in writing to be attached to the personnel file.
What are examples of minor offenses?
Tardiness, unprofessional behavior, or dress code violations.
What is considered ‘Violence in the Workplace’ under GOAA 204.05?
Use of, or threat to use, force, abuse, or intimidation to harm a person or property.
What is an Emergency Situation under GOAA 204.05?
Injury has occurred or there’s an immediate threat of physical harm, including use of a weapon.
What is a Threatening Situation under GOAA 204.05?
Intimidating words or gestures that induce fear but no immediate danger is present.
What should an employee do during an Emergency Situation?
Call 911 and report to management and HR as soon as safely possible.
What is the appropriate response in a Threatening Situation?
Remove oneself from danger and report the incident to management or HR.
What qualifies as a ‘Weapon’ under this policy?
Any object that poses a reasonable risk of injury when used or threatened to be used.
What behavior is prohibited under GOAA’s Violence in the Workplace policy?
Abuse, threats, intimidation, property damage, stalking, revenge threats, and more.
Who is responsible for enforcing this policy?
Supervisors, managers, and Human Resources.
What is the role of Human Resources in violent workplace incidents?
Investigate incidents, administer discipline, and maintain safety procedures.
Can violence include verbal abuse?
Yes, verbal abuse is considered a form of workplace violence.
What are employees encouraged to report?
All incidents of threats, intimidation, or violence, regardless of severity.
What disciplinary actions can result from policy violations?
Verbal warning, suspension, demotion, or termination.
Is retaliation permitted against those who report violence?
No, retaliation is strictly prohibited and itself a policy violation.
What may be issued if a threat is credible?
Temporary removal from work and investigation by HR or law enforcement.
What is a key goal of the violence prevention policy?
Promote a safe, respectful, and productive workplace environment.
Are personal protective orders honored under this policy?
Yes, employees should notify HR and provide documentation for safety planning.
What must supervisors do if notified of workplace violence?
Take immediate action to ensure safety and report to HR.
Who should be contacted if an employee is concerned for their safety?
Immediate supervisor or Human Resources.
Is GOAA responsible for protecting employees from off-duty threats?
Yes, when those threats extend into the workplace environment.
Can anonymous reports be submitted?
Yes, but more complete reports assist in effective response and resolution.
What kind of training may be provided under this policy?
De-escalation, threat recognition, and emergency response procedures.
What must all employees do upon witnessing violent behavior?
Report it immediately to management or HR, even if not directly involved.
Does this policy apply to contractors and visitors?
Yes, all persons on GOAA premises are subject to this policy.
What if a threatening individual is a co-worker?
Report to supervisor or HR immediately—confidentiality will be maintained.
What is the main objective of GOAA 204.05?
Prevent and respond to violence in order to ensure a safe workplace for all.
What are the three types of employee movement under GOAA Policy 206.01?
Promotion, Demotion, and Lateral Transfer.
What is a ‘Currently Market Sensitive’ classification?
A classification with limited market availability and specialized skills requiring pay adjustments to stay competitive.
What is the typical salary increase for a promotion?
At least 6%, unless constrained by pay range or internal equity.
What is the probationary pay structure for ARFF firefighters?
Begins at probationary rate and moves to Step 1 after probation.
What annual incentive is given to ARFF Paramedics?
$9,022 annually.
What annual incentive is given to ARFF EMTs?
$4,106 annually.
When does longevity pay begin under this policy?
After 10 years of continuous service.
What is the longevity pay amount for 10–14 years of service?
$825 annually.
What is the longevity pay amount for 15–19 years of service?
$1,650 annually.
What is the longevity pay amount for 20+ years of service?
$2,475 annually.
How is longevity pay issued?
Annually in a lump sum.
What happens when an employee is demoted?
Their pay is reduced, but not below the minimum of the lower pay grade.
What is the effect of a lateral transfer on pay?
No pay adjustment is typically made.
What is the process for pay range adjustments?
Reviewed periodically by HR and adjusted for market competitiveness.
What defines a ‘Step Adjustment’?
A movement within the same pay range due to exceptional performance or market conditions.
Who approves step adjustments and promotions?
Department Directors with review by Human Resources.
Can a pay increase exceed the range maximum?
Only with CEO or designee approval under exceptional conditions.
What is the effect of FLSA status under this policy?
It determines overtime eligibility and exempt/non-exempt classification.
What classification does not receive longevity pay?
Temporary, seasonal, and part-time employees.
When is promotional pay increase effective?
On the date of promotion.
When may pay be red-circled?
When current pay exceeds the new range maximum but employee remains in position.
What must occur when a demotion is involuntary?
A written explanation and HR approval are required.
What document governs eligibility for pay increases?
The Wage and Pay Plan outlined in GOAA Policy 206.01.
Can employees receive both incentive and longevity pay?
Yes, if they meet the criteria for each separately.
What is the policy’s overarching goal?
To ensure competitive, fair, and consistent compensation practices.
What are the three promotional ranks under GOAA Policy 206.02?
Engineer, Lieutenant, District Chief.
What is required to test for Engineer?
3 years ARFF FF, 80-hour Pump Ops course, and relief driver qualified.
What is required to test for Lieutenant?
FF/Engineer certification, Florida Fire Officer I, and Relief Officer qualified per SOG 900.13.
What is required to test for District Chief?
Minimum 2 years as OIAFR Lieutenant, Fire Officer II certification.
How often are promotional exams typically held?
Engineer/Lieutenant: every 2 years; DC: as needed.
What is the minimum passing score for promotional written or practical exams?
0.7
What happens if a candidate fails any portion of the process?
They are removed from eligibility for that cycle.
How long is the promotional eligibility list valid?
Up to 2 years from the final score date or until next exam cycle.
What is the process for breaking tie scores?
Overall score, then highest written score, then most seniority.
What is required to qualify as a Relief Driver?
Completion of written, practical, OJT, and sign-off per SOG 900.11.
What documents are required to apply for promotion?
Application form, certs, and documentation as requested by HR/Training.
Who conducts the written exam?
Training Division in coordination with Human Resources.
What must candidates do prior to testing?
Meet all eligibility criteria and submit application before deadline.
How many points may be awarded for State certifications?
Points vary—Engineer/Lieutenant: up to 10 points; DC: up to 20.
Are certification points counted without proof?
No, all documentation must be submitted to receive points.
Can a candidate appeal a disqualification?
Yes, via written appeal to the Senior Director of HR.
What determines the final promotional score?
Combined written, practical, and certification point scores.
What if a candidate cannot complete a component due to restrictions?
They are disqualified from that promotional cycle.
Who authorizes final promotional appointments?
The Fire Chief based on eligibility list and vacancy.
What happens if a candidate withdraws during the process?
They must reapply during the next cycle.
How long are exam scores and eligibility maintained?
Up to 2 years or until a new cycle is conducted.
What happens if a tie remains after applying all tiebreakers?
The Fire Chief makes the final determination.
Are promotional processes open to all personnel?
Only those who meet the minimum qualifications and deadlines.
What SOG governs Relief Officer qualification?
SOG 900.13.
What entity manages the promotional process?
The Training Division and Human Resources.
Where do Authority vehicles have jurisdiction as emergency vehicles?
Only within Orlando International Airport (MCO) and Orlando Executive Airport (ORL).
Are Authority vehicles exempt from traffic laws during emergency response?
No, they must obey all traffic laws and regulations at all times.
When are flashing or rotating lights allowed on public roads?
Only under limited conditions such as aircraft emergencies or by police direction.
Can Authority vehicles use emergency lights routinely off airport property?
No, only under extreme and approved circumstances.
What is required before operating a GOAA vehicle under emergency conditions?
Operator must be certified and follow all outlined protocols.
What are examples of exceptions permitting emergency light use on public roads?
Aircraft accident, Declared Aircraft Emergency, or directed by law enforcement.
Does this policy allow emergency driving privileges on city streets?
No, not unless one of the strict exceptions is met.
What happens if an Authority driver violates this policy?
They may face disciplinary action per GOAA policy and legal consequences.
What must all Authority vehicle operators do prior to using emergency lights?
Ensure it’s within GOAA-approved circumstances and document if required.
What does the policy emphasize over speed and urgency?
Safety, legal compliance, and operational integrity.
What must drivers always use even during emergency response?
Due regard for the safety of all persons and property.
Who has final say on emergency light usage outside airport jurisdiction?
Law enforcement and GOAA senior command, as outlined in policy.
Are lights and sirens permitted when responding to routine calls?
No, only in approved emergency scenarios.
What airport properties fall under this policy’s jurisdiction?
All roads, ramps, and access points within MCO and ORL airports.
What vehicles does this policy apply to?
All GOAA Authority emergency and support vehicles.
What governs security operations at Orlando International Airport?
The Airport Security Program (ASP).
Who is responsible for implementing the ASP?
The Director of Security.
What type of federal classification is the ASP under?
Sensitive Security Information (SSI).
Who must be badged according to GOAA policy?
All personnel who regularly work on airport property.
What is required before issuing a security badge?
Background checks and access level approval based on job function.
Can a contractor perform multiple services in secure areas?
Only with express written approval from the Aviation Authority.
Is filming or photography in secure areas allowed?
Only with prior approval from Public Affairs and Security Departments.
What must badge holders do if their access is no longer required?
Return the badge immediately to the Credentialing Office.
What happens if a badge is lost or stolen?
It must be reported immediately to Airport Security and Credentialing Office.
What is the penalty for unauthorized access to secure areas?
Possible arrest, badge revocation, and prosecution.
Who approves ASP revisions and updates?
The TSA and the Director of Security.
What is the function of the ASP?
To outline and enforce all federally mandated and GOAA-specific security protocols.
How long must security training records be retained?
As defined by TSA regulation and ASP guidelines.
What is required for unescorted access to secure areas?
Valid badge with proper access level and completed training.
What type of vehicles may enter secure areas?
Only those with authorized permits and proper escort if needed.
What must GOAA employees report immediately?
Suspicious activity, unauthorized access, and any ASP violations.
What law protects SSI from public disclosure?
49 CFR Parts 15 and 1520.
What is the consequence for mishandling SSI?
Disciplinary action, badge revocation, and potential federal penalties.
What are escorting responsibilities?
Remain with escorted persons at all times within secure areas.
Who enforces security compliance across airport operations?
Airport Security, GOAA management, and designated law enforcement.
What does SIDA stand for?
Security Identification Display Area.
What is the AOA?
Air Operations Area – includes movement areas, ramps, and aircraft parking areas.
What is considered the Sterile Area?
The terminal area beyond TSA screening up to the jetway doors.
What must be completed before being granted SIDA access?
Required training and a background check.
What are the three exemption types under Policy 730.01?
RED – continuous, YELLOW – emergency only, GREEN – baggage makeup only.
What is the penalty for a first SIDA violation?
5-day badge confiscation and retraining.
What is the penalty for a second SIDA violation?
20-day badge confiscation and retraining.
What is the penalty for a third SIDA violation?
Permanent revocation of MCO badge and access.
What must badge holders do when entering the AOA or SIDA?
Display badge prominently above the waist, photo side out.
Who has authority to verify badge and access credentials?
Airport Security and TSA personnel.
Is escorting allowed in the AOA and SIDA?
Yes, but the escort must maintain constant visual and voice contact.
What must be done after completing an escort?
Ensure the escorted individual exits the secure area properly.
Can you lend your badge to another person?
No, lending or sharing badges is prohibited and results in penalties.
What should you do if your badge is lost or stolen?
Immediately report it to Airport Security and the Credentialing Office.
What must occur before escorting a non-badged person?
Confirm their reason for access and maintain control of their actions.
What training is required for SIDA access renewal?
Annual refresher training and updated background check.
What should be done if unauthorized persons are seen in secure areas?
Report immediately to Airport Security.
What is the minimum age to hold a GOAA-issued SIDA badge?
18 years old.
What must be done if you are terminated or transferred?
Return your badge to the Credentialing Office immediately.
What agency mandates SIDA and AOA access compliance?
The Transportation Security Administration (TSA).
What must a new employee provide before operating a GOAA vehicle?
A valid Florida driver’s license or valid out-of-state license (30-day window to convert).
What form is used to waive vehicle privileges?
Form 1120.00.01 – Driving Privilege Exemption.
What must be completed before and after using a GOAA vehicle?
Pre/Post Vehicle Inspection Log – Form 1120.00.02.
Who is responsible for reporting any changes to their driving record?
The employee, to their supervisor and HR.
Can you operate a GOAA vehicle with a suspended license?
No—driving privileges are suspended immediately.
Who investigates vehicle-related accidents?
The department in coordination with Risk Management.
What disciplinary action is taken for a minor vehicle offense?
Written reprimand and mandatory driver training.
What constitutes a major vehicle offense?
Multiple minor incidents or a single serious event or behavior.
What is considered a critical or dismissal-level vehicle offense?
Incident involving injury, major damage, substance use, or unlicensed operation.
What form must employees sign to acknowledge this policy?
Form 1120.00.03 – Acknowledgment Form.
Are personal vehicles covered under this policy?
Yes, if operated on GOAA property or for GOAA business.
What is required for employees to use a personal vehicle for business?
Proof of insurance and written authorization.
What is the consequence of not reporting a driving status change?
Possible disciplinary action, up to dismissal.
What is the responsibility of supervisors under this policy?
Ensure vehicle forms are complete and respond to reported violations.
What is the GOAA stance on drug and alcohol use in vehicles?
Zero tolerance—automatic dismissal for use while driving a GOAA vehicle.
When is a drug/alcohol test required after a vehicle accident?
Immediately following any accident with injury, damage, or unsafe behavior.
What document outlines operator responsibility in accidents?
GOAA Vehicle Operator Policy 1120.00.
What must be attached to vehicle use documentation?
Proof of training, license verification, and inspection forms.
Can family members ride in GOAA vehicles?
Only with prior authorization by department leadership.
What must be done if an employee is involved in a vehicle incident?
Notify supervisor, complete incident report, and cooperate with investigation.
How often are driver’s licenses verified?
At least annually, or more frequently if necessary.
What training is required for new GOAA vehicle operators?
Initial vehicle safety training and periodic refreshers.
What behavior must operators avoid while driving?
Reckless driving, using unauthorized passengers, or any policy violation.
Is GPS or vehicle tracking used?
Yes, and tampering with it is a major offense.
What defines a preventable accident?
Any accident that could have been avoided by using reasonable caution.
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 1¾” hose?
15.5
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 2½” hose?
2
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 3” hose?
0.8
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 4” hose?
0.2
What is the friction loss coefficient (C) for 5” hose?
0.08
What is the standard engine pressure for handlines with fog nozzles?
150 psi
What is the standard engine pressure for solid bore nozzles?
50 psi for smooth bore; 80 psi for master stream solid tips
What is the standard engine pressure for relay pumping?
Typically 50–100 psi depending on system demands and distance
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a fog nozzle?
100 psi
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a solid bore handline?
50 psi
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a master stream fog?
100 psi
What is the standard nozzle pressure for a master stream smooth bore?
80 psi
What is the friction loss in small appliances under 350 GPM?
0 psi
What is the friction loss in appliances over 350 GPM?
10 psi (standard value)
How much elevation pressure is gained/lost per foot of height?
0.5 psi per foot
What is the elevation loss for a 5-story building (approx 50 ft)?
25 psi
What is the elevation loss for a 3-story building (approx 30 ft)?
15 psi
What is the formula for friction loss?
FL = C × Q² × L
What is the formula for nozzle reaction (fog nozzle)?
NR = 0.0505 × GPM × √NP
What is the formula for nozzle reaction (smooth bore)?
NR = 1.57 × d² × NP
What is the initial nozzle reaction estimate for a 1¾” fog nozzle?
60–70 lbs (based on 100 psi and 150 GPM)
What is the initial nozzle reaction for a 2½” smooth bore?
Over 100 lbs depending on GPM and NP
