Common Childhood Infectiojs Flashcards

1
Q

Why do bacteria cause morbidity and mortality

A

Toxins
Host Immunopathology

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2
Q

Bacterial Exotoxin

A

Proteins secreted by pathogen

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3
Q

How does cholera cause diarrhoea

A

Toxin increases cAMP causing Cl- to enter gut lumen from cells via CFTR, water follow Cl-

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4
Q

How do cholera and diphtheria cause disease

A

Exotoxins

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5
Q

How does diphtheria toxin cause disease

A

Inhibits protein synthesis in heart and nerves

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6
Q

Bacterial Endotoxin

A

Lipopolysaccharides in outer membrane of gram negative bacteria released during lysis

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7
Q

How do endotoxins cause harm

A

Cause macrophage activation

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8
Q

Biggest cause of sepsis

A

Meningitis

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9
Q

Shock

A

Inadequate perfusion of internal organs

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10
Q

Why does shock cause tachycardia and Tachypnoea

A

Trying to perfuse internal organs

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11
Q

How do endotoxins cause meningococcal disease

A

Activate inflammatory cascade causing myocardial depression, endothelial dysfunction, and coagulopathy

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12
Q

What temperature is a fever

A

> 38*c

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13
Q

Types of temperature measurement and how they differ from rectal core temp

A

Rectal
Ear - similar
Mouth - 0.5 lower
Axillary - 1 lower

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14
Q

Why are children effected by infections differently to adults

A

Immunological immaturity
Lack of memory cells
Thinner skin
Shorter airways
Flatter shorter Eustachian tube
Increased exposure at nursery, etc
Decreased hygiene
Not fully vaccinated

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15
Q

Why are serious infections sometimes missed in babies

A

Non specific presentations

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16
Q

Organisms that cause septicaemia and meningitis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae
Neisseria meningtidis B and C
Haemophilus influenzae B

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17
Q

Important gram positive organisms - 3 cocci, 4 bacilli

A

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus
Corynebacterium
Bacillus
Listeria
Clostridium
BLESSCC
SSE cocci
CCLB bacilli

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18
Q

Types of clostridium

A

Tetani
Botulinum
Difficile

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19
Q

Types of bacillus

A

Cereus
Anthracis

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20
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae arrangement

A

Diplococci

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21
Q

Immune defects increasing pneumococcal infection

A

Absent/non functional spleen
Hypogammaglobulinaemia
HIV

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22
Q

Are acute otitis media, sinusitis, conjunctivitis, and pneumonia invasive or non invasive

A

Non invasive

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23
Q

Are septicaemia, meningitis, peritonitis, arthritis, and osteomyelitis invasive or non invasive

A

Invasive

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24
Q

How does pneumococcus cause otitis media

A

Travels from back of throat to ear along Eustachian tube -> middle ear infection -> pus buildup behind ear drum -> eardrum bursts and pus comes out of ear

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25
Q

What can cause ear discharge in otitis media

A

Pus buildup behind tympanic membrane until tympanic membrane bursts

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26
Q

Invasive disease

A

Breaks mucosa

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27
Q

What organism causes empyema

A

Pneumococcus

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28
Q

Empyema management

A

Chest drain
Urokinase
Video assisted thoracoscopic surgery

29
Q

Septic arthritis management

A

Surgically open joint and wash out with saline
Antibiotics

30
Q

Does the pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine or pneumococcal conjugate vaccine get a better response in young children

A

Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

31
Q

What is the effect of serotypre replacement from vaccination

A

Rates of disease serotypes not vaccinated against increase

32
Q

2 types of fungi pathogens

A

Yeasts
Moulds

33
Q

What types of fungal disease are opportunistic

A

Invasive mycoses

34
Q

3 classes of Protozoa

A

Sporozoa
Amoebae
Flagellates

35
Q

5 main malaria species

A

p. Falciparum
P. Vivax
P. Ovale
P. Malarias
P. Knowlesi

36
Q

What stage of the malaria lifecycle causes malaria symptoms

A

Schizont rupture

37
Q

Severe malaria disease

A

Anaemia
Respiratory distress
Cerebral malaria
Hypoglycaemia

38
Q

Malaria treatment

A

Artemisin derivatives

39
Q

Advantages and disadvantages of artemisin derivatives in malaria treatment

A

+ more effective than quinine, more rapid parasitaemia decr
- emerging resistance

40
Q

Is viral DNA and RNA single or double stranded

A

Double DNA - except parvovirus
Single RNA - except retroviruses

41
Q

Difference between positive and negative polarity RNA

A

Positive can be translated into protein immediately by cells
Negative must be converted to positive by RNA polymerase before translation

42
Q

How are most viruses diagnosed now

A

PCR

43
Q

Why are viruses Obligate intracellular parasites

A

Totally dependent on cells they infect for energy, metabolic intermediates, and most enzymes

44
Q

Steps in viral life cycle

A

Attachment
Entry
Uncoating
Synthesis of viral components
Assembly and release

45
Q

What type of viruses are measles, mumps, rubella, RSV, influenza, parainfluenza, Covid, hep C, and HIV

A

Enveloped RNA

46
Q

What type of viruses Are papillomavirus, adenovirus, and parvovirus

A

Non enveloped DNA - PAP

47
Q

What type of viruses are herpes, hep B, and poxviruses

A

Enveloped DNA

48
Q

What types of virus are rotavirus, enterociruses, and Hep A

A

Non enveloped RNA

49
Q

Herpes viruses

A

Herpes simplex
Varicella zoster
CMV
Epstein Barr
HHV 6/7/8

50
Q

Signs of Herpes simplex in adults

A

Cold sore
Hepatic whitlow

51
Q

2 main presentations of Herpes simplex in neonates

A

Disseminated HSV - sepsis-like, hepatitis, coagulopathy
HSV encephalitis - fever, seizures, Haemorrhagic infarction of white matter and cortex

52
Q

How is viral infection different in early life to adult

A

More severe disease
More likely to become chronic
Prolonged shedding

53
Q

CMV in adults

A

Self limiting, sub clinical or mononucleosis like illness only severe in immunocompromised

54
Q

Commonest congenital infection in developed countries

A

CMV

55
Q

Congenital CMV symptoms

A

Blueberry muffin rash
Sensorineural hearing loss

56
Q

Congenital CMV treatment

A

6 month IV gangciclovir /oral valganciclovir

57
Q

valganciclovir mechanism

A

Inhibits DNA synthesis

58
Q

Most common varicella zoster complication

A

Secondary bacterial infection - can cause necrotising faschiatis (usually strep A)

59
Q

What disease are caused by varicella zoster virus

A

Chicken pox
Shingles

60
Q

Why is shingles more severe than chicken po

A

More robust immune response - immunopathology

61
Q

What pathogen causes glandular fever

A

Epstein Barr virus

62
Q

Glandular fever symptoms

A

Fever
Lymphadenopathy
Post viral fatigue
Burkitts lymphoma - Africa

63
Q

Causes of Burkitts lymphoma

A

EBV Infection at early age
Chronic immunosuppression - malaria, HIV

64
Q

What effects whether hep B becomes chronic

A

Age at infection
Younger age = more likely

65
Q

Chronic hep b consequences

A

Cirrhosis
Hepatocellular carcinoma
Other cancers

66
Q

Which Herpes viruses become latent

A

All

67
Q

Which virus in more severe in adults than children

A

Varicella zoster

68
Q

Which viruses can cause cancer

A

Epstein Barr
Hep b

69
Q

Are there more treatment options for bacteria or viruses

A

Bacteria