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ExSc 385 - Personal Training Strategies > Class 21 > Flashcards

Class 21 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which is a common benefit of doing cardio exercise as part of a movement practice?
  2. improving the heart’s pumping capacity
  3. burning excess calories to lose extra body fat
  4. enhancing mental health
  5. all the above
A

d

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2
Q
  1. A high _____ is what stimulates the heart to adapt and improve its pumping capacity.
  2. heart rate
  3. rate-pressure product
  4. stroke volume
  5. oxygen debt
A

c

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3
Q
  1. Dumbbells are to biceps as _____ is to the heart muscle.
  2. oxygen
  3. cardio
  4. blood
  5. mitochondria
A

c

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4
Q
  1. Starling’s law applies to cardio exercise in that _____, which serves to train and condition the heart or myocardium.
  2. the heart pumps 100% of the oxygen it receives
  3. the heart pumps 100% of the blood it receives
A

b

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5
Q
  1. To elicit a maximal heart rate, maximum stroke volume, and maximum cardiac output, a person needs to run as fast as possible for a minimum of about _____.
  2. 30 s
  3. 1 min
  4. 2 to 3 min
  5. 6 to 10 min
A

c

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6
Q
  1. Physical activity is _____; exercise is _____, respectively.
  2. any bodily movement resulting in a substantial increase in energy expenditure; planned, purposeful, and performed to improve or maintain functional and physical fitness
  3. planned, purposeful, and performed to improve or maintain functional and physical fitness; any bodily movement resulting in a substantial increase in energy expenditure
A

a

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7
Q
  1. Few modern humans do anything close to daily CARs without instruction, knowledge, and a plan.
  2. true
  3. false
A

a

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8
Q
  1. What is the resting metabolic rate (RMR) for the average 70-kilogram person?
  2. 1 kcal/min
  3. 1.25 kcal/min
  4. 5 kcal/min
  5. 10 kcal/min
A

b

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following results in a substantial energy expenditure?
  2. standing
  3. core training
  4. walking
  5. all the above
A

d

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10
Q
  1. There are _____ minutes in a day; based on an average RMR, about _____ calories are burned at rest.
  2. 60; 800
  3. 90; 1200
  4. 1220; 1400
  5. 1440; 1800
A

d

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11
Q
  1. A metabolic equivalent (MET) represents resting metabolism. If a person is walking and burning calories at a rate 5 times above his or her RMR, how many METs does this equal?
  2. 1.25
  3. 3
  4. 5
  5. 10
A

c

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12
Q
  1. Lifting heavy weights is an effective way to maximize muscle strength. Running at top speeds is an effective way to maximize cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF).
  2. true
  3. false
A

a

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13
Q
  1. Any type or amount of physical activity can be “heart helpful.”
  2. true
  3. false
A

a

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14
Q
  1. _____ is slow and steady. _____ is fast and varied. _____ is less fatiguing and safer. _____ is intense and invigorating. Both provide unique and meaningful benefits. Both condition the heart, burn lots of calories, and improve CRF.
  2. LSD; LSD; HIIT; HIIT
  3. HIIT; HIIT; LSD; LSD
  4. LSD; HIIT; LSD; HIIT
  5. HIIT; LSD; HIIT; LSD
A

c

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15
Q
  1. Although we care about all three, which one sometimes tricks us into thinking it is improving CRF?
  2. increases in heart rate
  3. increases in stroke volume
  4. increases in cardiac output
A

a

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16
Q
  1. _____ serves as the final electron acceptor at the end of the electron transport chain and facilitates continued ATP production.
  2. oxygen
  3. calcium
  4. carbohydrate
  5. ATPase
17
Q
  1. To go from ATP to ADP requires a(n) _____ of energy; to go from ADP to ATP requires a(n) _____ of energy.
  2. input; output
  3. output; input
18
Q
  1. Although carbs, fats, and proteins all share carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen; which chemical bonds, when broken, release usable energy to restore ATP levels?
  2. hydrogen-to-hydrogen bonds
  3. oxygen-to-oxygen bonds
  4. carbon-to-carbon bonds
  5. all the above
19
Q
  1. Which energy system has the most available stored energy?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
20
Q
  1. Which energy system uses stored creatine phosphate as its energy source?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
21
Q
  1. Which energy system uses stored carbohydrate (glucose) as its only energy source?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
22
Q
  1. Glucose (C6H12O6) cut in half (C3H6O3) becomes _____.
  2. fructose
  3. sucrose
  4. pyruvate
  5. lactic acid
23
Q
  1. Which energy system uses stored carbohydrate (glucose), fats (fatty acids), and protein (amino acids) as its energy source?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
24
Q
  1. All energy systems are always on. They act like a dimmer switch and can be turned up or down; but not on or off.
  2. true
  3. false
25
Q
  1. Which energy system produces the most ATP at rest?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
26
Q
  1. Which energy system produces the most ATP during a 15-second sprint?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
27
Q
  1. Which energy system produces the most ATP during a 400-meter run?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
28
Q
  1. Which energy system produces the most ATP during a 12-minute run?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy
29
Q
  1. Which energy system produces the most ATP during recovery?
  2. immediate energy system
  3. intermediate energy system
  4. slow-endurance energy system
  5. all contain about the same stored energy

ExSc 385 - Personal Training Strategies (40 decks)

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