Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Bio > Chp 14/15 > Flashcards

Chp 14/15 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Visceral efferent neurons in the autonomic nervous system innervate

A 
visceral effectors
smooth muscles 
cardiac muscles
exocrine glands 
endocrine glands
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

autonomic nervous system is primarily involved in

A

maintaining homeostasis of internal environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Structurally, each nervous system division consists of

A

nerves, nerve plexuses, and autonomic ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Each motor command is carried over what kind of circuit

A

two cell circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Most effector organs and tissues receive impulses from

A

both ANS divisions, a dual or parallel innervation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The two divisions often serve as antagonists to each other in adjusting and maintaining internal homeostasis

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Parasympathetic system dominates in

A

in sleep and other relaxed or resting states

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sympathetic dominates during

A

skeletal muscle activities and various emergency situations (fright, panic, rage, aggression)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

There is a constant interplay between the two divisions

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

one motor neuron to skeletal muscle effectors

A

somatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

two motor neurons to visceral effectors

A

autonomic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where is there a middle man in the autonomic or somatic CNS? What is its name?

A

autonomic

sympathetic chain ganglion or cranial nerve X (vagus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Autonomic visceral reflex arch sends information

A

along the afferent pathway–> dorsal root ganglion –> central nervous system –> preganglionic axon–> autonomic ganglion–> ganglionic neuron–> visceral effector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where is the sympathetic chain ganglion found

A

on the autonomic visceral reflex arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sympathetic nervous system fiber length

A

short preganglionic fibers and long postganglionic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Parasympathetic fiber length

A

long preganglionic fibers and short postganglionic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

rest sex and digest nerve is

A

the vagus nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Our neuron transmiter for fight or flight is called

A

adrenaline noreiphenephrine

epinephrene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Parasympathetic control is

A

short lived, highly localized control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Sympathetic control is

A

long lasting, diffuse effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neurotransmitter released in the preganglionic parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Neurotransmitter released in the postganglionic parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system

A

parasympathetic- acetylcholine

sympathetic- norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Parasympathetic receptors

A

nicotine- excititory

muscarinic- excitatory or inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Sympathetic receptors

A

alpha- excitatory

beta- excitatory or inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Nicotinic receptor does what

A

turns on the parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

muscarinic receptor does what

A

turns on or off the parasympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

alpha receptor does what

A

turns on the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

beta does what

A

turns on or off the sympathetic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What would a beta blocker do?

A

blocking that receptor for the sympathetic nervous system. the activity of flight or fight. Hypertension. lower you blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what fiber releases acetylcholine

A

cholinergic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what fiber releases norepinephrine

A

adrenergic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

depending on the receptor type neurotransmitter effects can be

A

excitatory or inhibitory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Norepinephrine is eaten up by

A

catechol-o-methyltransferase (COMT) and Monoamine oxidase (MAO)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Do cholinergic fibers or adrenergic fibers cause longer lasting effects and why?

A

adrenergic fibers tend to cause longer lived effects due to the slower degradation of norepinephrine by COMT and MOA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What causes PTSD

A

Slower degredation of norepinephrine from adrenergic fiber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In what case would an MAO inhibitor be prescribed?

A

I want norepinephrine to stay…. to help with depression. aka lethargy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

adrenergic receptors respond to

A

norepinephrine and epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

If your ANS isn’t functioning during youth it is normally because of

A

injury to it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

In old age ANS efficiency decreases resulting in

A

orthostatic hypotension, constipation, and dry eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

orthostatic hypotension is

A

the inability of your body to respond to postural changes in blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Orthostatic hypotension happens to

A

old people and pregnant women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Raynauds Disease

A

causes sudden severe vasoconstriction in the fingers toes and occasionally the ears and nose. Causes skin color changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Referred pain

A

happens because there aren’t nerve receptors for every part of our organs. The visceral afferents run in the same nerves with somatic afferents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Photoreceptors are found in the

A

retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the two kinds of photoreceptors that we have

A

rods and cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Rods are for and cones are for

A

dim light

color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

cones are activated by

A

light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

When you are activating the photoreceptors which nerve is being activated

A

optic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

the only place in our eye where we have no photoreceptors (rods or cones) “blind spot”

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Area in our eye with the most cones

A

the depression (fovea centralis) in the maculae lutea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What type of neurons do we have in the retina

A

bipolar neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what kind of neuron has a cell body in the middle and axons on both sides

A

bipolar neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

why are there chambers inside all if the eye cavities

A

because of the fluid of the eye to keep the shape of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is a cataract

A

calcium deposits on the lens making it harder to see because our vision is more cloudy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Vitreous humor is in the

A

is in the posterior chamber

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what muscle does the trochlear nerve innervate

A

the superior oblique muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what muscle does the abducens innervate

A

the lateral rectus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

every other muscle around the eye (except for two) is cranial nerve

A

III oculomotor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what nerve handles your rods and cones

A

your optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what controls pupil size

A

iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Lens stays in place by

A

the ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what contracts our eye every time we focus

A

the ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If the lens is bulging outward (convex) is for

A

near vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

If the lens is concave is for

A

far distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

myopia

A

near sightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

hyperopia

A

far sightedness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

presbyopia

A

far sightedness from old age considered normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the three main colors that we pick up

A

red, green and blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

photopigments are found in

A

rods and cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Photopigments in rods are sensitive to

A

dim light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

photopigments in cones are sensitive to

A

bright light and colors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Pathway that light takes

A

Light first goes through the lens, anterior chamber, posterior chamber, hits the rods and cones on the retina, open up sodium channels, hyperpolarize, send that transmission through the optic nerve, cross over to the occipital, then lastly tapes into memory in the frontal lobe so you know its an A.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

lacrimal means

A

tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

where does the lacrimal gland sit and where do the tears come out

A

superior lateral, medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

color blindness issue with

A

rod

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The three ossicle bones move on

A

axis cotratempranine nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Stapes movement displaces

A

paralympth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

where in the brain is sound processed

A

the temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

the pathway in which sound travels

A

The sound waves travel from the outer ear and in through the auditory canal, causing the eardrum, or tympanic membrane, to vibrate. This, in turn, causes the three small bones, known as the ossicles, or the hammer, the anvil and the stirrup, in the middle ear to move. The boney ossicles are connected to the cochlea, and that’s going to cause something to happen in the cochlea that’s going to cause a signal to go via the auditory nerve to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

auditory ossicles

A

the three tiniest bones in the body form the coupling between the vibration of the eardrum and the forces exerted on the oval window of the inner ear. Formally named the malleus, incus, and stapes, they are commonly referred to in English as the hammer, anvil, and stirrup.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The auditory ossicles move on

A

and axis that allow them to pivitol axis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The chorda tympani is a

A

branch of the facial nerve that originates from the taste buds in the front of the tongue, runs through the middle ear, and carries taste messages to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

The stapes moves

A

in a piston like action, hitting the boney labrynth, displacing the parilympth in the boney structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Perilymph

A

(also known as Cotunnius’ liquid, and liquor cotunnii) is an extracellular fluid located within the cochlea (part of the inner ear) in two of its three compartments: the scala tympani and scala vestibuli.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

light refraction

A
  • light will bend when it passes from one medium (air) into another (lens) e.g. pencil in glass of water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

convex lens

A
  • (thicker at center, tapered at edge) causes light to bend so that it comes together at a focal point
87
Q

real image

A

image at focal point of convex lens —> inverted & reversed

88
Q

what focuses light on the retina

A

cornea and lens

89
Q

constant (unchanging) refraction

A

cornea

90
Q

can change refraction and focal length; ciliary muscles change convexity of the lens

A

lens

91
Q

emmetropic eye

A

normal, healthy eye

92
Q

far point of vision

A

distance beyond which lens will not change its shape (about 20 feet) (flattest point of the lens)

93
Q

Less than 6 feet, several adjustments are made:

A

accommodation of lens - lens shape becomes more convex, light rays bend more sharply, shorter focal length for the closer object (ciliary muscles for lens)

94
Q

near point of vision

A
  • shortest distance for focusing (maximum convexity of lens); about 8-10 inches; gets worse with age
95
Q

presbyopia

A

poor close vision in elderly; inelasticity of the lens

96
Q

accommodation of pupils

A

constriction of pupils; better focus, less divergent rays (constrictor muscles of iris)

97
Q

convergence of eyes

A

eyes rotate medially to keep image on center of the retina (medial rectus muscles of eyeballs)

98
Q

Vision Problems Related to Refraction

A

myopia
hyperopia
astigmatism

99
Q

myopia

A

(“nearsighted”) - distant objects are blurred; distant objects are focused in front of the retina, rather than directly on it

100
Q

eyeball too long; lens too strong

concave lens can correct light before eye

A

myopia

101
Q

hyperopia

A

(“farsightedness”) - close objects are blurred; close objects are focused beyond the retina, rather than directly on it

102
Q

eyeball too short; poor refraction of a lens

convex lens can correct light before eye

A

hyperopia

103
Q

astigmatism

A
  • blurry images at all distances; unequal curves on lens and/or cornea, creating discontinuous image on the retina
104
Q

outer segment of eye

A

contain membrane-bound discs with pigments that absorb and react to light

105
Q

rods

A

pigment discs stacked like pennies all the way to the base, membranes are DISTINCT from the plasma membrane

106
Q

rods (6 facts)

A
  1. sensitive to dim light (night vision)
  2. respond to ALL wavelengths (colors)
  3. only “grey” information to the brain
  4. 100 rods per ganglion cell to brain
  5. widely spread throughout the retina
  6. not good for visual acuity
107
Q

cones

A

pigment discs taper off toward the base, membranes are CONTINUOUS with the plasma membrane

108
Q

Cones (6 facts)

A
  1. require bright light for stimulation
  2. different cones have different pigments specific for certain wavelengths (colors)
  3. can convey color information to brain
  4. 1-3 cones per ganglion cell to brain
  5. primarily concentrated in fovea (center)
  6. essential for visual acuity
109
Q

opsin involved in biochemistry of visual pigments

A

transmembrane protein in the membrane of pigmented discs of rods and cones

110
Q

retinal

A

light absorbing molecule that changes shape when struck by a photon of light

111
Q

vitamin A

A

precursor to retinal (eat your carrots!!!!!!)

112
Q

11-cis isomer of retinal

A

non-activated form of retinal, prior to absorption of photon energy; has a “kinked” double bond

113
Q

all trans isomer of retinal

A

activated form of retinal, after struck by photon of light; double bond straightens out

114
Q

rhodopsin excitation of rods

A

visual pigment in rods; in membranes of pigmented discs of outer segment

115
Q

HYPERPOLARIZATION of rod and excitation of rod

A

a. Na+ channels (open in dark) are closed
b. rod is hyperpolarized (increased negativity)
c. Ca++ channels in synapse close
d. less neurotransmitter released by the rod

116
Q

photopsins involved in excitation of cones

A

3 distinct pigments in cones are sensitive to 3 different parts of visible spectrum

117
Q

what kinds of cones are there

A

blue green and red cones

118
Q

blue cones

A

maximum sensitivity at 455 nm

119
Q

green cones

A

maximum sensitivity at 530 nm

120
Q

red cones

A
  • maximum sensitivity at 625 nm
121
Q

different colors cause

A

differential activation of each of the three different cones

122
Q

color blindness is

A

inherit gene for one of the photon proteins that is deficient (mainly male), most common are red and green mutations

123
Q

Light and Dark Adaptation of

A

Rhodopsin

124
Q

light adaptation very dark → very bright

A

a. rhodopsin in rods is quickly bleached out
b. sensitivity to shallow light disappears
c. rods are inhibited by other retinal cells
d. cones are activated to take over (5 mins.)
e. consensual pupil reflex - constriction

125
Q

dark adaptation - very bright → very dark

A

a. cones are gradually cease to be stimulated
b. “bleached out” rods can produce rhodopsin
c. rods eventually take over in the dim light
d. pupillary dilation - pupils increase size

126
Q

nyctalopia

A

(night blindness) - deficiency in function of rods during dim-light situations
vitamin A deficiency is general cause

127
Q

The Visual Pathway: Photoreceptors to Occipital Cortex

A 
Retina 
Axon Path
Thalamus
Axon Path
Cerebral Cortex
128
Q

Retina visual path to cerebral cortex

A 
RETINA			photoreceptors (rods & cones) ->
bipolar cells -> ganglion cells (axons = optic nerve) ->
AXON PATH			optic nerves (from each eye retina)
optic chiasma (medial fibers cross over)
optic tracts (opposite visual field)

THALAMUS lateral geniculate body of thalamus ->

AXON PATH optic radiation (fibers to cortex)

CEREBRAL CORTEX occipital lobe - primary visual cortex

129
Q

other brain areas that receive visual information

A

superior colliculi - for control of extrinsic eye muscles

  1. pretectal nuclei - mediate pupillary light reflexes
  2. suprachiasmatic nucleus of hypothalamus - circadian rhythm
130
Q

vibration of medium

A
  • sound travels in compression waves through a particular medium
    a. solid fastest ————-> liquid —————-> gas slowest
131
Q

sound as a wave

A

the series of high pressure and low pressure areas are called
“compressions” and “rarefactions”, respectively

132
Q

sine wave

A

graphic representation of areas of compression and

rarefaction of a sound wave

133
Q

wavelength

A

the distance between 2 areas of compression for a

given sound wave

134
Q

Frequency

A

the number of waves that pass a given point in one

second (1/s = 1 Hertz)

135
Q

different types of frequency

A

i. short wavelength/high frequency - high pitched tones
ii. long wavelength/low frequency - low pitched tones
iii. human frequency range - 20Hz - 20,000 Hz (2-3 Hz distinction)

136
Q

amplitude

A

intensity of energy in a given wave of sound; signified by height of sine wave

137
Q

amplitude loudness

A

subjective interpretation of the intensity of a sound

138
Q

amplitude decibel

A

logarithmic scale to measure the intensity of sound waves

139
Q

Transmission of Sound to the Inner Ear

A 
air -->
external auditory canal -->
tympanic membrane (ear drum) -->
ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes.) -->
oval window of cochlea -->
vibration of cochlear fluid --> 
basilar membrane of cochlea
140
Q

Resonance of Basilar Membrane

A
  1. vibration of oval window -> perilymph vibration
  2. for 20 - 20,000 Hz only, vibration of vestibular membrane
  3. vestibular membrane vibration -> endolymph vibration
  4. endolymph vibration -> vibration of basilar membrane
  5. basilar membrane “fibers” of different length, thickness, and tension like strings of a piano
141
Q

resonance -

A

different fibers of basilar membrane have different “natural frequencies”

142
Q

SPECIFIC parts of basilar membrane vibrate only at

A

SPECIFIC frequency (pitch)

143
Q

Excitation of Hairs Cells of Organ of Corti

1. cochlear hair cells

A
  • rest on the basilar membrane, contain “stereocilia” which project into the “tectorial membrane” just above
144
Q

Excitation of Hairs Cells of Organ of Corti pathway

A

a. basilar m. vibration -> hair cell vibration
b. hair cell vibration -> opening/closing channels
c. depolarization/hyperpolar -> cochlear nerve
d. cochlear nerve impulses -> to brain

145
Q

Anatomical Pathway to the Brain

A 
cochlear nerve (vestibulocochlear VIII)-> 
spiral ganglion -->
cochlear nuclei (medulla) -->
superior olivary nucleus -->
lateral lemniscal tract --> 
inferior colliculus -->
medial geniculate body of thalamus -->
auditory cortex (superior temporal lobe)
146
Q

Perceiving Pitch (Frequency)

A

location of vibration on the basilar membrane

147
Q

Perceiving Differences in Loudness (Intensity)

A 
amplitude increases, more hair cells of the
basilar membrane (with same pitch) are activated
148
Q

localizing Source of Sound

A
  1. superior olivary nucleus - first point where sound from both ears come together

a. relative intensity - the amplitude of sound waves hitting the different ears
b. relative timing - the difference in timing in which a sound reaches both ears

149
Q

conduction deafness

A

disruption in sound vibrations to basilar membrane (ext & mid ear)

  1. blocked auditory canal (wax, fluid)
  2. perforated tympanic membrane (eardrum)
  3. otitis media - middle ear infection/inflammation
  4. otosclerosis - hardening of the earbone joints
150
Q

sensorineural deafness

A

disruption anywhere in pathway from hair cells to the auditory cortex

  1. loss of hair cells (explosion, chronic loud noise)
  2. damage to vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII)
  3. damage to nuclei/tracts to the cortex
151
Q

tinnitus

A

chronic perception of clicking or ringing

  1. sudden blow to the tympanic membrane
  2. gradual deterioration of afferents in cochlear nerve
152
Q

Menierre’s Syndrome

A

effects both hearing and balance; results in tinnitus, vertigo, and interspersed nausea and vomiting

  1. may be too much endolymph beneath basilar membrane
  2. symptoms can be treated somewhat with drugs
  3. endolymph may be drained periodically
  4. hearing loss is progressive
153
Q

Linear Movement of the vestibular apparatus is

A

The Maculae of the Vestibule motion is UP/DOWN

154
Q

Equilibrium and Balance: The Vestibular Apparatus

A

has linear movement and angular movement

155
Q

The Angular Movement of the vestibular apparatus involves 5 things

A
  1. semicircular canals - three bony “hula-hoop” extensions of vestibule in three different planes
  2. crista ampullaris - like maculae, contain hair cells that respond to flow of endolymph in canals
    a. cupula - like otolith membrane, gelatinous “cap” into which hair cells project
  3. change in angular (rotational) acceleration - movement of the head in non-linear (circular or angular) direction is monitored by three canals
  4. vestibular nystagmus - movement of eyes to remain fixed on object when on “merry-go-round”
  5. vertigo - false feeling of gravity or motion
156
Q

Equilibrium Pathway: Coordinating Inputs in Brain

A

activated hair cells of crista ampularis ->

(vestibulocochlear nerve) -> vestibular nuclear complex OR cerebellum

157
Q

vestibular nuclei

A

also receive input from eyes and somatic proprioceptors; coordinates information to help control motion of eyes, neck, limbs

158
Q

cerebellum

A

also receives input from eyes and somatic proprioceptors; coordinates information to help regulate head position, posture, and balance

159
Q

Problems with Equilibrium

A
  1. dizziness, nausea, imbalance, vomiting
  2. motion sickness - conflict between visual/somatic inputs and action of the vestibular apparatus
    a. Bonine, Dramamine, Scopolamine - block inputs from vestibular apparatus to the brain
160
Q

Risk Factors For Hypertension

A 
age
heredity
race
gender
weight
diet
lifestyle/activity level
stress: overstimulates sympathetic division?
alcohol 
tobacco
161
Q

Preganglionic neurons

A

cell bodies in the CNS (brain or spinal cord)

transmit Action Potentials from the CNS

162
Q

preganglionic neurons

in the sympathetic division, the cell body is located

A

in the lateral gray horns (thoraco-lumbar) of the spinal cord

163
Q

preganglionic neurons

in the parasympathetic division, the cell body is located in

A

various nuclei of brain stem or in the lateral gray horns (cranio-sacral)

164
Q

the postganglionic fiber sends impulses to a

A

target organ

165
Q

the effects at the target organ are due to

A

type of neurotransmitter and specific cell surface receptors on the effector cells

166
Q

Due to dual innervation The Sympathetic and Parasympathetic Divisions of the ANS innervate

A

many of the same organs

167
Q

During dual innervation different effects are due to specific molecular differences in the

A

neurotransmitters and in the receptor types on the effectors

168
Q

sympathetic trunk

A

vertebral chain ganglia (paravertebral ganglia)
a vertical row on either side of the vertebral column
these ganglia are interconnected
thoracic and lumbar origin
each preganglionic neuron synapses with many postganglionic neurons

169
Q

other sympathetic ganglia are located

A

in the walls of major abdominal arteries

170
Q

Nicotinic receptors are found on:

A

Motor end plates (skeletal muscle)
All postganglionic neurons of both sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions
The hormone-producing cells of the adrenal medulla

171
Q

The effect of ACh binding to nicotinic receptors is always

A

excititory

172
Q

Muscarinic receptors occur on all

A

effector cells stimulated by parasympathetic cholinergic fibers and by those few effectors stimulated by sympathetic cholinergic fibers

173
Q

The effect of ACh binding at muscarinic receptors:

A

Can be either inhibitory or excitatory

Depends on the receptor type of the target organ

174
Q

The two fundamental types of adrenergic receptors

A

alpha and beta

175
Q

Effects of NE binding to alpha receptors is generally

A

excitatory to effectors

176
Q

Effects of NE binding to beta receptors is generally

A

inhibitory to effectors

177
Q

A clinically important exception – NE binding to beta receptors in the heart is

A

excitatory

178
Q

Cholinergic receptors

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

179
Q

Adrenergic receptors

A

alpha and beta

180
Q

Drugs which mimic the action of ACh and NE at their receptors are termed

A

cholinergic and adrenergic agonists respectively

181
Q

Drugs which block or inhibit the action of ACh and NE at their receptors are termed

A

cholinergic and adrenergic antagonists (or “blockers”) respectively

182
Q

Drugs which enhance the action of ACh and NE at their synapses by delaying enzymatic degradation are termed

A

anticholinesterases monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAO-inhibitors)

183
Q

The cerebral cortex, limbic system, hypothalamus, and the brain stem cooperate to initiate

A

autonomic motor commands.

184
Q

emotional input is regulated by

A

limbic system

185
Q

overall intergration of the ANS “the boss” are regulated by

A

hypothalamus

186
Q

regulation of pupil size, respiration, heart, blood pressure, swallowing are regulated by

A

reticular formation of the brain stem

187
Q

urination, defecation, erection and ejaculation reflexes are regulated by

A

spina cord

188
Q

Most control from the ans is unconscious and originates from the

A

hypothalamus

189
Q

But strong conscious emotional states can trigger

A

autonomic, usually sympathetic, responses

190
Q

S(alivation) L(acrimation) U(rination) D(efecation)

A

Parasympathetic

191
Q

metabolic “business as usual”

A

Parasympathetic

192
Q

rest and digest” – “feed and breed” – basic survival functions

A

Parasympathetic

193
Q

any increase in skeletal muscular activity or these activities - increase heart rate, blood flow, breathing

decrease non-survival activities - food digestion, etc.

A

sympathetic

194
Q

Slows the heart

Directs normal activities of the digestive and urinary systems

A

parasympathetic tone

195
Q

The sympathetic division can override these effects during times of

A

stress or muscular exertion

196
Q

Drugs that block parasympathetic stimuli increase

A

heart rate and interfere with fecal and urinary retention

197
Q

what cooperation is involved in the complex control of the cardiovascular system

A

ANS

198
Q

what cooperation is also seen in control of the external genitalia during sexual activities

A

ANS

199
Q

what fibers cause vasodilation and are responsible for erection of the penis and clitoris

A

para

200
Q

fibers cause ejaculation of semen in males and reflex peristalsis in the female reproductive tract

A

sympathetic

201
Q

Sympathetic stimulation is long-lasting because

A

norepinephrine (NE):

202
Q

is inactivated more slowly by MAO and COMT

A

NE

203
Q

is an indirectly acting neurotransmitter, triggering a second-messenger system

A

NE

204
Q

are released into the blood by the adrenal medulla in certain situations and remain there until inactivated by liver enzymes

A

NE

205
Q

Solitary Sympathetic Stimulation

A

Regulates some effectors not innervated by the parasympathetic division

Therefore, acting more as an on-off switch

These include the adrenal medulla, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles, kidneys, and most blood vessels

206
Q

what division controls: Thermoregulatory responses to heat

Cutaneous vasodilation and sweating

A

The sympathetic

207
Q

what division controls: Release of renin from the kidneys

Increased blood pressure from a complex regulatory response

A

The sympathetic

208
Q

what division controls: Metabolic effects (in a complex coordination with the endocrine system)
increases the metabolic rate of body cells
elevates blood glucose levels for use by nervous tissue
shifts cellular metabolism to fats for other tissues
stimulates the reticular activating system (RAS) of the brain, increasing mental alertness

A

sympathetic

209
Q

what division has actions serve to support the body during strenuous physical activities and emergencies but may contribute to undesirable side effects in cases of long term stress such as illnesses

A

sympathetic

210
Q

what division controls blood pressure, keeping the blood vessels in a continual state of partial constriction (vasomotor tone)

A

sympatheic

211
Q

Blood pressure rises or falls with what activity

A

sympathetic

212
Q

what is also diverted to or away from different organ systems depending on the level of muscular activity or the presence of emergency or stressful states

A

blood in the sympathetic state

213
Q

Alpha-blocker drugs inhibit vasomotor tone and are used to treat hypertension due to what state

A

sympathetic

Bio (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions