Chem I: 1-6 Flashcards

1
Q

atomic number

A

(Z) number of protons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

mass number

A
  • (A) total number of protons and neutrons in nucleus
  • Z+N
  • aka atomic mass
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

isotopes

A

atoms that share an atomic number but have different mass numbers (same number of protons, diff number of neurons)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

valence electrons

A
  • electrons that are farthest from nucleus
  • electrons that have the greatest amount of potential energy (bc they are held less tightly by the nucleus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

cation

A

positively charged aton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

anion

A

negatively charged atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

isotopes are referred to…

A

by the name of the element followed by the mass number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

atomic weight

A
  • weighted average of the naturally occurring isotopes
  • mass of one mole of the element in grams
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

binding energy

A
  • energy required to disassemble an atom into its constituents
  • allows nucleons to bind together in nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

mass defect

A
  • the difference between the mass of an atom and the sum of the masses of its protons, neutrons, and electrons
  • result of matter that has been converted to energy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

number of protons and electrons in neutral atom

A

of protons = # of electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Einstein’s equation that relates energy and mass (+ units)

A

E = mc^2 converts mass and energy

E in J

m in kg > mass defect

c in m/s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

E in E = mc^2

A

energy released when the nucleus of an atom is formed (nuclear binding energy) and energy needed to break nucleus apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

nuclear binding energy

A
  • the energy released when a nucleus is formed from nucleons
  • energy required to disassemble an atom into its constituents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

nucleons

A

protons and neutrons in the nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

electrostatic force

A

force between electrically charged objects (like charges repel and opposite charges attract each other).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

nuclear strong force

A
  • force that overcomes repulsion of the protons in nucleus to hold the nucleus together
  • only acts over extremely short distances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

N/Z ratio when Z < 20

A

N/Z = 1 –> stable nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

N/Z ratio when Z > 20

A

N/Z = 1.5 –> stable nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

N/Z ratio when Z > 83

A

p much all nuclei are unstable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

alpha decay

A

ejection of an alpha particle (He) from the nucleus of an atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

beta decay

A
  • ejection of a beta particle (electron) from the nucleus of an atom
  • neutron converted to proton and electron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gamma decay

A
  • release of gamma rays (no charge and no mass) from a nucleus
  • energy is released in form of radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

positron emission aka positive beta decay

A

a proton decays and “creates” a neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what increases the rate of radioactive decay?

A
  1. more protons in nucleus = more unstable = more decay
  2. for smaller atoms, the N/Z ratio determines stability (1:1)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

half life

A

time required for a certain amount of pure substance to fall to half its original amount

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what makes atom more likely to undergo alpha decay?

A

large number of protons in nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

electron capture

A

atom captures and electron and combines it with a proton to form a neutron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

half life equation

A

t1/2 = 0.693/k

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

ionizing radiation

A

the release of energy that allows an unstable nucleus to attain a more stable form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

how does the mass defect relate to the binding energy?

A
  • there is a transformation of nuclear matter to energy with a resultant loss of matter
  • mass defect - energy released
  • binding energy - energy needed
  • they are related by E = mc^2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

fusion

A

when small nuclei combine to form a larger nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

fission

A
  • large nucleus splits into smaller nuclei
  • can occur through absorption of low energy neutron –> making an excited state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

T/F: Nuclear fission and nuclear fusion both release energy

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which type of nuclear decay could be detected in an atomic absorption spectrum?

A

because gamma radiation produces electromagnetic radiation (rather than nuclear fragments), it can be detected on an atomic absorption spectrum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

isotope notation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

avogadro’s number

multiplying

A

6.02 x 10^23 atoms/mol

number of atoms/molecules in a mole

multiplying Avogadro’s number by the moles of an element gives the number of atoms of that element.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

equation relating energy and frequency

A

E = hf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

equation

angular momentum of an electrno orbiting a hydrogen nucleus

A

L = nh / 2π

n = principal quantum number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how will protium behave in an electric field as compared with deuterium?

a) protium will accelerate slower than deuterium
b) neither protium nor deuterium will accelerate
c) protium will accelerate faster than deuterium
d) protium and deuterium will both accelerate at the same rate

A

b) neither protium nor deuterium will accelerate

only charged particles experience force due to an electric field

since they are both neutral, neither will be influenced by electric field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Phosphorus has 2 known isotopes that weigh 30 amu (90% abundance) and 31 amu (10% abundance). What is the most likely atomic mass of a single Phosphorus atom?

a) 30.1 amu
b) 31 amu
c) 30 amu
d) 30.9 amu

A

Atomic mass of a single atom is a discrete whole number based on the number of nucleons found in a single atom. The most abundant isotope is made of 30 nucleons, thus the most likely atomic mass of an individual atom is 30 amu.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Nuclei (Z < 20) with N/Z ratio greater than one can undergo __________.

A

beta decay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Nuclei (Z < 20) with N/Z ratio less than one can undergo _________.

A

positron emission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Phosphorus-32 is commonly used to label DNA and RNA for
use in Southern and Northern blots, respectively. A
researcher has a 70 g sample of Phosphorus-32 stored for
future use. If the researcher needs at least 10 g of
Phosphorus-32 to do his experiment, what’s the greatest
number of days that he could store this sample? (Phosphorus-
32 has a half-life of 14.3 days)

a) 25 days
b) 45 days
c) 30 days
d) 40 days

A

d) 40 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

A radioactive sample is giving off gamma rays. What is occurring on the atomic scale?

a) a nucleus in an excited state releases a photon, becoming a new element in its ground state
b) a nucleus in an excited state releases a photon, going to its ground state
c) a nucleus in its ground state releases a photon, becoming a new element in its ground state
d) a nucleus in its ground state releases a photon and remains in its ground state

A

b) a nucleus in an excited state releases a photon, going to its ground state

In gamma decay, nucleus is in unstable high energy state. It releases this energy by emitting a photon, going to more stable ground state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A researcher adds 5g of NaCl to a beaker containing 120 g of water. How many water molecules are present?

a) 4 x 10^24
b) 7.2 x 10^21
c) 6 x 10^23
d) 1.3 x 10^24

A

a) 4 x 10^24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

a) emission spectrum with dark lines where hydrogen is emitting light
b) absorption spectrum with dark lines where hydrogen is absorbing light
c) an emission spectrum with bright lines where hydrogen is emitting light
d) an absorption spectrum with bright lines where hydrogen is absorbing light

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

mass to charge ratio

A

The mass of an ion divided by its charge

symbol m/z

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

purpose of mass spectrometer

A

determine the mass of a particle using electric and magnetic fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

how the mass spectrometer works

A
  • the movement of excited (ionized) particles will be affected as they pass through a magnetic field
  • the degree to which these particles are deflected from their original path will depend on their mass/charge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

large vs small particles in mass spectrometer

A
  • large particles travel with a larger radius and slower acceleration -> travels longer distance than smaller particle
  • smaller particle -> greater centripetal acceleration –> smaller radius
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

mass spectra

A

plot of relative abundance (y plane) vs mass to charge ratio (x plane)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Mass Spectrometry: if the charge on the ion is +1, the mass to charge ratio is…..

A

if the charge on the ion is +1, the mass to charge ratio is equal to the mass of that ion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Mass Spectrometry: relative abundance

A

the intensity of the ion as it collides with ion detector

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Mass Spectrometry: p+1 peak

A

the molecule that contains heavier isotopes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Mass Spectrometry: fragmentation pattern

A

lower weight molecules that are fragments the og molecule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mass Spectrometry: base peak

A
  • the highest peak, which may or may not correspond to the parent ion
  • the base peak is always made equal to 100% relative abundance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

photoelectric effect

A

emission of electrons from a metal when light shines on the metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Photoelectric effect equation

A

E = hv= hc/lambda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

frequency related to wavelength equation

A

c = lambda * v

lambda = wavelength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

photoelectric effect: if shining light on an electron does not excite that electron to a new energy state, what will increasing the intensity of light do?

A
  • intensity is the same as amount
  • it will have no effect on the electron
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

photoelectric effect: if shining light on an electron does not excite that electron to a new energy state, what will increasing the frequency of light do?

A
  • the light particle has more energy when the frequency increases (deltaE = hf)
  • the electron has the possibility of being excited to a higher state
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Coulomb’s Law

A
  • (bohr model) electric force between charged objects depends on the distance between the objects and the magnitude of the charges
  • (electrons get neg sign)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

force equation

A

F=ma (force = mass x acceleration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

the bohr model predicts…

A

the wavelength of light emitted by the hydrogen atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

binding energy per nucleon peaks at the element ___, which implies that…

A

iron

iron contains the most stable nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

weak nuclear force

A
  • also contributes to stability of nucleus
  • much weaker than strong nuclear force
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

4 fundamental forces of nature

A

strong nuclear force, weak nuclear force, gravitation, electrostatic forces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

electrons are emitted by the nucleus when…

A

a nutron decays into a proton (a beta particle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

exponential decay (half life)

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

exponential decay equation

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

bohr model rules

A
  1. electrons move about nucleus in circular orbit and each orbit corresponds to a discrete quantity of energy
  2. electrons emit energy only when an electron moves from a higher orbit to a lower orbit
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

to calculate how much energy an electron loses in bohr model

A

Ehigher - Elower = Ephoton = hf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what happens when an electron moves from higher stationary state to a lower state?

A

releases a single photon of light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ionization energy

A
  • the energy required to remove an electron from a gaseous species
    • cation now has more energy than neutral atom -> less stable
  • the less likely an atom gives up an electron, the more energy required to take that electron away
  • energy is put in to remove electron
    • positive energy
  • endothermic process
  • F = Kq1q2 / r2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

absorption

A

electron absorbs energy and jumps up to higher energy level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

emission

A

when an electron falls from a higher energy level to a lower energy level, and a photon is emitted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

the energy of the electron changes in discrete amounts with respect to…

A

energy is directly proportional to principal quantum number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

bohr model: electron in any of its quantized states in the atom will have an attractive force towards….

A

the proton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

as the energy of an electron increases (becomes ____)…

A

(becomes less negative)… the farther out from the nucleus that it is located (increasing n in eq)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

as electrons go from a lower energy level to a higher energy level, they get…

A

AHED

absorb light, higher potential, excited, distant (from nucleus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

current

A

net charge flow per unit time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

threshold frequency

A
  • minimum frequency of light that causes ejection of electrons
  • depends on type of metal being exposed to the radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

if the frequency of the incident photon is less than the threshold frequency….

A

then no electron will be ejected because the photons do not have sufficient energy to dislodge the electron from the atom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

waves with higher frequency have… (wavelengths, energy, light spectrum)

A

shorter wavelengths and higher energy (toward blue and UV end of spectrum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

waves with lower frequency have… (wavelengths, energy, light spectrum)

A

longer wavelengths and lower energy (toward red and infrared end of spectrum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

if the frequency of an incident photon is above the threshold frequency of a metal, the photon…

A

will have more than enough energy to eject a single electron, and the excess energy will be converted to kinetic energy in the ejected electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

maximum kinetic energy formula

A

Kmax = hf - W

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

work function

A

minimum energy required to eject electron (similar to activation energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

work function related to frquency of metal formula

A

W = hfthreshold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what does the threshold frequency depend upon?

A

the chemical composition of the material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what electrical phenomenon results from the application of the photoelectric effect?

A

the accumulation of moving electrons creates a current during the photoelectric effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

ground state of an atom

A

state of lowest energy, in which all electrons are in the lowest possible orbitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

excited state of an atom

A

when at least one electron has moved to a subshell of higher than normal energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

when electrons return to their ground states…

A

each will emit a photon with a wavelength characteristic of the specific energy transition it undergoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

line spectrum

A

each line on the emission spectrum corresponds to a specific electron transition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

lyman series

A

group of hydrogen emission lines corresponding to transitions from energy levels n ≥ 2 to n=1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

balmer series

A

corresponds to transitions from energy levels n ≥ 3 to n=2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

lyman vs balmer series

A
  • lyman series includes larger energy trnasitions
    • shorter photon wavelengths in UV region
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

paschen series

A

corresponds to transitions from n≥4 to n=3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

equation that says: the energy of the emitted photon corresponds to the difference in the energy between the higher energy initial state and the lower energy final state

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

photoelectric effect: the higher the intensity of the light beam…

A

the greater the number of photons per unit time that fall on an electrode, producing a greater number of electrons per unit time liberated from the metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

photoelectric effect: when the light’s frequency is above the threshold frequency…

A

the magnitude of the resulting current is direction proportional to the intensity and amplitude of the light beam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

if the frequency of a photon of light incident on a metal is at the threshold frequency for the metal…

A

the electron barely escapes from the metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Kmax is only achieved when…

A

all possible energy from the photon is transferred to the ejected electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

how does the work function relate to the energy necessary to emit an electron from a metal?

A
  • work function describes the minimum amount of energy necessary to emit an electron
  • any additional energy from a photon will be converted to excess kinetic energy during photoelectric effect
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

electric potential energy

bohr model

A

q1 = charge on electron

q2 = charge on nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

potential energy of electron in ground state

A

negative potential energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the equation for magnetic force in terms of magnetic field strength and velocity of an ion?

A

F = qvB

F = Magnetic Force
q = Charge of ion
V = Velocity of ion
B = Magnetic Field Strength
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

In a mass spectrometer, the ion moves in a circle. Why?

A

The ion moves in a circle because the magnetic force is perpendicular to the velocity of the ion, pointing toward the center of the circle. The magnetic force essentially acts as a centripetal force.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Which equation can be used in tandem with F = qvB in order to calculate the mass of an ion in a mass spectrometer based on the radius of the circle?

A

Fc = m(v^2/r)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the resulting equation when everything is set equal to r?

A

r = mv/qB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The energy of the photon is greater than, equal to, or less than the energy of the emitted electron? Why?

A

The energy of the photon is greater than the energy of the emitted electron. This is because some of the energy of the photon was required (and used up) in order to free the electron from the metallic surface.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the equation for the energy of a photon in terms of the energy of the emitted electron?

A

KEp = KEe + WF

KEp = Kinetic energy of the photon
KEe = Kinetic energy of the electron
WF = Work function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

A metal has a work function equal to 3.42 ⋅ 10^-19 J and the energy of the electron is equal to 3.47 ⋅ 10^-19 J. What is the frequency of the photon? (remember Plank’s constant = 6.626 ⋅ 10^-34).

(A) 3.04 ⋅ 10 ^ -19 Hz
(B) 6.02 ⋅ 10 ^ -13 Hz
(C) 8.06 ⋅ 10 ^ 12 Hz
(D) 1.15 ⋅ 10 ^ 15 Hz

A

D) 1.15 ⋅ 10 ^ 15 Hz

KEp = KEe + WF
KEp = 3.47 ⋅ 10^-19 J + 3.42 ⋅ 10^-19 J
KEp = 6.89 ⋅ 10^-19 J
hv = KEp
(6.626 ⋅ 10^-34)v = 6.89 ⋅ 10^-19 J
v = (7 ⋅ 10^-19)/(6 ⋅ 10^-34)
v = about 1 ⋅ 10^15 hz (Actual 1.15 ⋅ 10^15 hz)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which physics equation relates the energy of a photon to its frequency?

A

E = hf

E = Energy of a photon or quantum
h = Planck's Constant (6.626 ⋅ 10^-34 J⋅s)
f = Frequency of wave/radiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What two equations can be used in concert with Fc = m(v^2/r) to determine the radius of a Bohr model electron?

A

Fe = k((q1q2)/r^2) and L = rp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

An electron’s total energy is composed of what two types of energy?

(A) Thermal and kinetic energy
(B) Kinetic and electric energy
(C) Electric and potential energy
(D) Thermal and electric energy

A

(B) Kinetic and electric energy

An electron’s total energy is composed of kinetic and electric energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What equation can be used to determine the energy of any electron in terms of its principal quantum number?

A

En = E1/(n^2)

En = Energy of electron at n
n = Principal quantum number
E1 = Energy of electron at n=1 (-2.17 ⋅ 10^-18 J)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

The energy at the first orbital is equal to -2.17 ⋅ 10^-18 J. What is the energy in terms of electron-volts (eV)?

(A) 19.2 eV
(B) 3.7 eV
(C) -1.4 eV
(D) -13.6 eV

A

(D) -13.6 eV

(-2.17 ⋅ 10^-18 J) / (1.6 ⋅ 10^-19) = approximately -10 eV (actual: -13.6 eV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The energy at the first orbital is equal to -13.6 eV. What is the energy in terms of electron-volts (eV) of an electron in the third orbital?

(A) -9.6 eV
(B) -4.8 eV
(C) -3.4 eV
(D) -1.5 eV

A

(D) -1.5 eV

En = E1/(n^2)
E3 = -13.6 eV / 3^2
E3 = approx. -1.5 eV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

An electron drops from the second orbital to the first orbital (-13.6 eV). A photon with how much energy is given off?

(A) -9.6 eV
(B) 6.3 eV
(C) 10.2 eV
(D) 13.6 eV

A

(C) 10.2 eV

En = E1/(n^2)
E2 = -13.6 eV / 2^2
E2 = approx. -3 eV

E1 - E2 = -13.6 eV - (-3eV) = -10.6 eV from the electron, so the photon has an energy of approx. 10.6 eV (actual: 10.2 eV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

What does it mean in terms of energy levels of electrons to say that the ionization energy of an atom is -13.6 eV?

A

It would require 13.6 eV to move an electron from n=1 to n=infinity, making the Hydrogen atom an ion.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Ernest Rutherford conducted an experiment in which he fired alpha particles at gold foil. He noticed that the majority of alpha particles were not deflected by the gold foil, and all alpha particles would exit the foil. What did these results reveal about an atom’s structure?

A

The Rutherford experiments concluded that an atom has a dense, positively charged nucleus taking up a small fraction of an atom’s volume.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Based on the previous description of the Bohr model, which of the following atoms does not represent the Bohr model?

(A) H
(B) He+
(C) Li+
(D) Be 3+

A

The Bohr model relies upon there being only a single electron. Li+ has two electrons, whereas all other options have only one electron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

True or false? The Rydberg unit of energy is equal to 2.18 ⋅ 10 ^-18 J/electron, and is the experimentally determined energy of an electron at the smallest possible orbital.

A

True. The Rydberg unit of energy is equal to 2.18 ⋅ 10 ^-18 J/electron, and is the experimentally determined energy of an electron at the smallest possible orbital.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

a) 1:3:5
b) 1:1:1
c) 1:4:9
d) 1:2:4

A

c) 1:4:9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what happens during mass spectroscopy?

A

sample is bombarded with electrons in order to ionize the sample

ions are then subjected to both electric and magnetic fields

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

mass spectrometer separates ions based on…

A

mass to charge ratio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

amount of deflection in mass spectrometer is ______ to mass to charge ratio

A

inversely propotional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

how to tell which ions would be least deflected in mass spectrometer?

A

highest mass to charge ratio –> least deflected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of an electron returning to its ground state?

a) it emits photons
b) distance between nucleus and electron decreases as the electron returns to its ground state
c) releases energy
d) gains potential energy as it falls to the ground level

A

d) gains potential energy as it falls to the ground level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

according to the bohr model, which of the following transitions of an electron produce a photon with the lowest energy?

a) n=3 to n=4
b) n=4 to n=3
c) n=4 to n=2
d) n=2 to n=4

A

b) n=4 to n=3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

a) 0
b) 360
c) 120
d) 60

A

a) 0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

all of the following statements are false about photoelectric effect EXCEPT?

a) kinetic energy of the emitted electron depends on the frequency of the photon and work function of the metal
b) energy of the incident photon is inversely proportional to its freq
c) number of electrons emitted depends only on the frequency of the incident photons
d) energy of the incident photon is directly proportion to its wavelength

A

a) kinetic energy of the emitted electron depends on the frequency of the photon and work function of the metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

a) inc the wavelength of photons
b) inc the number of photons
c) inc the freq of photons
d) dec the freq of photons

A

b) inc the number of photons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

photoelectric affect

what affects the velocity of electrons?

A
  • inc freq, inc energy, inc velocity
  • inc wavelength, dec energy, dec velocity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

a) red and violet
b) green and blue
c) violet and red
d) blue and green

A

a) red and violet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

a) Be3+
b) He+
c) H
d) Li+

A

d) Li+

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

a) Each series specifies the wavelength emitted when an electron drops down a specific number of orbitals, decreasing by exactly one, two, or three orbitals, respectively.
b) Each series specifies the wavelengths emitted when an electron drops from higher energy levels to the first, second, and third energy level, respectively.

c) Each series specifies the wavelength emitted when an electron drops down a specific number of orbitals, decreasing by exactly two, three, or four orbitals,
respectively.

d) Each series specifies the wavelengths emitted when an electron drops from a higher energy level to the second, third, and fourth energy level, respectively.

A

b) Each series specifies the wavelengths emitted when an electron drops from higher energy levels to the first, second, and third energy level, respectively.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

a) n=2 to n=4
b) n=4 to n=2
c) n=3 to n=4
d) n=4 to n=3

A

b) n=4 to n=2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

a) energy of electron is greater than the energy of the photon
b) energy of the electron is less than the energy of the photon
c) energy of electron is zero
d) energy of electron is the same as the energy of the photon

A

b) energy of the electron is less than the energy of the photon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

a) n=1 to n=2
b) n=1 to n=0
c) n=infinity to n=1
d) n=1 to n=infinity

A

d) n=1 to n=infinity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

a) 286 nm
b) 867 nm
c) 367 nm
d) 486 nm

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

a) 3.4 eV
b) -1.5 eV
c) -13.6 eV
d) 8 eV

A

b) -1.5 eV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

a) electron energy dec since E1 is neg
b) electron energy inc since E1 is neg
c) electron energy inc since E1 is pos
d) electron energy dec since E1 is pos

A

b) electron energy inc since E1 is neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

a) KE is neg, PE is pos
b) KE is neg, PE is neg
c) KE is pos, PE is pos
d) KE is pos, PE is neg

A

d) KE is pos, PE is neg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

a) 3/2
b) 4/9
c) 9/4
d) 2/3

A

b) 4/9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

a) nitrogen
b) carbon
c) hydrogen
d) sulfur

A

d) sulfur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

a) (mass x velocity) / (magnetic force)
b) (mass x acceleration) / (magnetic force)
c) (mass) x (velocity)^2 / (magnetic force)
d) (mass) x (acceleration)^2) / (magnetic force)

A

c) (mass) x (velocity)^2 / (magnetic force)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

a) distance the ion traveled through the electric field
b) radius of the ion’s path in magnetic field
c) charge of the ion
d) size of the ion

A

b) radius of the ion’s path in magnetic field

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

heisenberg uncertainty principle

A

it is impossible to simultaneously determine, with perfect accuracy, the momentum and position of an electron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

uncertainty principle eq (2)

A

p=mv, p = momentum

ΔxΔp ≥ h/4π

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

uncertainty principle

dec uncertain in position…

A

inc uncertainty in momentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

the uncertainty principle has nothing to do with…

A

the precision of the instrument we are using to measure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

wave particle duality

A

matter on a subatomic level can act as particles and as waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

energy eq with lambda

A

Ephoton = hc/lambda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

as principal quantum number (n) inc, the avg distance of electron ___

A

inc, atom is larger (radius), and energy inc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

principal quantum number (n)

A

n = any positive integer

main energy level/shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

azithmuthal (angular momentum) quantum number (l)

A

designates the subshell where the electron is located

shape of the orbital –> most probable location of electrons

important implications for chemical bonding and bond angles

l = 0, 1, 2… n-1

l = 0 –> s orbital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

magnetic quantum number (ml)

A

designates the exact orbital in which our electron is in -> direction of angular momentum

orientation

ml = -l to +l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

spin quantum number (ms)

A

ms = +1/2 up

ms = -1/2 down

because orbitals can have a max of 2 electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

pauli exclusion principle

A

any two electrons in a given atom cannot have the same 4 quantum numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

number of total orbitals within a shell level (n) can be found using

A

n2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

eq to calculate energy of electron using nth principle quantum number

A

En = Ei / n2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

eq to calculate az quantum number (l) and angular momentum

A

L2 = h2l(l+1)

L = angular momentum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

space quantization

A

any orbital has a certain number of orientations in space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

where do you lose the electron from?

A

from the orbital that is highest in energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

hard part of writing electronic configurations

A

metals at Cr -> jumps to [Ar] 4s1 2d5 -> fills up d until

Cu -> [Ar] 4s1 3d10 -> fills up 4 and stays at 3d10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Aufbau Principle

A

electrons will fill orbitals from lowest to highest energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

hund’s rule

A

electrons are going to fill orbitals one at a time before doubling up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

electron configuration periodic table

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

What is the electron configuration of osmium (Z=76)?

A

[Xe] 6s2 4f14 5d6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

What is the electron configuration of Fe3+?

A

[Ar] 3d5

electrons are removed from the 4s subshell before the 3d because it has a higher principal quantum number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

write out and compare an orbital diagram for a neutral oxygen atom and an O2- atom

A
  • both have fully filled 1s and 2s orbitals
  • O has 4 electrons in 2p
    • 2 paired, other 2 have own orbital
  • O2- has 6 electrons in 2p
    • all are paired
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

where did the Bohr model fail?

A
  • did not take into account the repulsion between multiple electrons surrounding the nucleus
  • electrons do NOT follow a clearly defined circular pathway or orbit at a fixed distance from the nucleus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

what do we know today about orbitals?

A

electrons move rapidly and are localized within regions of space around the nucleus called orbitals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

if we want to assess the position of an electron…

A

the electron has to stop (removing its momentum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

energy state

A

the position and energy of an electron described by its quantum numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

eq max number of electrons within a shell

A

2n2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

eq max number of electrons within a subshell

A

4l + 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

as l values inc…. the energies of the subshell

A

increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

as atomic number inc, the number of electrons

A

also increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

parallel spins

A

different orbitals with the same ms values

185
Q

n+l rule

A

the lower sum of the values of the first and second quantum numbers, n+l, the lower the energy of the subshell -> fills up first

186
Q

n+1 rule

if 2 subshells possess the same n+l value, the subshell with ______________ has a lower energy and will fill with electrons first

A

lower n value

187
Q

anions fill orbitals…

A

lowest to highest energy (same rules)

188
Q

cations fill orbitals…

A
  • start with neutral atom, remove electrons from the subshell with the highest n value first
  • if multiple subshell are tied for the highest n value, then electrons are removed from the subshell with the highest l value among these
189
Q

basis for hund’s rule

A

electron repulsion: electrons in the same orbital tend to be closer to each other and thus repel each other more than electrons placed in different orbitals

190
Q

according to hund’s rule, which types of orbitals have lower energy/high stability than other states?

A

half filled and fully filled orbitals

191
Q

exceptions to electron configuration

A

chromium (and other elements in its group) and copper (and other elements in its group)

192
Q

electron configuration

chromium exception

A

[Ar] 4s1 3d5

moving one electron from the 4s to the 3d allows the 3d to be half filled –> even though energetically unfavorable, making the 3d subshell half-filled outweighs the cost

193
Q

electron configuration

copper exception

A

[Ar] 4s13d10

a full d subshell outweighs the cost of moving an electron out of the 4s subshell

194
Q

paramagnetic

A

materials composed of atoms with unpaired electrons that will orient their spins in alignment with a magnetic field

the magnetic fields of the electrons add together

magnetic field causes parallel spins –> attraction

195
Q

diamagnetic

A

materials consisting of atoms that have only paired electrons –> slightly repelled by magnetic field

magnetic fields of the electrons cancel each other out

(sufficiently strong magnetic fields can still make diamagnetic substances levitate tho)

196
Q

label the groups on periodic table

A
197
Q

label how many valence electrons in each

A
198
Q

valence electrons

elements in period 3 (starting w Na) and below

A

may accept electrons into their d subshell

which allows them to hold more than 8 electrons in their valence shell

199
Q

valence electrons

langthanide and actinide series

A

highest s and f subshells

200
Q

valence electrons

groups IIIA - VIIIA (groups 13-18)

A

highest s and p subshells

201
Q

IR spectroscopy

purpose and how

A

determine chemical structure because different bonds will absorb different wavelengths

202
Q

UV-Vis spectroscopy

uses

A

absorption of light in visible and ultraviolet range

203
Q

absorption spectra may be represented as…

A
  1. a color bar with peak areas of absorption represented by black lines
  2. graph with absolute absorption as a function of wavelength
204
Q

fluorescence

A
  1. excite fluorescent substance with UV radiation
    1. UV light photons have high freq (short wavelengths)
  2. electron excited to higher energy state and returns to OG state in 2 or more steps
    1. each step involves less energy
    2. at each step, a photon is emitted with a lower frequency (longer wavelength) than the absorbed UV photon
205
Q

the farther away from nucleus, the electron is the ______ the potential energy

A

the higher the potential energy

206
Q

what equation can be used to determine the radius of any electron in terms of its principal quantum number?

A

rn = n2 r1

rn = Radius of electron at n
n = Principle quantum number
r1 = Radius of electron at n of 1 (5.3 ⋅ 10^-11)
207
Q

valence electrons

groups IA and IIA

A

highest s subshell

208
Q

Why doesn’t Hydrogen produce a continuous spectrum of light?

A

Because its orbitals have specific energy differences between them, resulting in light waves with specific energy levels and thus specific wavelengths. It cannot produce every different wavelength level.

209
Q

How does the Heisenberg uncertainty principle apply to the Bohr model of the electron?

A

It is impossible to know the location and momentum of an electron at the same time, which proves the Bohr model to be an inaccurate representation of the atom.

210
Q

Which quantum number is also called the azimuthal quantum number, and includes integer values up to n-1?

(A) l
(B) n
(C) m(l)
(D) m(s)

A

A) l

The angular momentum quantum number, or azimuthal quantum number, may have integer values as large as n-1.

211
Q

What are the possible values of n, l, m(l), and m(s) for when n = 2? How many electrons are in this shell?

A
n = 2
l = 0 or 1 (s or p)
m(l) = -1, 0, or +1
m(s) = +1/2 (up) or -1/2 (down)
# of electrons = 8
212
Q

Draw the shape of the d orbital(s) and f orbital(s).

A

d has 5 orientations

f has 7 orientations

213
Q

Which of these principles requires that an electron in the same orbital as another electron must spin in the opposite orientation?

(A) Aufbau principle
(B) Pauli exclusion principle
(C) Hund’s rule
(D) Electron configuration principle

A

(B) Pauli exclusion principle

214
Q

What is the shorthand electron configuration for Sc+?

(A) [Ar] 3d1 4s1
(B) [Ar] 3d2
(C) [Ar] 4d1 4s1
(D) [Ar] 4d2

A

(A) [Ar] 3d1 4s1

Note that the Scandium loses one of its 4s electrons and not its 3d electron when obtaining a +1 charge.

215
Q

what is the max number of electrons that can be found in the 3rd energy level?

a) 10
b) 8
c) 32
d) 18

A

d) 18

216
Q

What is the max number of electrons in an atom that have the following set of quantum numbers?

n=5 l=3 ml=+2 ms=+1/2

a) 2
b) 14
c) 1
d) 6

A

c) 1

217
Q

Which of the following subshells do electrons enter first?

a) 4p
b) 2d
c) 3d
d) 4s

A

d) 4s

218
Q

What is the total number of orbitals for the subshell with quantum numbers n=5 and l=1?

a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 7

A

c) 3

219
Q

What is the azimuthal quantum number (l) for the orbital from which an electron is lost to form Na+1?

a) 3
b) 1
c) 0
d) 2

A

c) 0

220
Q

chemical families of periodic table

A
221
Q

a) I, II, III
b) I and III only
c) II and III only
d) II only

A

a) I, II, III

222
Q

a) Hund’s rule
b) Aufbau Principle
c) Markovnikov’s rule
d) Pauli exclusions principle

A

d) Pauli exclusions principle

223
Q

Which can hold more electrons, the n=2 shell or the l=2 subshell, and by how large a difference?

a) n=2 can hold 4 more electrons than l=2
b) l=2 can hold 2 more electrons than n=2
c) n=2 can hold 2 more electrons than l=2
d) l=2 can hold 4 more electrons than n=2

A

b) l=2 can hold 2 more electrons than n=2

224
Q

how many electrons are in the n=3 energy level?

a) 8
b) 16
c) 18
d) 10

A

c) 18

225
Q

An astrologer is observing the emission spectrum of a star to see what gases it contains. What does an emission spectrum look like?

a) a noncontinuous spectrum with bright lines at wavelengths where a gas emits light
b) a continuous spectrum with dark lines at wavelengths where a gas absorbs light
c) a noncontinuous spectrum with bright lines at wavelengths where a gas absorbs light
d) a continuous spectrum with dark lines at wavelengths where a gas emits light

A

a) a noncontinuous spectrum with bright lines at wavelengths where a gas emits light

226
Q

Potassium reacts with chlorine to form KCl, an ionic compound. What is the electronic configuration of potassium in KCl?

a) [Ar] 4s2
b) [Ar] 4s13d2
c) [Ar] 4s1
d) [Ar]

A

d) [Ar]

227
Q

Yttrium in its ground state has 39 electrons. Which set of quantum numbers is not possible for Yttrium?

a) 4, 3, -3, -1/2
b) 2, 2, 1, 1/2
c) 3, 1, 0, 1/2
d) 5, 0, 0, -1/2

A

b) 2, 2, 1, 1/2

228
Q

a) has uncertainty of 2.6 x 10^-10 m
b) has uncertainty of at least 2.6 x 10^-11 m
c) has average value of 2.6 x 10^-11 m
d) has avg value of 2.6 x 10^-10 m

A

a) has uncertainty of 2.6 x 10^-10 m

229
Q

a) 656 nm
b) 80 nm
c) 322 nm
d) 122 nm

A

d) 122 nm

230
Q

a) light w a wavelength of 656 nm is emitted
b) light w a wavelength of less than 656 nm is emitted
c) light w a wavelength greater than 656 nm is emitted
d) light w a wavelength of 656 nm is absorbed

A

b) light w a wavelength of less than 656 nm is emitted

231
Q

does each orbital have to have one unpaired electron to be paramagnetic?

A

no, as long as there are only unpaired electrons

232
Q

electronegativity

A

the power of an atom in a molecule to attract or accept electrons to itself

233
Q

if an element is more electronegative…

A

it has a greater power to attract electrons to itself

234
Q

nonpolar covalent bond

A

no difference in electronegativity between the two atoms –> no pull

(difference of less than 0.5)

235
Q

polar covalent bond

A

difference in electronegativity between two atoms

(greater than 0.5)

236
Q

ionic bond

A
  • more electronegative atom steals the electrons
  • (about more than 1.7 difference)
  • atoms with low ionization energy will form bonds with atoms that have high electron affinity
237
Q

alkali metals

A
  • very reactive
    • react readily with nonmetals, especially halogens
    • react with water
  • found in nature with other elements
  • have only one loosely bound valence electron -> easily lose to form univalent cations
238
Q

alkaline earth metals

A
  • reactive (less than alkali metals)
  • found in nature with other elements
  • have 2 valence electrons -> easily removed to form divalent cations
239
Q

metals

A
  • solids at room temp except for mercury
  • lustrous, malleable, ductile
  • good conductors of heat and electricity
  • high melting points and densities (some exceptions)
240
Q

nonmetals

A
  • poor conductors of heat and electricity
  • solid ones - brittle, little/no luster
  • include halogens, noble gases
241
Q

halogens

A
  • very reactive non metals
    • 7 valence electrons
    • really want to complete their octets by gaining an electron
  • corrosive
  • especially reactive toward alkali and alkaline earth metals
  • found in nature as ions (halides) or diatomic molecules
242
Q

noble gases

A
  • aka inert gases
  • colorless
  • generally unreactive because stable from having 8 electrons in valence shell
    • highest ionization energy
  • extremely low BP
  • exist as gases at room temp
243
Q

metalloids

A
  • aka semimetals
  • in between metals and nonmetals
  • reactivities dependent on the elements with which they are reacting
244
Q

transition metals

A
  • other def: element whose atom has an incomplete d subshell or which can give rise to cations with an incomplete d subshell
    • more general def: d orbital ones
  • very hard
  • have high melting and boiling points
  • malleable
  • good conductors due to loosely held electrons in d orbitals
  • can have different oxidation states
    • bc capable of losing different numbers of electrons from s and d valence electrons
    • form many different ionic compounds
  • many act as cofactors for enzymes
245
Q

as you go down the groups in periodic table… atomic radius ____

A

atomic radius increases

(bc adding electrons of higher energy levels that are farther away from nucleus)

246
Q

as you go across periods to the right… atomic radius ____

A

decreases

more protons as you go across -> more electrons in outer shell also increases -> nucleus pulls outer shell electron in more than inner shell electrons shield

Zeft inc

247
Q

electron shielding

A
  • inner electrons shielding outer electron from positively charged nucleus
  • protons in nucleus pull outer shell electron in -> inner shell electrons repels outer shell electron
  • (outer electrons don’t shield)
248
Q

as you go down a group in periodic table, ionization energy _____

A

decreases

249
Q

factors that affect ionization energy

A
  • effective nuclear charge
    • nuclear charge: inc nuclear charge, inc ionization energy
    • electron shielding: inc electron shielding, dec ionization energy
  • distance of outer electron from nucleus: distance inc, dec ionization energy
250
Q

nuclear charge

A

the more positive charge you have in nucleus, the more of an attractive force the electrons field -> the harder it would be to pull the electron away

increase in nuclear charge -> increase in ionization energy

251
Q

effective nuclear charge

simple way to calculate

A

~ Zeft = Z - S

Z = nuclear charge

S = shielding electrons

252
Q

electron affinity

A
  • energy released when a gaseous species gains an electron
  • adding electron to neutral atom
  • gives off energy to form anion
    • negative energy
  • exothermic process
    • ΔHrxn = negative
    • but reported as positive number
253
Q

adding an electron but EA ≥ 0

A
  • adding energy in to force the electron to form the anion
    • positive energy
  • because atom does not have electron affinity
254
Q

as you go across periods to the right… nuclear charge ____

A

increases

255
Q

as you go across periods to the right… effective nuclear charge ____

A

increases

256
Q

as you go across periods to the right… electron affinity ____

+exceptions

A

increases

because effective nuclear charge increases -> electron adding would feel more of an attractive force

exceptions: Be, B ish, N, Ne

257
Q

as you go down a group, the atomic radius ___

A

increases

because addition of a new energy shell

258
Q

as you go across the periodic table, ionization energy ___

A

increrases

inc Zeft -> greater force

AR decreases

259
Q

the higher your ionization energy is, the ___ likely you are to give up electrons

A

less likely

electrons harder to remove

260
Q

as you go across periods to the right, electronegativity ____

A

increases

Zeft increases –> higher force pulling in electrons

261
Q

most electronegative atom

A

Flourine

262
Q

As you go down the groups. electronegativity ____

A

decreases

AR increases -> force of nuclear protons decreases

263
Q

for noble gases, electronegativity is ____

A

undefined

noble gases can’t accept any more electrons

264
Q

the lower your ionization energy is, the ___ likely you are to give up electrons

A

more

electrons easily removed

265
Q

high electron affinity means that

A

atoms will easily accept electrons

266
Q

low electron affinity means that

A

atoms will not easily accept electrons

267
Q

ionic bonds

periodic trends

A

atoms with low ionization energy will form bonds with atoms that have high electron affinity

(atoms of the left and right side of period table, noble gases not included)

268
Q

periodic law

A

the chemical and physical properties of the elements are dependent, in a periodic way, upon their atomic numbers

269
Q

representative elements

A

A elements in periodic table

have their valence electrons in orbitals of s or p subshells

270
Q

nonrepresentative elements

A

include transition elements, lanthanide, and actinade series

271
Q

transition metals

periodic trends

A
  • 2 or more oxidation states
    • bc valence electrons are loosely held
272
Q

metals

periodic trends

A
  • easily give up electrons
273
Q

oxidation state

A

charges when forming bonds with other atoms

274
Q

nonmetals

periodic t5rends

A

inability to easily give up electrons

275
Q

groups in periodic table that are likely to be lustrous

A

metals

276
Q

groups in periodic table that are likely to be be poor conductors of heat and electricity

A

nonmetals

277
Q

groups in periodic table that are likely to be good conductors but brittle

A

metalloids

278
Q

effective nuclear charge

A

electrostatic attraction between the valence shell electrons and the nucleus

279
Q

atomic radius

A

equal to 1/2 of the distance between the centers of 2 atoms of an element that are briefly in contact with each other

(akin to diameter)

(opposite of all other periodic trends)

280
Q

can atomic radius be measured using single atom?

A

cannot be measured by using a single atom because electrons are constantly moving around

281
Q

ionic radii

assumptions

A
  1. metals lose electrons and become positive; non-metal gain electrons and become negative
  2. metalloids can go in either direction, but tend to follow the trend based on which side of the metalloid line they fall on
282
Q

nonmetals close to metalloid line

A

require more electrons than other nonmetals to achieve the most stable electronic configuration -> possess larger ionic radius than other nonmetals

283
Q

metals closer to metalloid line

A

have more electrons to lose to achieve most stable electronic configuration -> ionic radius is smaller than other metals

284
Q

ionization energy

endo or exothermic?

A

endothermic because removing an electron from an atom requires an input of heat

285
Q

why is the removal of a 2nd or 3rd electron require more energy?

A

remove of more than 1 electron means that electrons are being removed from an increasing catatonic (positive) species

286
Q

active metals

A
  • include the alkali and alkaline earth methals
  • low ionization energy
  • reactive
  • do not exist naturally in neutral forms -> found in ionic compounds, minerals, or ores
287
Q

electron affinity

endo or exothermic?

A

exothermic because it expels energy in form of heat to acquire an electron

288
Q

periodic trends

A
289
Q

which has larger radius?

F or F-

A

F-

290
Q

which has larger radius?

K or K+

A

K

291
Q

chalcogens

A
  • crucial for normal biological functions
  • at high concentrations, many can be toxic or damaging (usually the heavier ones)
292
Q

groups in periodic table that exhibit:

high reactivity to water

A

groups 1 and 2

293
Q

groups in periodic table that exhibit:

negative oxidation states

A

almost all groups but most notably transition metals

294
Q

groups in periodic table that exhibit:

multiple oxidation states

A

all groups but most notably transition metals

295
Q

groups in periodic table that exhibit:

possess a full octet in the neutral state

A

noble gases

296
Q

When Dmitri Mendeleev published the first periodic table, it was based on the periodic law. Which of the following best describes the periodic law?

(A) Elements’ physical properties depend on their atomic numbers in a periodic way.
(B) Elements’ chemical properties depend on their atomic numbers in a periodic way.
(C) Elements’ chemical and physical properties depend on their atomic numbers in a periodic way.
(D) Elements’ chemical, physical, and nuclear properties depend on their atomic numbers in a periodic way.

A

(C) Elements’ chemical and physical properties depend on their atomic numbers in a periodic way.

297
Q

Sodium (electronegativity of .9) bound to Chlorine (electronegativity of 3.0) is what type of bond? How did you know this based on electronegativity values?

(A) Nonpolar covalent
(B) Polar covalent
(C) Ionic
(D) Hydrogen

A

(C) Ionic

Sodium and Chlorine have an electronegativity difference of 2.1, which is greater than 1.7, making their bond an ionic bond.

298
Q

Periodic table columns are referred to as _________ while periodic table rows are referred to as _________.

Fill in the blanks using the following options:

  • periods
  • halogens
  • metalloids
  • groups
A

Periodic table columns are referred to as groups while periodic table rows are referred to as periods.

299
Q

Which of the following best explains why elements in the same group share similar chemical properties?

(A) Elements in the same group have a similar number of nucleons, giving them similar chemical properties.
(B) Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons, giving them similar chemical properties.
(C) Elements in the same group have the same number of electrons, giving them similar chemical properties.
(D) Elements in the same group have various multiples of the first element’s valence electrons, giving them similar chemical properties.

A

(B) Elements in the same group have the same number of valence electrons, giving them similar chemical properties.

Having the same number of valence electrons allows the different elements to interact with their environments in similar ways.

300
Q

True or false? Alkaline earth metals are more reactive than Alkali metals because Alkaline earth metals have more electrons.

A

False. Alkali metals are more reactive than Alkaline earth metals because Alkali metals have an unpaired electron.

301
Q

True or false? Metals are considered to be good conductors because they can exist in multiple oxidation states. This means that valence electrons are only loosely held by an atom and are free to move.

A

True. Metals are considered to be good conductors because they can exist in multiple oxidation states. This means that valence electrons are only loosely held by an atom and are free to move.
This is also a description of the term “sea of electrons”.

302
Q

Halogens belong to which group as compared to Noble Gases?

A

Halogens belong to group 7A as compared to Noble Gases, which belong to group 8A.

303
Q

True or false? Noble gases are more reactive than halogens because noble gases are more mobile and mixable as gases.

A

False. Halogens are more reactive than noble gases because halogens have an unpaired electron in their outermost orbital.

304
Q

The octet rule states that an element will gain or lose electrons to achieve a stable octet formation, like the noble gases have. However, the octet rule has many exceptions. Which of the following is NOT one of the exceptions experimentally seen?

(A) Noble gases like Xenon can form covalent bonds using more than eight electrons like XeF6.
(B) Helium is a noble gas and relatively inert, even though it only has two valence electrons.
(C) Nitrogen can form covalent bonds using more than eight electrons, like in the compound NO3 (with a central Nitrogen and double bonds between 2 O and N)
(D) Silicon can form covalent bonds using more than eight electrons, like in SiO4 (with a central Silicon and double bonds between 2 O and Si).

A

(C) Nitrogen can form covalent bonds using more than eight electrons, like in the compound NO3 (with a central Nitrogen and double bonds between 2 O and N)

The octet rule does not have exceptions in period 2, where Nitrogen is found. Also, that description of NO3 in the answer is incorrect.

305
Q

True or false? Metalloids can also be called semimetals, because they can alternatively act as metals or nonmetals in the same environment.

A

False. Metalloids (also called semimetals) can act as either metals or nonmetals DEPENDING on the environment. For example, Boron will act like a nonmetal when surrounded by Sodium but like a metal when surrounded by Fluorine.

306
Q

Why does IUPAC not consider Zn(s) a transition metal?

A

It has a complete d-subshell, even in its +2 cation form.

307
Q

A cation is bigger or smaller than its original atom? Why?

A

Smaller because you are taking an electron away, potentially reducing electron repulsion, making it smaller.

308
Q

An anion is bigger or smaller than its original atom? Why?

A

Bigger because you are adding an electron, potentially increasing electron repulsion, making it bigger.

309
Q

If Hydrogen and Lithium both have the same Zeff, why does Hydrogen have a higher ionization energy?

A

Because Lithium’s outer electron is farther away from the nucleus.

310
Q

The acidity of a compound depends on how well an atom can accommodate a negative charge. How does this relate to electronegativity’s trends of increasing moving up and to the right?

(A) Acidity will have the same trends because electronegativity is how much an element wants a negative charge, and donating the proton gives it a negative charge.
(B) Acidity will have the same trends because electronegativity increases as atomic radius decreases, and a smaller radius will allow a more delocalized negative charge, providing more stability.
(C) Acidity will not have the same trends because electronegativity is how much an element wants a negative charge, and donating the proton gives it a negative charge.
(D) Acidity will not have the same trends because electronegativity increases as atomic radius decreases, and a larger radius will allow a more delocalized negative charge, providing more stability.

A

(D) Acidity will not have the same trends because electronegativity increases as atomic radius decreases, and a larger radius will allow a more delocalized negative charge, providing more stability.

Acidity increases moving to the right and moving down the periodic table.

311
Q

Which has a greater electron affinity: Lithium or Berylium? Why?

A

Lithium. This breaks the normal electron affinity trend because Berylium’s new electron will be added to a far away p orbital, which will experience more shielding than Lithium completing its s orbital.

312
Q

Which has a greater electron affinity: Nitrogen or Carbon? Why?

A

Carbon. This breaks the normal electron affinity trend because Nitrogen’s new electron will be added to a p orbital with another electron, which increases the amount of repulsion that the new electron will experience.

313
Q

general rule for balancing complex chemical equations

A
  1. balance molecules with multiple elements in them first
    1. (leave single element molecules for last)
  2. treat groups as one thing
314
Q

balance

A
315
Q

combination reactions

A

A + B -> AB

two or more reactants combine to form new compound

316
Q

decomposition reactions

A

AB -> A + B

reactant dissociates into 2 or more new compounds

usually using heat, high frequency radiation, or electrolysis

317
Q

single displacement reaction

A

aka substitution reactions

C kicks out B

318
Q

double displacement reaction

A

aka metathesis reaction

one of products is removed from the solution as a precipitate or gas or when two of the of species combine to form a weak electrolyte that remains undissociated in solution

319
Q

combustion reactions

A

hydrocarbons are burned in presence of diatomic gas to form CO2 and H2O molecules

320
Q

redox reactions

A

oxidation states of atoms change

chemical reactions in which at least one chemical species is gaining electrons (being reduced) and another chemical species is losing electrons (being oxidized)

321
Q

how to manually calculate oxidation state

A

valence electrons - non bonding electrons - electrons gained from bonds

  • more electronegative element gets all the electrons in a bond
322
Q

assigning ox numbers

A
  1. if atom is made of only one kind (elemental state) of atom, ox = 0
  2. atoms in monoatomic (single atom) ions, ox = their charge
  3. assign ox to FHO
    1. F = -1
    2. H = +1
    3. O = -2
      1. except peroxides = -1
      2. more electroneg elements = +2
  4. Group IA, ox = +1
  5. Group IIA, ox = +2
  6. Group VIIA, ox = -1
    1. except when combined with element of higher electronegativity
323
Q

Rules for balancing redox equations

A
  1. Assign oxidation numbers to see what is being reduced and what is being oxidized.
  2. Divide reaction into two half reactions
  3. Balance each half reaction
    1. a) balance all elements except O and H
    2. b) add H2O to balance O
    3. c) add H+ to balance H
  4. Balance the charges by adding electrons and multiplying to make sure -> each ½ reaction has the same number of electrons
  5. Add the two ½ reactions together.
  6. IF BASIC, add OH- to both sides to neutralize (cancel) the H+’s
    1. cancel
    2. OH- combine with H+ to make water
  7. Check atoms and charges
324
Q

oxidation number def

A

effective ionic charge obtained by assuming 100% ionicity

guide to the type of reactions that a substance can undergo because an element in its highest oxidation state may only be reduced whereas one in an intermediate oxidation state may either be oxidized or reduced

325
Q

reduction

A

gain of e- (OIL RIG)

ox # gets smaller

326
Q

reducing agent

A

gains/accepts e-

is oxidized

  • low electronegativity
  • low IE
  • easily loses electrons
327
Q

oxidation

A

loss of e- (OIL RIG)

ox # gets bigger

328
Q

oxidizing agent

A

loses/donates e-

is reduced

  • high electronegativity
  • high IE
  • easily gains electrons
329
Q

gain of e-

ox # gets smaller

A

reduction

330
Q

gains/accepts e-

is oxidized

A

reducing gaent

331
Q

loss of e-

ox # gets bigger

A

oxidation

332
Q

loses/donates e-

is reduced

A

oxidizing agent

333
Q

balance

A

redox

334
Q

assign ox number

A
335
Q

a) all of the above
b) 3rd ionization energy
c) 2nd ionization energy
d) 1st ionization energy

A

b) 3rd ionization energy

336
Q

Which of the following has the highest ionic radii?

a) N3-
b) F-
c) Li+
d) C

A

a) N3-

337
Q

Which of the following is TRUE about transition elements?

a) they cannot conduct electricity
b) they have varying oxidation states
c) they all have an incomplete d orbital
d) they are more electronegative than halogens

A

b) they have varying oxidation states

338
Q

a) electron affinity, since both describe an energy change when the number of electrons is changed in an atom
b) electronegativity, since both describe qualitative changes in electron density
c) electronegativity, since both describe an energy change when the number of electrons is changed in an atom
d) electron affinity, since both describe qualitative changes in electron density

A

b) electronegativity, since both describe qualitative changes in electron density

339
Q

a) no, iron is never seen at oxidation states higher than +3 due to hund’s rule
b) yes, iron is occasionally seen with a charge of +8, giving it the same electron configuration as Argon
c) yes, iron is occasionally seen with a charge of +6, giving it the same electron configuration as calcium
d) no, iron is only able to lose its highest s orbital electrons

A

c) yes, iron is occasionally seen with a charge of +6, giving it the same electron configuration as calcium

340
Q

a) silicon can form covalent bonds using more than 8 electrons, like in the compound SiO4
b) helium is a noble gas and relatively inert, even though it only has 2 valence electrons
c) xenon can form covalent bonds using more than 8 electrons, like in the compound XeF6
d) nitrogen can form covalent bonds using more than 8 electrons, like in the compound NO3

A

d) nitrogen can form covalent bonds using more than 8 electrons, like in the compound NO3

341
Q

a) add an ethanol subunit
b) reduce the concentration of crown ether
c) increase the concentration of crown ether
d) remove an ethanol subunit

A

d) remove an ethanol subunit

342
Q

a) it would decrease by about 1
b) it would increase by about 1
c) it would stay the same
d) it cannot be determined

A

b) it would increase by about 1

343
Q

a) At
b) F
c) Li
d) Cs

A

d) Cs

344
Q

a) He
b) Br
c) Mg
d) Rb

A

a) He

345
Q

a) K+ > Na+ > Cl- > Ar
b) K+ > Cl- > Ar > Na+
c) Cl- > Ar > K+ > Na+
d) Na+ > K+ > Ar > Cl-

A

c) Cl- > Ar > K+ > Na+

346
Q

which of the following classifications of elements is least conductive?

a) transition metals
b) metalloids
c) alkali metals
d) alkaline earth metals

A

b) metalloids

347
Q

the elements fall into 3 broad categories: metals, metalloids, and nonmetals. which of the following groups contains exactly one nonmetal?

a) 1
b) 5
c) 9
d) 2

A

a) 1

348
Q

a) they are all alkaline earth metals
b) they are all alkali metals
c) they are all transition metals
d) they are all metalloids

A

b) they are all alkali metals

349
Q

a) Ca
b) Sr
c) Ba
d) Mg

A

c) Ba

350
Q

bond polarity is important for understanding the interactions of molecules. which of the following would have the least polar bond?

a) F-N
b) Na-Cl
c) B-H
d) Cl-P

A

c) B-H

351
Q

a) with the hydrogens closer to the ion, bc oxygen is more electronegative than hydrogen
b) with the hydrogens closer to the ion, bc hydrogen is more electronegative than hydrogen
c) with the oxygen closer to the ion, bc oxygen is more electronegative than oxygen
d) with the oxygen closer to the ion, bc hydrogen is more electronegative than oxygen

A

c) with the oxygen closer to the ion, bc oxygen is more electronegative than oxygen

352
Q

a student wants to make a permanent magnet, and is learning about paramagnetic and diamagnetic materials. which material would make a better magnet?

a) neither
b) both
c) diagmagnetic
d) paramagnetic

A

a) neither

353
Q

a student is surprised to learn that the acidity of a compound depends on how well an atom can accommodate a negative charge. how does this relate to electronegativity’s trends of increasing moving up and to the right?

a) Acidity will have the same trends because electronegativity depends on Z(eff), which increases as you move up and to the right on the periodic table.
b) Acidity will have the same trends because electronegativity is how much an element wants a negative charge, and donating the proton gives it a negative charge.
c) Acidity will not have the same trends as electronegativity.
d) Acidity will have the same trends because electronegativity increases as atomic radius decreases, and a smaller radius will allow a more delocalized negative charge, providing more stability.

A

c) Acidity will not have the same trends as electronegativity.

354
Q

Reactions between metals and nonmetals are often
extremely exothermic, since both elements gain stability
by moving closer to the octet rule. Which of the following
would not be an example of this scenario?

a) boron and nitrogen
b) aluminum and phosphorus
c) radium and polonium
d) rubidium and astatine

A

a) boron and nitrogen

355
Q

law of conservation of mass and charge

A

reactants consumed must equal the mass of products generated

ensure that the number of atoms of each element on the reactant side equals the number of atoms of that element on the product side

356
Q

stoichiometric coefficients

A

used to indicate the relative number of moles in a given species

357
Q

3 step process for stoichiometry

A
  1. convert from the given units to moles
  2. use mole ratio
  3. convert from moles to the desired units
358
Q

1 mole of any ideal gas at STP = ___ L

A

22.4 L

359
Q

1 mole of any substance = ___ particles

A

6.022 x 1023

360
Q

1 mole of any substance = ____ grams

A

its molar mass in grams

361
Q

when given quantities of 2 reactants are given on MCAT….

A

expect to have to figure out limiting reagent

362
Q

limiting reagent

A

limits the amount of product that can be formed in the reaction

363
Q

determining limiting reagent

A
  1. balance eq
  2. covert mass to moles first
  3. use mole ratio to convert how much of product is made from mole of each product
    1. reactant that produces smaller amount of product is LR
  4. find amount remaining excess reactant by subtracting mass of excess reagent consumed from total mass of excess reagent given
364
Q

How many grams of calcium chloride are needed to prepare 71.7 g of silver chloride according to the following equation?

CaCl + 2 AgNO3 –> Ca(NO3)2 + 2 AgCl

A
365
Q

Example: If 27.9 g of Fe react with 24.1 g of S to produce FeS, what would be the limiting reagent? How many grams of excess reagent would be present in the vessel at the end of the reaction?

Fe + S –> FeS

A
366
Q

theoretical yield

A

max amount of product that can be generated as predicted from the balanced eq, assuming that all of the limiting reactant is consumed

367
Q

actual yield

A

amount of product one actually obtains during the reaction

368
Q

percent yield eq

A

percent yield = actual yield/theoretical yield x 100%

369
Q

What is the percent yield for a reaction in which 28 g of Cu is produced by reacting 32.7 g of n in excess CuSO, solution?

The balanced equation is as follows:
Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) –> Cu (s) + ZnSO4 (aq)

A
370
Q

ionic compounds are made up of…

A
  • cations –> usually metals
  • anions –> usually nonmetals
371
Q

coulombs law

ionic compounds

A
  • distance between nuclei in ionic bonds is inversely proportional to the force
  • ionic compounds with long bond distances are much more weakly held together
372
Q

ionic compounds with long bond distances are ___strongly/weakly___ held together

A

weakly

373
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

elements that can form more than one positive ion

A

(usually metals)

charge - roman numeral in parenthesis

followed by name of element

ex: Fe3+ Iron(III)

374
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

-ous

A

ions with lesser charge

ex: Fe2+ Ferrous

375
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

-ic

A

ions with greater charge

ex: Fe3+ Ferric

376
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

-ide

A

monoatomic anions

ex: H- hydride, S2- sulfide

377
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

-ite

A

when an element forms 2 oxyanions, name of one with less oxygen

(litest anions have the fewest oxygens)

ex: NO2- nitrite

378
Q

oxyanion

A

polyatomic anions that contain oxygen

379
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

-ate

A

when an element forms 2 oxyanions, the name of the one with more oxygen

(heaviest anions ate the most oxygens)

ex: NO3- nitrate

380
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

hypo-

A

extended series of oxyanions

less oxygen

ex: ClO- hypochlorite

381
Q

nomenclature ionic compounds

per-

A

(hyper)

extended series of oxyanions

more oxygen

ex: Perchlorate ClO4-

382
Q

alkali metals are not typically found in nature in uncharged state because…

A

they are highly reactive with moisture

instead they are found as cations in salts (NaCl)

383
Q

ion charges

alkali metals (group 1)

A

+1

384
Q

ion charges

alkaline earth metals (group 2)

A

+2

385
Q

ion charges

halogens (group 17)

A

form monoatomic anions

-1

386
Q

nonmetals generally form __cations/anions___

A

anions

387
Q

how does color of a solution indicate ox state of a given element in the solution?

A

same element in different ox states can undergo different electron transitions and absorb different frequencies of light

388
Q

ionic compounds make __good/bad__ electrolytes because….

A

good

they dissolve most readily

389
Q

nonpolar covalent compounds make __good/bad__ electrolytes because….

A

bad

they do not form current carrying ions

390
Q

solid ionic compounds are __good/bad__ conductors of electricity because…

A

bad

charged particles are rigidly set in place by the lattice arrangement of the crystalline solid

391
Q

ionic compounds in aqueous solutions are __good/bad__ conductors of electricity because…

A

good

lattice arrangement is disrupted by ion dipole interactions -> cations and anions free to move –> ions can conduct electricity

392
Q

electrolytes

A
  • solutes that enable solutions to carry currents
  • electrical conductivity of solutions is governed by presence and concentration of ions
393
Q

a solute is considered a strong electrolyte if…

ex

A

it dissociates completely into its constituent ions

ex: CaCl and KI -> highly polar covalent bonds

394
Q

a solute is considered a weak electrolyte if…

ex

A

it ionizes or hydrolyzes incompletely in aqueous solution

only some of the solute is dissolved into its ionic constiutents

395
Q

a solute is considered a nonelectrolyte if…

ex

A

they do not ionizat at all inf water, retaining their molecular structure and solution (may also limit solubility)

ex: nonpolar gasses and organic compounds - CO2, glucose

396
Q

identify the following ions as cations or anions, then provide the formula

phosphate

A

anion

PO43-

397
Q

identify the following ions as cations or anions, then provide the formula

hypochlorite

A

anion

ClO2-

398
Q

identify the following ions as cations or anions, then provide the formula

ammonium

A

cation

NH4+

399
Q

identify the following ions as cations or anions, then provide the formula

bicarbonate

A

anion

HCO3-

400
Q

identify the following ions as cations or anions, then provide the formula

nitrite

A

anion

NO2-

401
Q

identify the following ions as cations or anions, then provide the formula

chromium(II)

A

cation

Cr2+

402
Q

almost all oxidizing agents contain…

A

oxygen or another strongly electronegative element (such as a halogen)

403
Q

reducing agents often contain…

A

metal ions or hydrides (H-)

404
Q

complete ionic equation

A

various species split into all ions present + spectator ions

405
Q

conventions of formula writing

cation and anion

A

cation 1st and anion 2nd

406
Q

spectator ions

A

ions not taking part in overall reaction but simply remaining in solution unchanged

407
Q

net ionic equation

A
  • all aqueous compounds split into constituent ions
  • solid slats should be kept together
  • no spectator ions
408
Q

disproportionation reactions

A

aka dismutation

type of redox reaction

element undergoes both oxidation and reduction in producing its products

409
Q

redox titrations

A
  • follow the transfer of charge (as electrons) to reach the equivalence point
  • utilize indicators that change color at a particular voltage (emf) value
410
Q

iodometric titration

A
  • type of redox titration
  • relies on titration of free iodine radicals
  • uses starch indicators to identify iodine complexes
  • presence of iodine is initially determined by a dark solution in the presence of starch
    • at the endpoint of the titration, a colorless solution develops
411
Q
A
412
Q

A sample is assayed for lead by a redox titration with I3- (ag). A 10.00 g sample is crushed, dissolved in sulfuric acid, and passed over a reducing agent so that all the lead is in the form Pb2+. The Pb2+ (aq) is completely oxidized to Pb4+ by 32.60 mL of a 0.7 M solution of NaI3.

The balanced equation for the reaction is:
I3- + (aq) + Pb2+ (aq) –> Pb4+ (aq) + 3 I- (ag)

Calculate the mass of lead in the sample.

A
413
Q

The law of conservation of matter could also be applied to electrons, so that electrons are not created nor destroyed in a reaction, only transferred from one element to another. If this is true, which of the following can be changed in a chemical reaction?

(A) Number of nucleons
(B) Oxidation state
(C) Electron affinity
(D) None of the above can change

A

(B) Oxidation state

The oxidation state of an atom is similar to an atom’s “ownership” of valence electrons, and could change when interacting with other compounds, like in a chemical reaction.

414
Q

How is the formal charge of Chlorine changing in this hypothetical reaction: Li(s) + Cu(s) + OCl- -> CuO + LiCl?

(A) Chlorine goes from a -1 to a +1 formal charge
(B) Chlorine goes from a +1 to a -1 formal charge
(C) Chlorine goes from a 0 to a -1 formal charge
(D) Chlorine does not change, staying at a -1 formal charge

A

(C) Chlorine goes from a 0 to a -1 formal charge

Li(s) + Cu(s) + OCl- -> CuO + LiCl
Chlorine’s formal charge goes from 0 to -1.
We know that Chlorine starts out at a neutral formal charge based on the Lewis dot structure of Hypochlorite and how we calculate formal charges.
We also know that Chlorine has a -1 formal charge in LiCl because of the nature of that ionic bond.

415
Q

Define electrolytes, and explain why they are much better at conducting than solid salts.

A

Electrolytes are solutes that enable solutions (often aqueous) to carry currents. Electrolytes are free to move around in the solution, so the charges can move, unlike in solid salts where charged particles are rigidly set in place by lattice structures.

416
Q

from the electronic configurations given below, which element is most likely to act as an oxidizing agent?

a) [Ne]3s1
b) [Ar]4s23d104p6
c) [Ar]4s23d10
d) [Ne]3d9

A

d) [Ne]3d9

417
Q

Some bacteria can oxidize sulfur to sulfuric acid and sulfite depending on the environmental conditions. What is the role of oxygen in these reactions?

a) it acts as a reducing agent
b) it loses electrons
c) it makes the reactions go faster
d) it acts as an oxidizing agent

A

d) it acts as an oxidizing agent

418
Q

What is the ox number of chlorine in sodium hypochlorite (NaClO)?

a) +2
b) +1
c) -1
d) 0

A

b) +1

419
Q

a) none of the above
b) I only
c) II and III only
d) III only

A

a) none of the above

420
Q

MnO4- reacts with I- to form I2 and Mn2+ in a basic solution. What is the balanced eq for this reaction?

a) 2 MnO4- + 10 I- + 16 OH- –> 5 I2 + 2 Mn2+ + 8 H2O
b) 2 MnO4- + 10 I- + 16 H<span>+</span> –> 5 I2 + 2 Mn2+ + 8 H2O
c) 2 MnO4- + 10 I- + 8 H2O –> 5 I2 + 2 Mn2+ + 16 H+
d) 2 MnO4- + 10 I- + 8 H2O –> 5 I2 + 2 Mn2+ + 16 OH-

A

d) 2 MnO4- + 10 I- + 8 H2O –> 5 I2 + 2 Mn2+ + 16 OH-

421
Q

Acid-base reactions are often also redox reactions. MnO4- reacts with I- in an acidic solution to form I2, and Mn2+. What is the ratio of H+ to I- used up by this reaction?

a) 1.6
b) 0.6
c) 0
d) 1

A

a) 1.6

422
Q

Two aldehydes can react with each other to form an alcohol and a carboxylic acid. This is an example of a:

a) acid base rxn
b) elimination rxn
c) combustion rxn
d) disproportionate rxn

A

d) disproportionate rxn

423
Q

What are the ox number of oxygen in OF2 and ClO2-?

a) -2 and -2
b) +2 and -2
c) -2 and +1
d) +1 and -2

A

b) +2 and -2

424
Q

A student is trying to test the conductivity of different solvents, preparing for a big experiment. They are testing deionized water and pure diethyl ether as their two solvents. Which solution(s) will work well as a conductor in this experiment?

a) Both diethyl ether and deionized water will be good
conductors, since they are both polar.

b) Deionized water will be a better conductor, since it is more polar than diethyl ether.
c) Neither deionized water nor diethyl ether will be good conductors, since they both lack electrolytes.
d) Diethyl ether will be a better conductor, since it is less polar than deionized water.

A

c) Neither deionized water nor diethyl ether will be good conductors, since they both lack electrolytes.

425
Q

Although the law of conservation of matter says that mass remains constant in a chemical reaction, those masses are free to move. Which of the following can be changed in a chemical reaction?

a) atom’s mass number
b) atom’s electron affinity
c) atom’s polarizability
d) atom’s oxidation state

A

d) atom’s oxidation state

426
Q

molecule

A

combination of 2 or more atoms held together by covalent bonds

smallest units of compounds that display their identifying properties

427
Q

ionic compounds do not form true molecules because…

A

of the way the oppositely charged ions arrange themselves in the solid state

428
Q

ionic compounds form combinations of elements with ____ electronegativity differences

A

large

429
Q

molecular compounds form combinations of elements with ____ electronegativity differences

A

similar

430
Q

formula unit

A

empirical formula of an ionic compound

431
Q

molecular weight

A

sum of the atomic weights of all of the atoms in the molecule

units: amu/molecule

432
Q

formula weight of an ionic compound is found by

A

adding up the atomic weights of the constituent ions according to its empirical formula

433
Q

molar mass

A

mass of one mole of a compounds

g/mol

434
Q

equivalents

A

how many moles of the thing we are interested in (protons, hydroxide ions, electrons, ions) will one mole of a given compound produce?

435
Q

gram equivalent weight

eq

A

produces one equivalent of the particle of interest

gram equivalent weight = molar mass / n

n = number of particles of interest produced or consumed per molecule

436
Q

equivalents and gram equivalent weight eq

A

equivalents = mass of compounds / gram equivalent weight

437
Q

conversion for normality to molarity

A

molarity = normality / n

n = number of particles of interest produced or consumed per molecule

438
Q

law of constant composition

A

any pure sample of a given compounds will contain the same elements in an identical mass ratio

439
Q

empirical formula

A

simplest whole number ratio of the elements in the compound

440
Q

molecular formula

A

exact number of atoms in each element in the compound

is a multiple of empirical formula

441
Q

percent composition of an element

A

percent of sa specific compound that is made up of a given element

442
Q

percent composition eq

A

mass of element in formula / molar mass x 100%

443
Q

What are the empirical and molecular formulas of a carbohydrate that contains 40.9% carbon, 4.58% hydrogen, and 54.52% oxygen and has a molar mass of 264 g/mol?

A
444
Q

neutralization reaction

A

type of double displacement reaction

acid reacts with a base to produce a salt (and usually water)

HCl + NaOH -> NaCl + H2O

445
Q

Describe in words what occurs when Zn(NO3)2 is dissolved in (NH4)2S.

A

Ammonium cations swap places with (or displace) zinc cations yielding
ammonium nitrate and zinc(II) sulfide. Zinc(II) sulfide then precipitates out of solution as a solid salt.

446
Q

classify the most likely reactions

A
447
Q

You have a substance that is composed of 20.8% Iron and 79.2% Chlorine by mass. What is the chemical formula of this compound?

(A) FeCl3
(B) Fe2Cl3
(C) FeCl6
(D) Fe3Cl6

A

(C) FeCl6

Pretend you have 20.8 g of Fe. That would be 20.8 g / 55.845 g -> approx. .33 moles Fe
Pretend you have 79.2 g Cl. That would be 79.2 g / 35.45 g -> approx. 2 moles Cl.
So, for every 1 Fe atom, you must have 6 atoms of Cl, making the formula FeCl6.

448
Q

How would you find the empirical formula when given only the molecular formula?

A

You can find the empirical formula by finding the ratio of atoms in the molecular formula and then dividing by their greatest common factor.

449
Q

To determine the number of moles in a given mass of a compound, you need to convert mass to moles. Which of the following terms do you divide the mass by to get moles?

(A) Atomic mass units
(B) Formula weight
(C) Avogadro’s number
(D) Percent composition

A

(B) Formula weight

The formula weight (i.e. molecular weight or molar mass) of a compound is the sum of the atomic weights of each atom in the compound.

450
Q

When the mass of a sample of a given compound is half of its formula weight, how many moles of the compound do you have?

(A) 1/4 of a mole
(B) 1/2 of a mole
(C) 1 mole
(D) 2 moles

A

(B) 1/2 of a mole

Recall that the formula weight of a compound is equal to the mass of one mole of the compound.

451
Q

You have 8.32 g of P4(s) and 3.22 g of Cl2. Considering the following unbalanced equation, how much PCl3 will be produced: P4 + Cl2 -> PCl3

(A) 4.12 g
(B) 1.82 g
(C) 0.27 g
(D) 15.78 g

A

(A) 4.12 g

The equation is balanced as follows: P4 + 6Cl2 -> 4PCl3
8.32 g P4 × (1 mol P4/[30.97×4] g P4) × 4 moles PCl3/mol P4 = approx. 0.25 mol PCl3 (actual: 0.269 mol PCl3)

3.22 g Cl2 × (1 mol Cl2/[35.45×2] g Cl2) × (4 moles PCl3/6 mol Cl2) = approx. 0.025 mol PCl3 (actual: 0.030 mol PCl3)

Thus, Cl2 is the limiting reagent.

0.03 mol PCl3 × 137.33 g/mol PCl3 = about 4g PCl3 (actual: 4.12 g PCl3)

Since Cl2 is the limiting reagent, and my answer will be close to 4g , making (A) 4.12 g the correct answer.

452
Q

Equivalents are related to limiting reagents, because using a different compound means a different mass needs to be used to have the same effect (whether in buffering, electrons to donate or protons to donate). How many grams of Magnesium would need to be used to donate as many electrons as 50g of Sodium?

(A) 57.6 g
(B) 82.1 g
(C) 15.2 g
(D) 26.4 g

A

(D) 26.4 g

Notice that Magnesium could donate two electrons per atom, whereas Sodium could only donate one.

(50g Na)/(22.99g/mol Na) × (I mol e- / mol Na)= approx 2 mol e- (actual: 2.17 mol e-)

(2.17 mol e-) × (1 mol Mg/ 2 mol e-) × (24.3g Mg/ mol) = approx 25g Mg (actual 26.4g Mg)

453
Q

how many sulfur atoms exist in 3 moles of sulfur dioxide?

a) 6 x 10^23 atoms
b) 1.2 x 10^24 atoms
c) 1.8 x 10^23 atoms
d) 1.8 x 10^24 toms

A

d) 1.8 x 10^24 toms

454
Q

how many moles are equal to 4.084 x 10^26 molecules?

a) 67.8 x 10^24 moles
b) 678 moles
c) 67.8 moles
d) 6.78 x 10^23 moles

A

b) 678 moles

455
Q

How many sodium ions are present in 316 g of sodium phosphate, Na3PO4?

a) 3.6 x 10^23
b) 3.5 x 10^24
c) 6.6 x 10^23
d) 6.6 x 10^24

A

b) 3.5 x 10^24

456
Q

a) 15.2 g
b) 26.4 g
c) 82.1 g
d) 57.6 g

A

b) 26.4 g

457
Q

a) I and III only
b) I and II only
c) II and III only
d) I, II, and III only

A

c) II and III only

458
Q

a) II and III only
b) I and II only
c) I, II, and III only
d) I and III only

A

c) I, II, and III only

459
Q

a) 2 mol
b) 5 mol
c) 6 mol
d) 3 mol

A

c) 6 mol