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Anatomy And Physiology > Chapters 5-9 Questions > Flashcards

Chapters 5-9 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Each of the following is a function of the integumentary system except…
A. Protection of underlying tissue
B. Excretion of salts and wastes
C. Maintenance of body temperature
D. Synthesis of vitamin c
E. Detection of sensations

A

D. Synthesis of vitamin c

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2
Q

The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are…
A. Adipocytes
B. Keratinocytes
C. Fibroblasts
D. Melanocytes
E. Dendritic cells

A

B. Keratinocytes

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3
Q

The largest quantities of keratin are found in the epidermal layer called the stratum…
A. Corneum
B. Lucidum
C. Basale
D. Granulosum
E. Spinosum

A

A. Corneum

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4
Q

In which layer of the skin are melanocytes found?
A. Stratum basale
B. Stratum spinosum
C. Stratum granulosum
D. Stratum lucidum
E. Stratum corneum

A

A. Stratum basale

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5
Q

Select tissues associated with integumentary system.
A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Areolar connective tissue
C. Dense irregular connective tissue
D. Simple squamous epithelium
E. Transitional epithelium

A

A. Stratified squamous epithelium
B. Areolar connective tissue
C. Dense irregular connective tissue

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6
Q

The layer of the skin that provides a barrier against bacteria as well as chemical and mechanical injuries is the…
A. Dermis
B. Subcutaneous layer
C. Epidermis
D. Stratum basale
E. Sebaceous layer

A

C. Epidermis

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7
Q

The layer of the epidermis that contains several layers of living cells connected by abundant desmosomes is the stratum…
A. Corneum
B. Lucidum
C. Basale
D. Granulosum
E. Spinosum

A

E. Spinosum

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8
Q

When the arrector pili muscles contract,
A. “Goose bumps” are formed
B. Hairs are shed
C. Sweat is released from sweat glands
D. Shivering occurs
E. The skin changes color

A

A. “Goose bumps” are formed

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9
Q

All of the following are true of perspiration produced by merocrine sweat glands except that it…
A. Is more than 99% water
B. Contains electrolytes and waste products
C. Helps cool the body when it evaporates
D. Helps to prevent bacteria from colonizing the skin
E. Produces strong body odor

A

E. Produces strong body odor

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10
Q

________ sweat glands are widely distributed across the body surface, ________ glands are located wherever hair follicles exist, and ________ sweat glands are found only in a few areas.
A. Sebaceous; merocrine; apocrine
B. Apocrine; merocrine; sebaceous
C. Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine
D. Merocrine; apocrine; sebaceous

A

C. Merocrine; sebaceous; apocrine

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11
Q

Which of following is not an accessory structure of the integumentary system?
A. Sweat glands
B. Hair follicles
C. Exocrine glands
D. Nails
E. Dermis

A

E. Dermis

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12
Q

Which is not a function of bone?
A. Protection
B. Mineral storage
C. Body movement
D. Hormone synthesis
E. Hematopoiesis (formation of cellular components of blood)

A

D. Hormone synthesis

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13
Q

Bone is considered an important storage reservoir for…
A. Calcium, phosphate, and lipids
B. Steroids, proteins, and complex carbs
C. Glycogen, nitrogenous bases, and calcium
D. Phosphate, glycogen, and nonpolar amino acids
E. Calcium, complex carbs, and polar amino acids

A

A. Calcium, phosphate, and lipids

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14
Q

Which region of a growing bone contains the epiphyseal plate?
A. Distal epiphysis
B. Proximal epiphysis
C. Metaphysis
D. Diaphysis
E. Periphysis

A

C. Metaphysis

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15
Q

The periosteum is anchored to the bone by collagen fibers called ________ fibers.
A. Transverse
B. Perforating
C. Penetrating
D. Connecting
E. Cementing

A

B. Perforating

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16
Q

What is the incomplete layer of cells that covers all internal surfaces of the bone within the medullary cavity?
A. Diaphysis
B. Epiphysis
C. Endoseum
D. Periosteum
E. Articular cartilage

A

C. Endosteum

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17
Q

What gives bone its flexibility?
A. Inorganic salts
B. Yellow bone marrow
C. Collagen fibers
D. Trabeculae
E. Elastic fibers

A

C. Collagen fibers

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18
Q

How would removing hydroxyapatite from bone matrix affect the physical properties of a bone?
A. The bone would be less flexible
B. The bone would be stronger
C. The bone would be more brittle
D. The bone would be more flexible

A

D. The bone would be more flexible

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19
Q

What are the matrix rings of compact bone that surround the central canal of each osteon?
A. Canaliculi
B. Concentric lamellae
C. Circumferential lamellae
D. Perforating canals
E. Interstitial lamellae

A

C. Concentric lamellae

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20
Q

Which part of a long bone is correctly matched with its description?
A. Diaphysis - end of long bone
B. Medullary cavity - canal in the center of diaphysis
C. Epiphysis - shaft of a long bone
D. Periosteum - lines inner cavities of bone

A

B. Medullary cavity - canal in the center of diaphysis

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21
Q

Which is not correct about spongy bone?
A. It is located deep into compact bone
B. It is composed of tubular units called osteons
C. It’s spaces hold red bone marrow
D. It is located in the epiphyses of long bones

A

B. It is composed of tubular units called osteons

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22
Q

True or False: In adults, the medullary cavities of most long bones contain red marrow.

A

False

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23
Q

Blood vessels enter the diaphysis of a long bone through an opening called the ________ foramen.

A

Nutrient

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24
Q

Which type of cell produces new bone tissue by secreting matrix?
A. Osteocytes
B. Osteoclasts
C. Osteoblasts
D. Osteoprogenitor cells
E. Bone-linking cells

A

C. Osteoblasts

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25
Q

Which of the following best matches osteocyte?
A. Stem cells
B. Dissolves matrix
C. Mature bone cell
D. Secretes organic matrix
E. Immature bone cell

A

C. Mature bone cell

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26
Q

When bone forms by intramembranous ossification, the ossification centers are within…
A. Hyalin cartilage
B. Compact bone
C. Mesenchyme
D. Elastic cartilage
E. Spongy bone

A

C. Mesenchyme

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27
Q

True or False: Most of the bones of the upper and lower limbs are formed by intramembranous ossification.

A

False

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28
Q

Endochondral ossification begins with a(n) ________ model.
A. Osteoid
B. Dense connective tissue
C. Hyaline cartilage
D. Membranous ossification

A

C. Hyaline cartilage

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29
Q

During the process of endochondral ossification, chondrocytes in the cartilage model die. Why does this occur?
A. Blood supply to the cartilage is cut off by the developing periosteum
B. Canaliculi connecting adjacent chondrocyte lacunae fuse
C. Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix
D. The developing bone collar secretes enzymes that destroy chondrocytes
E. Phagocytosis osteoclasts in the new bone engulf and destroy the chondrocytes

A

C. Nutrients cannot diffuse to the chondrocytes through the calcified matrix

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30
Q

Intramembranous ossification begins with the formation of a(n)…
A. Fibrous connective-tissue model
B. Hyaline cartilage model
C. Membranous model
D. Mesenchyme
E. Osteoid

A

D. Mesenchyme

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31
Q

Within which zone of the epiphyseal plate do cartilage cells undergo mitosis?
A. The second closest bone to the medullary cavity
B. The zone closest to the epiphysis
C. The zone closest to the medullary cavity
D. The second closest zone to the epiphysis

A

D. The second closest zone to the epiphysis

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32
Q

Interstitial growth of cartilage increases its ________ and occurs in the ________ region of the cartilage.
A. Length; internal
B. Length; peripheral
C. Width; internal
D. Width; peripheral

A

A. Length; internal

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33
Q

Bone growth in which the bone increases in diameter is called…
A. Endosteal growth
B. Cancellous bone growth
C. Appositional growth
D. Epiphyseal growth
E. Interstitial growth

A

C. Appositional growth

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34
Q

Which vitamin is required for the normal synthesis of collagen?
A. Vitamin D
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin A
D. Vitamin C
E. Vitamin K

A

D. Vitamin C

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35
Q

What explains the dramatic acceleration in lengthwise bone growth at puberty?
A. Increased activity of osteoclasts occurs in response to parathyroid hormone stimulation
B. Increased rate of calcium deposition occurs due to high blood calcium levels
C. Increased physical activity causes lengthwise growth in response to bone stress
D. increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth
E. Increased absorption of dietary vitamins and minerals strengthens the matrix

A

D. increased secretion of sex hormones promotes epiphyseal plate growth

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36
Q

Which hormone will raise calcium levels in the blood?
A. PTH
B. Calcitonin

A

A. PTH

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37
Q

If blood calcium levels drop below 8.5 mg/dL which hormone(s) is/are likely to be activated?
A. Parathyroid hormone
B. Estrogen
C. Calcitonin
D. Calcitriol
E. Both Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone

A

E. Both Calcitriol and parathyroid hormone

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38
Q

A person deficient in vitamin D3 would likely exhibit…
A. Increased PTH release
B. Reduced PTH release
C. No change in PTH release

A

A. Increased PTH release

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39
Q

Which is the definition for a greenstick fracture?
A. The bone is twisted as it fractures
B. The fracture is at right angles to the long axis of the bone
C. The bone is splintered into several fragments
D. Only one side of the bone is broken; the other side is bent
E. The fracture is at an oblique angle to the long axis of the bone

A

D. Only one side of the bone is broken; the other side is bent

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40
Q

The type of cells that form the strata in the epidermis are…
A. Keratinocytes
B. Dendritic cells
C. Melanocytes
D. Adipocytes
E. Fibroblasts

A

A. Keratinocytes

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41
Q

Which type of skin cancer is the most deadly?
A. Kapoks sarcoma
B. Basal cell carcinoma
C. Psoriasis
D. Melanoma

A

D. Melanoma

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42
Q

A mixture of tryglycerides, cholesterol,, proteins, and inorganic salts which is released directly into the hair follicle or skin.

A

Sebum

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43
Q

All statements that are correct regarding integumentary system.
A. Stratum granulosum is only present in thick skin
B. Subcutaneous injections are made into reticular layer
C. Sun light can mutate DNA and cause cancer
D. Dermal layer closest to epidermis is called papillary layer

A

C and D

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44
Q

List layers of epidermis that a nail would penetrate through

A

Corneum, Lucidum, Granulosum, Spinosum, basale

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45
Q

Select true about integumentary glands
A. Merocrine glands are mostly on forehead, palms, feet
B. Apocrine secretion releases colorless odorless disharge
C. Ceruminous glands are effective in cooling skin
D. Sebaceous glands are Holocene, which means cells in gland must rupture in order to release the content

A

A and D

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46
Q

The layer of stem cells that constantly divide.

A

Stratum basale

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47
Q

What kind of cells in the epidermis are part of the immune system

A

Dendritic cells

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48
Q

True or False: the epidermis contains blood vessels

A

False

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49
Q

The process of bone repair includes these steps:

a: Fracture hematoma forms

b: Bone is remodeled

c: Fibrocartilaginous callus forms

d: Bony callus forms

The correct chronological order for these steps is…

A

A-C-D-B

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50
Q

Why does osteoporosis affect more women than men?
A. Women typically do not get enough calcium in their diet
B. Men do not remodel the skeleton as fast as women
C. Pregnancy causes deossification of bones in women and will lead to osteoporosis
D. Men exercise more than women and therefore have less osteoporosis
E. Women have a decrease in sex hormones after menopause

A

E. Women have a decrease in sex hormones after menopause

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51
Q

When two bones grow together across a joint to form a single bone, this is called a…
A. Suture
B. Syndesmosis
C. Gomophosis
D. Synostosis
E. Symphysis

A

D. Synostosis

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52
Q

In a syndesmosis…
A. There is an issues union between the bones of the joint
B. The bones are held together by ligaments called interosseous membranes
C. It is not unusual to find discs of cartilage
D. No movement occurs
E. There is great range of motion

A

B. The bones are held together by ligAments called interosseous membranes

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53
Q

Identify the incorrect pair:
A. Synarthrosis; immovable joint
B. Amphiarthrosis; slightly movable joint
C. Synchondrosis; freely moving joint
D. Gomphosis; articulation between tooth and bone
E. They are all correct

A

C. Synchondrosis; freely moving joint

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54
Q

Most of the joints in the appendicular skeleton are ________ joints.
A. Fibrous
B. Inarticulate
C. Cartilaginous
D. Immovable
E. Synovial

A

E. Synovial

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55
Q

Articular cartilage…
A. Attaches tendons to bones
B. Produces red blood cells
C. Forms bursal fluid
D. Covers the ends of bones in synovial
E. Is formed at the epiphyseal plate

A

D. Covers the ends of bones in synovial

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56
Q

Synovial fluid…
A. Lacks cells
B. Is found between all bony junctions
C. Increases friction between bones
D. Is produced by articular cartilage
E. Decreases friction between bones

A

E. Decreases friction between bones

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57
Q

A sharp object penetrated a synovial joint. From the following list of structures, select the order in which they were penetrated.

(1) Tendon or muscle

(2) Ligament

(3) Fibrous capsule

(4) Skin

(5) Synovial membrane

A

A. 4,1,2,5,3
B. 4,5,1,2,3
C. 4,3,2,5,1
D. 4,1,2,3,5
E. 4,2,1,5,3

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58
Q

Which of the following actions is caused by contraction of skeletal muscle?
A. Contraction of the heart
B. Moving your feet in walking
C. Movement of food through the digestive tract
D. Emptying of the urinary bladder
E. Vasoconstriction

A

B. Moving your feet in walking

59
Q

Which of the following is true about the difference between cardiac muscle cells and skeletal muscle cells?
A. Cardiac muscle cells do not have striations like skeletal muscle cells
B. Cardiac muscle cells do not have t-tubules
C. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not
D. Cardiac muscle cells have more nuclei in them than skeletal muscle cells

A

C. Cardiac muscle cells have intercalated discs where skeletal muscle cells do not

60
Q

Which of the following is not a function of smooth muscle tissue?
A. Altering the diameter of the respiratory passageways
B. Elevating hairs on the arm
C. Forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries
D. Moving food materials along the digestive tract
E. Moving urine from kidney to urinary bladder

A

C. Forcing blood from the heart into the major arteries

61
Q

The plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle fiber is called the…
A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcomere
C. Sarcoidoses
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Sarcoplasm

A

A. Sarcolemma

62
Q

The repeating unit of a skeletal muscle fiber is the…
A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcomere
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Myofibril
E. Myofilament

A

B. Sarcomere

63
Q

Select all that apply of the following is a recognized function of skeletal muscle?
A. Produce vitamin d
B. Maintain posture
C. Adjust blood pressure
D. Guard entrances and exits
E. Maintain body temperature

A

B, d, e

64
Q

A fascicle is a…
A. Group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium
B. Layer of connective tissue that separates muscle from skin
C. Group of muscle fibers that are all part of the same motor unit
D. Group of muscle fibers and motor neurons
E. Collection of myofibrils in a muscle fiber

A

A. Group of muscle fibers that are encased in the perimysium

65
Q

Nerves and blood vessels that service a muscle fiber are located within…
A. Perimysium
B. Epimysium
C. Fascia
D. Periosteum
E. Endomysium

A

E. Endomysium

66
Q

Put the following structures in order from superficial to deep.

  1. muscle fiber
  2. perimysium
  3. myofibril
  4. fascicle
  5. endomysium
  6. epimysium
A

6, 2, 4, 5, 1, 3

67
Q

At each end of the muscle, the collagen fibers of the epimysium, perimysium, and endomysium, come together to form a…
A. Tendon
B. Satellite cell
C. Ligament
D. Tenosynovium
E. Sheath

A

A. Tendon

68
Q

In a sarcomere, the central portion of thick filaments are linked laterally by proteins of the…
A. Z line
B. M line
C. H band
D. A band
E. I band

A

B. M line

69
Q

Each thin filament consists of…
A. Two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other
B. Chains of myosin molecules
C. Six molecules coiled into a helical structure
D. A rod-shaped structure with “heads” projecting from each end
E. A double strand of myosin molecules

A

A. Two actin protein strands coiled helically around each other

70
Q

The protein that is found in the Z line of a sarcomere is called…
A. Actinin
B. Myosin
C. Titin
D. Nebulin
E. Actin

A

A. Actinin

71
Q

Which of the following best describes the term sarcomere?
A. Protein that accounts for elasticity of resting muscle
B. Repeating unit of striated myofibrils
C. Storage site for calcium ions
D. Thin filaments are anchored here
E. Largely made of myosin molecules

A

B. Repeating unit of striated myofibrils

72
Q

When a skeletal muscle fiber contracts, the…
A. H bands and i bands get larger
B. Zones of overlap get larger
C. Z lines move further apart
D. Width of the A band increases
E. All of the answers are correct

A

B. Zones of overlap get larger

73
Q

Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single…
A. Transverse tubule
B. Neuromuscular junction
C. Synaptic cleft
D. Synaptic knob
E. Sarcomere

A

B. Neuromuscular junction

74
Q

How would the loss of acetylcholinesterase from the motor end plate affect skeletal muscle?
A. It would make the muscles less excitable
B. It would produce muscle weakness
C. It would cause muscles to stay contracted
D. It would cause muscles to stay relaxed
E. It would have little effect on skeletal muscles

A

C. It would cause muscles to stay contracted

75
Q

Triggering of the muscle action potential occurs after…
A. Acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate
B. Acetylcholinerase is released from synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft
C. Calcium ion binds to channels on the motor end plate
D. The action potential jumps across the neuromuscular junction
E. Any of these can produce an action potential in the muscle cell

A

A. Acetylcholine binds to chemically gated channels in the motor end plate

76
Q

Which of the following statements about excitation-contraction coupling is incorrect?
A. Calcium ions travel through the transverse tubule
B. Calcium ion is released from the Sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Tropomyosin moves to expose myosin binding sites on actin
D. Troponin binds to calcium ion and signals tropomyosin to move
E. Relaxation requires uptake of calcium by the Sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

A. Calcium ions travel through the transverse tubule

77
Q

The action potential is conducted into a skeletal muscle fiber by
A. Motor end plates
B. Neuromuscular junctions
C. Triads
D. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
E. Transverse tubules

A

E. Transverse tubules

78
Q

Which of the following become connected by myosin cross-bridges during muscle contraction?
A. Thin and thick filaments
B. Thick and titan filaments
C. Z disks and actin filaments
D. Thick filaments and t-tubules
E. Thin filaments and t-tubules

A

A. Thin and thick filaments

79
Q

When calcium ion binds to troponin,
A. Tropomyosin rolls away from the active site
B. Active sites on the myosin are exposed
C. Actin heads will bind to myosin
D. Muscle relaxation occurs
E. Myosin shortens

A

A. Tropomyosin rolls away from the active site

80
Q

Select all that apply. In a sarcomere, cross-bridge attachment occurs in the…
A. Zone of overlap
B. A band
C. I band
D. M line
E. H band

A

A and B

81
Q

Active sites on the actin become available for binding after…
A. Actin binds to troponin
B. Tropoinin binds to tropomyosin
C. Calcium binds to troponin
D. Calcium binds to tropomyosin
E. Myosin binds to troponin

A

C. Calcium binds to troponin

82
Q

You try to pick up an object and discover that it is much heavier than you expected. Which process must occur in the muscle to increase tension so you can pick up the object?
A. Wave summation
B. Isotonic contraction
C. Complete tetanus
D. Recruitment
E. Treppe

A

D. Recruitment

83
Q

A weight-lifter strains to lift a heavy weight and there is no movement of the person’s arms holding on to the weight. This type of contraction is called a(n) ________ contraction.
A. Isometric
B. Tetanus
C. Isotonic
D. Treppe
E. Concentric

A

A. Isometric

84
Q

Creatine phosphate
A. Is produced by the process of anaerobic respiration
B. Can replace ATP in binding to myosin molecules during contraction
C. Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue
D. Is only formed during strenuous exercise
E. Cannot transfer its phosphate group

A

C. Acts as an energy reserve in muscle tissue

85
Q

Which type of respiration rapidly produces ATP for short time periods?
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Anaerobic and aerobic respiration

A

A. Anaerobic respiration

86
Q

During the time when the action potential moves through the sarcolemma a muscle twitch is in…
A. Contraction phase
B. Relaxation phase
C. Stimulus phase
D. Latent period
E. Isotonic period

A

D. Latent period

87
Q

When a muscle is stimulated repeatedly at a high rate, the amount of tension gradually increases to a steady maximum tension. This state of maximum tension is called…
A. Incomplete tetanus
B. Complete tetanus
C. A twitch
D. Wave summation
E. Recruitment

A

B. Complete tetanus

88
Q

Which of the following is true?
A. The greater the overlap of actin and myosin, the stronger the contraction
B. Overstretching a muscle will increase its tension
C. Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction
D. The greatest amount of tension is achieved when actin and myosin do not overlap
E. Tension is great when actin and myosin overlap as much as they can

A

C. Optimal actin and myosin overlap will produce maximal contraction

89
Q

Fast fibers…
A. Have low resistance to fatigue
B. Rely on aerobic metabolism
C. Have many mitochondria
D. Have twitches with a very brief contraction phase
E. Have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches

A

E. Have low resistance to fatigue and quick twitches

90
Q

Randy is participating in a strong man competition and is required to pull a yacht as far as he can (a few feet). Which type of chemical process will his skeletal muscles rely on during this competition?
A. Anaerobic respiration
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Both

A

A. Anaerobic respiration

91
Q

Large-diameter, densely packed myofibrils, large glycogen reserves, and few mitochondria are characteristics of…
A. Slow fibers
B. Intermediate fibers
C. Fast fibers
D. Red muscles
E. Fatty muscles

A

C. Fast fibers

92
Q

Justus is a world class marathon runner. Which of the descriptions about her dominant type of skeletal muscle is FALSE?
A. They split ATP slowly
B. They have large deposits of myoglobin
C. They are well adapted to anaerobic respiration
D. They have a wall-developed blood supply
E. They have low glycogen stores

A

C. They are well adapted to anaerobic respiration

93
Q

Betsy took a fall and broke her arm, which required that she wear a cast for a prolonged period of time. When she took the cast off, her arm muscles:
A. Looked the same as they did before the fall
B. Had undergone atrophy
C. Had undergone hypertrophy
D. Seemed to contract slower than they did before the fall

A

B. Had undergone atrophy

94
Q

Which is not characteristic of neurons?
A. High mitotic rate
B. High metabolic rate
C. Require continuous supplies of glucose and oxygen
D. Extreme longevity
E. No exceptions; all of these are characteristics of neurons

A

A. High mitotic rate

95
Q

The cytoplasm within a cell body of a neuron is called the…
A. Soma
B. Perikaryon
C. Neurokaryon
D. Chromatophilic substance
E. Cytolemma

A

B. Perikaryon

96
Q

If you cut bundles of axons and their myelin sheaths in the PNS, you cut ________.
A. Ganglia
B. Nuclei
C. Nerves
D. Gray matter
E. Nerve tracts

A

C. Nerves

97
Q

Clusters of gray matter deep within the brain are called _____.
A. Nuclei
B. Ganglia
C. Telodendria
D. Nerves

A

A. Nuclei

98
Q

When transmission occurs at a synapse, neurotransmitter is released by…
A. The presynaptic neuron’s synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft
B. The postsynaptic neuron’s dendrites into the synaptic cleft
C. The presynaptic neuron’s dendrites into the synaptic cleft
D. The presynaptic neuron’s soma into synaptic vesicles
E. The postsynaptic neuron’s telodendria into the axon hillock

A

A. The presynaptic neuron’s synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft

99
Q

True or False: Anterograde transport is the movement of materials from synaptic knobs to the cell body.

A

False

100
Q

Which of the following is not true of osteocytes?
A. They maintain protein and mineral content of matrix
B. They take part in repair of damaged bone
C. They form cytoplasmic extensions with canaliculi
D. They are located within lacunae
E. They have more than 50 nuclei

A

E. They have more than 50 nuclei

101
Q

How would removing collagen from bone matrix affect the bone properties?
A. Removal of collagen would not affect bone properties significantly
B. Bone would be stronger
C. Bone would be more brittle
D. Bone would be more flexible
E. Bone would be more compressible

A

C. Bone would be more brittle

102
Q

The process by which osteoblasts add layers to circumferential lamellae is…
A. Appositional growth
B. Interstitial growth
C. Intramembranous growth
D. Endochondrial ossification
E. Epiphyseal ossification

A

A. Appositional growth

103
Q

What type of tissue is replaced in the embryo during endochondral ossification
A. Connective tissue membranes
B. Fibrocartilage
C. Mesenchymal tissue
D. Hyaline cartilage

A

D. Hyaline cartilage

104
Q

Intramembranous ossification…
A. Produces flat bones
B. Explains how a juvenile bone can grow in length
C. Occurs in diaphysis of long bone
D. Occurs inside Hyaline cartilage
E. Occurs in all bones before birth

A

A. Produces flat bones

105
Q

If a tumor secretes high levels of osteoclast-activating factor, which of the following would you expect to occur in this conditions?
A. Increases in blood levels of calcium
B. Bone fragility
C. Decreased bone density
D. Increased osteoclast activity
E. All of the above

A

E. All of the above

106
Q

Which of the following is mismatched?
A. Vitamin D - aids calcium absorption
B. Vitamin c - collagen synthesis
C. Vitamin d - obtained by synthesis or ingestion
D. Sex hormones - cause growth spurt during puberty
E. Parathyroid hormone - increase calcium loss in kidneys

A

E. Parathyroid hormone - increase calcium loss in kidneys

107
Q

A man has been diagnosed with osteoporosis, and his blood calcium levels are above normal. The pathological cells that were oversecreting…
A. Calcitriol
B. Parathyroid hormone
C. Calcitonin
D. Thyroid hormone
E. Growth hormone

A

B. Parathyroid hormone

108
Q

The proper sequence of events in bone repair is…

A

Hematoma formation, callous formation, callous ossification, remodeling of bone

109
Q

A suture is an example of a(n)…
A. Amphiarthrosis
B. Synarthrosis
C. Diarthrosis
D. Syndesmosis
E. Symphysis

A

B. Synarthrosis

110
Q

Glial cells differ from neurons in that they…
A. Are larger and capable of meiosis
B. Are smaller and capable of mitosis
C. Are found only in the CNS
D. Are found only in the CNS
E. Transmit nerve impulses much more slowly

A

B. Are smaller and capable of mitosis

111
Q

The glial cell that helps to circulate cerebrospinal fluid is the…
A. Astrocyte
B. Ependymal cell
C. Neurolemmocyte
D. Microglial cell
E. Oligodendrocyte

A

B. Ependymal cell

112
Q

Which statement is true regarding the action of an oligodendrocyte?
A. Each oligodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously
B. An oligodendrocyte is responsible for forming part of the blood-brain barrier
C. Oligodendrocyte function only within the PNS
D. Each oligodendrocyte can wrap only a 1-mm portion of a single axon
E. They attack pathogens

A

A. Each oligodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously

113
Q

The glial cell that myelinates and insulates axons within the CNS is the…
A. Astrocyte
B. Ependymal cell
C. Neurocyte
D. Microglial cell
E. Oligodendrocyte

A

E. Oligodendrocyte

114
Q

LouAnn is being treated for a neurological condition with a specific drug that target neurons deep within the brain. Which glial cell must be bypassed by this drug in order for it to be effective?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Ependymal cell
E. Macrophage

A

A. Astrocyte

115
Q

Frank has a microbial infection attacking his brain. Which cell type would you expect to proliferate and be most active during this time?
A. Astrocytes
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Ependymal cells
E. Schwann cells

A

B. Microglia

116
Q

If there were no sodium leak channels, the resting membrane potential of a neuron would be…
A. More negative
B. More positive
C. The same
D. 0mV

A

A. More negative

117
Q

The most crucial factor determining the resting potential of a neuron is the diffusion of…
A. Potassium out of the cell through leak channels
B. Potassium into the cell through gated channels
C. Sodium out of the cell through leak channels
D. Sodium into the cell through gated channels

A

A. Potassium out of the cell through leak channels

118
Q

The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to K+ because…
A. Of its positive electrical charge
B. There are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+
C. Ca2+ block Na+ and Cl- channels
D. There are more leak ions channels for Na+ than K+

A

B. There are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+

119
Q

Hyperpolarization of a neuron results from…
A. Either the entry of an anion or the exit of a cation
B. The entry of any ion
C. Either the entry of a cation or the exit of an anion
D. The entrance of either sodium or potassium

A

A. Either the entry of an anion or the exit of a cation

120
Q

A graded potential is one that…
A. Is all or none (always the same intensity)
B. Travels the length of the nerve fiber ( is long-distance)
C. Varies in size depending on the magnitude of the stimulus (larger voltage change for stronger stimulus)
D. Lasts for several seconds after ion channels have opened, closed, and reset

A

C. Varies in size depending on the magnitude of the stimulus (larger voltage change for stronger stimulus)

121
Q

Action potentials are generated by the opening of ________ gated channels and they occur on the ________.
A. Voltage; axon
B. Chemically; dendrite
C. Chemically; axon
D. Voltage; dendrite

A

A. Voltage; axon

122
Q

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
A. Neurons would depolarize more rapidly
B. Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase
C. The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal
D. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials
E. None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function

A

D. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials

123
Q

Mr. Miller has been hospitalized for the flu. The flu virus increases membrane permeability to K+. You would expect his cells to ________
A. Depolarize
B. Repolarize
C. Isopolorize
D. Hyperpolarize
E. Hypopolarize

A

D. Hyperpolarize

124
Q

The absolute refractory period assures…
A. Prolonged depolarization during the action potential
B. Completion of repolarization before another action potential
C. That no after-potential occurs
D. Reversal of the direction of propagation of the action potential
E. That the stimulus is strong enough to elicit a response

A

B. Completion of repolarization before another action potential

125
Q

As a neuron’s refractory period ends, its sodium channels are changing from…
A. Their resting state to their inactivated state
B. Their inactivated state to their resting state
C. Their resting state to their activated state
D. Their activated state to their resting state

A

B. Their inactivated state to their resting state

126
Q

Saltatory conduction occurs in…
A. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at neurofibril nodes
B. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only under the myelin sheath
C. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon
D. Unmyelinated axons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon
E. The axon terminal, where full-sized action potentials occur at the hillock

A

A. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at neurofibril nodes

127
Q

A nerve impulse travels fastest along ________ axons of ________ diameter.
A. Myelinated; small
B. Unmyelinated; small
C. Myelinated; large
D. Unmyelinated; large

A

C. Myelinated; large

128
Q

Select all the features you would expect in a nerve fiber that conducted signals slowly, such as those that control gastric secretions and other functions that are not urgent.
A. Small diameter
B. Unmyelinated
C. Large diameter
D. Myelinated

A

A and B

129
Q

A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson’s-like symptoms?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Serotonin
D. Noradrenaline
E. Endorphins

A

A. Dopamine

130
Q

When multiple presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitter at various locations onto the postsynaptic neuron at the same time, this results in…
A. Suprathreshold hyperpolarization
B. Temporal summation
C. Spatial summation
D. Several action potentials

A

C. Spatial summation

131
Q

When a neurotransmitter opens a chemically gated ion channel that allows sodium to enter the postsynaptic cell, the result is an…
A. EPSP
B. IPSP

A

A. EPSP

132
Q

When a neurotransmitter causes the opening of chemically gated potassium channels on the postsynaptic cell, the postsynaptic potential that results is an…
A. EPSP; which is a depolarization
B. EPSP; which is a hyperpolarization
C. IPSP; which is a depolarization
D. IPSP; which is a hyperpolarization

A

D. IPSP; which is a hyperpolarization

133
Q

A neuron is receiving a stimulus which gets stronger and stronger. The result is…
A. Amplitude of the action potential increases
B. Duration of the action potential increases
C. Frequency of occurrence of action potentials increase
D. Resonance of action potentials increases
E. Height of action potentials increases

A

C. Frequency of occurrence of action potentials increas

134
Q

The type of neuronal circuit that ensures that we continue to breathe while asleep is a ________ circuit.
A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. Reverberating
D. Parallel-after-discharge
E. None of the above

A

C. Reverberating

135
Q

The type of neuronal circuit in which several nerve impulses come together at a single postsynaptic neuron is a ________ circuit.
A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. Reverberating
D. Parallel-after-discharge
E. None of the above

A

A. Converging

136
Q

The spinal cord ends at the…
A. Sacrum
B. Coccyx
C. 5th lumbar vertebrae
D. 2nd lumbar vertebrae

A

D. 2nd lumbar vertebrae

137
Q

A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a…
A. Cervical enlargement
B. Lumbar enlargement
C. Spinal nerve
D. Denticulate ligament
E. Spinal ganglion

A

C. Spinal nerve

138
Q

The subdural space lies between…
A. The arachnoid mater and the pia mater
B. The pia mater and the dura mater
C. The dura mater and the arachnoid mater
D. The pia mater and the subarachnoid mater
E. The endosteum and the periosteum

A

C. The dura mater and the arachnoid mater

139
Q

Which of the following is not true of meningitis?
A. Inflammation of the meninges occurs
B. Bacteria can be the cause
C. Viruses can be the cause
D. CSF flow can be disrupted
E. It only affects spinal meninges

A

E. It only affects spinal meninges

140
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block?
A. It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery
B. This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia
C. It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected
D. Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed
E. It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection

A

B. This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia

141
Q

What space, found between the vertebral wall and the dura mater, is the area for injecting anesthesia for childbirth?
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Subdural space
C. Epically space
D. Epidural space

A

D. Epidural space

142
Q

Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the…
A. Dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater
C. Epidural space
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Cerebral ventricles

A

D. Subarachnoid space

143
Q

Where is cerebrospinal fluid found around the spinal cord?
A. Subdural space
B. Epidural space
C. Dorsal root ganglia
D. Subarachnoid space

A

D. Subarachnoid space

Anatomy And Physiology (19 decks)

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