Chapters 11-16 Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The large anterior gray horns of the spinal cord contain mainly…
A. Somatic sensory nuclei
B. Somatic motor nuclei
C. Visceral motor nuclei
D. Visceral sensory nuclei
E. Sympathetic nuclei

A

B. Somatic motor nuclei

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2
Q

Nerve tracts or fasciculi make up the…
A. Central canal
B. Posterior gray horns
C. Gray commissures
D. White columns
E. Anterior gray horns

A

D. White columns

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3
Q

The specific strip of skin that is innervated by a specific spinal nerve is called a…
A. Root
B. Efferent
C. Afferent
D. Ganglion
E. Dermatome

A

E. Dermatome

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4
Q

The afferent division of the nervous system is also known as the ________ division.
A. Motor
B. Cranial
C. Ganglial
D. Efferent
E. Sensory

A

E. Sensory

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5
Q

Digestion of food is regulated by…
A. Sensory division
B. Sympathetic ANS
C. Parasympathetic ANS
D. All choices are correct

A

C. Parasympathetic ANS

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6
Q

Which is not a function of the motor division of the nervous system?
A. Conducts impulses from CNS
B. Transmits impulses to muscles and glands
C. Transmits impulses from the viscera
D. Voluntary control of skeletal muscle
E. Involuntary control of the ear

A

C. Transmits impulses from the viscera

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7
Q

Which is not characteristic of neurons?
A. High mitotic rate
B. High metabolic rate
C. Require continuous supplies of glucose and oxygen
D. Extreme longevity
E. No exceptions; all of these are characteristics of neurons

A

A. High mitotic rate

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8
Q

The cytoplasm within a cell body of a neuron is called the…
A. Soma
B. Perikaryon
C. Neurokaryon
D. Chromatophilic substance
E. Cytolemma

A

B. Perikaryon

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9
Q

If you cut bundles of axons and their myelin sheaths in the PNS, you cut ________.
A. Ganglia
B. Nuclei
C. Nerves
D. Gray matter
E. Nerve tracts

A

D. Nerves

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10
Q

Clusters of gray matter deep within the brain are called _____.
A. Nuclei
B. Ganglia
C. Telodendria
D. Nerves

A

A. Nuclei

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11
Q

When transmission occurs at a synapse, neurotransmitter is released by…
A. The presynaptic neuron’s synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft
B. The postsynaptic neuron’s dendrites into the synaptic cleft
C. The presynaptic neuron’s dendrites into the synaptic cleft
D. The presynaptic neuron’s soma into the synaptic vesicles
E. The postsynaptic neuron’s telodendria into the axon hillock.

A

A. The presynaptic neuron’s synaptic knob into the synaptic cleft

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12
Q

True or False: Anterograde transport is the movement of materials from synaptic knobs to the cell body.

A

False

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13
Q

Based on structure, the most common type of neuron is the ________ neuron.
A. Multipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Unipolar
D. They are all equally common

A

A. Multipolar

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14
Q

A neuron conducting an impulse from the stomach wall to the CNS would be classified as a(n) ________ neuron.
A. Autonomic motor
B. Somatic sensory
C. Somatic motor
D. Visceral sensory

A

D. Visceral sensory

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15
Q

A neuron that conducts pain sensations to the central nervous system would be classified as a/an ________.
A. Sensory neuron
B. Afferent
C. Efferent
D. Interneuron
E. A and B are correct

A

E. A and B are correct

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16
Q

The motor neurons responsible for making a fist are ________.
A. Unipolar
B. Bipolar
C. Multipolar
D. Afferent
E. Sensory

A

C. Multipolar

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17
Q

Glial cells differ from neurons in that they…
A. Are larger and capable of meiosis
B. Are smaller and capable of mitosis
C. Are found only in the CNS
D. Are found only in the PNS
E. Transmit nerve impulses much more slowly

A

B. Are smaller and capable of mitosis

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18
Q

The glial cell that helps to circulate cerebrospinal fluid is the…
A. Astrocyte
B. Ependymal cell
C. Neurolemmocyte
D. Microglial cell
E. Oligodendrocyte

A

B. Ependymal cell

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19
Q

Which statement is true regarding the action of an oligodendrocyte?
A. Each oligodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously
B. An oligodendrocyte is responsible for forming part of the blood-brain barrier
C. Oligodendrocytes function only within the PNS
D. Each oligodendrocyte can wrap only a 1-mm portion of a single axon
E. They attack pathogens

A

A. Each oligodendrocyte can form a myelin sheath around many axons simultaneously

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20
Q

The glial cell that myelinates and insulates axons within the CNS is the…
A. Astrocyte
B. Ependymal cell
C. Neurocyte
D. Microglial cell
E. Oligodendrocyte

A

E. Oligodendrocyte

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21
Q

LouAnn is being treated for a neurological condition with a specific drug that target neurons deep within the brain. Which glial cell must be bypassed by this drug in order for it to be effective?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocyte
D. Ependymal cell
E. Macrophage

A

A. Astrocyte

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22
Q

Frank has a microbial infection attacking his brain. Which cell type would you expect to proliferate and be most active during this time?
A. Astrocyte
B. Microglia
C. Oligodendrocytes
D. Ependymal cells
E. Schwann cells

A

B. Microglia

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23
Q

If there were no sodium leak channels, the resting membrane potential of a neuron would be…
A. More negative
B. More positive
C. The same
D. 0 mV

A

A. More negative

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24
Q

The most crucial factor determining the resting potential of a neuron is the diffusion of…
A. Potassium out of the cell through leak channels
B. Potassium into the cell through gated channels
C. Sodium out of the cell through leak channels
D. Sodium into the cell through gated channels

A

A. Potassium out of the cell through leak channels

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25
Q

The plasma membrane of a neuron is more permeable to K+ because…
A. Of its positive electrical charge
B. There are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+
C. Ca2+ block Na+ and Cl- channels
D. There are more leak ion channels for Na+ than K+

A

B. There are more leak ion channels for K+ than Na+

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26
Q

Hyperpolarization of a neuron results from…
A. Either the entry of an anion or the exit of a cation
B. The entry of any ion
C. Either the entry of a cation or the exit of an anion
D. The entrance of either sodium or potassium

A

A. Either the entry of an anion or the exit of a cation

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27
Q

A graded potential is one that…
A. Is all or none (always the same intensity)
B. Travels the length of the nerve fiber (is long-distance)
C. Varies in size depending on the magnitude of the stimulus (larger voltage change for stronger stimulus)
D. Lasts for several seconds after ion channels have opened, closed, and reset.

A

C. Varies in size depending on the magnitude of the stimulus (larger voltage change for stronger stimulus)

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28
Q

Action potentials are generated by the opening of ________ gated channels and they occur on the ________.
A. Chemically; dendrite
B. Voltage; axon
C. Chemically; axon
D. Voltage; dendrite

A

B. Voltage; axon

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29
Q

Puffer fish poison blocks voltage-gated sodium channels like a cork. What effect would this neurotoxin have on the function of neurons?
A. Neurons would depolarize more rapidly
B. Action potentials would lack a repolarization phase
C. The absolute refractory period would be shorter than normal
D. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials
E. None, because the chemically gated sodium channels would still function

A

D. The axon would be unable to generate action potentials

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30
Q

Mr. Miller has been hospitalized for the flu. The flu virus increases membrane permeability to K+. You would expect his cells to ________.
A. Depolarize
B. Repolarize
C. Isopolarize
D. Hyperpolarize
E. Hypopolarize

A

D. Hyperpolarize

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31
Q

The absolute refractory period assures…
A. Prolonged depolarization during the action potential
B. Completion of repolarization before another action potential
C. That no after-potential occurs
D. Reversal of the direction of propagation of the action potential
E. That the stimulus is strong enough to elicit a response

A

B. Completion of repolarization before another action potential

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32
Q

As a neuron’s refractory period ends, its sodium channels are changing from…
A. Their resting state to their inactivated state
B. Their inactivated state to their resting state
C. Their resting state to their activated state
D. Their activated state to their resting state

A

B. Their inactivated state to their resting state

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33
Q

Saltatory conduction occurs in…
A. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at neurofibril nodes
B. Myelinated sheaths, where action potentials occur only under the myelin sheath
C. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon
D. Unmyelinated axons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon
E. The axon terminal, where full-size action potentials occur at the hillock

A

A. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at neurofibril nodes

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34
Q

A nerve impulse travels fastest along ________ axons of ________ diameter.
A. Myelinated; small
B. Unmyelinated; small
C. Myelinated; large
D. Unmyelinated; large

A

C. Myelinated; large

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35
Q

Select all the features you would expect in a nerve fiber that conducted signals slowly, such as those that control gastric secretions and other functions that are not urgent.
A. Small diameter
B. Unmyelinated
C. Large diameter
D. Myelinated

A

A and B

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36
Q

A deficiency in which neurotransmitter would cause Parkinson’s-like symptoms?
A. Dopamine
B. Norepinephrine
C. Serotonin
D. Noradrenaline
E. Endorphins

A

A. Dopamine

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37
Q

When multiple presynaptic neurons release neurotransmitter at various locations onto the postsynaptic neuron at the same time, this results in…
A. Suprethreshold hyperpolarization
B. Temporal summation
C. Spatial summation
D. Several action potentials

A

C. Spatial summation

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38
Q

When a neurotransmitter opens a chemically gated ion channel that allows sodium to enter the postsynaptic cell, the result is an…
A. EPSP
B. IPSP

A

A. EPSP

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39
Q

When a neurotransmitter causes the opening of chemically gated potassium channels on the postsynaptic cell, the postsynaptic potential that results is an…
A. EPSP, which is a depolarization
B. EPSP, which is a hyperpolarization
C. IPSP, which is a depolarization
D. IPSP, which is a hyperpolarization

A

D. IPSP, which is a hyperpolarization

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40
Q

A neuron is receiving a stimulus which gets stronger and stronger. The result is…
A. Amplitude of the action potential increases
B. Duration of the action potential increases
C. Frequency of occurrence of action potentials increases
D. Resonance of action potentials increases
E. Height of the action potentials increases

A

C. Frequency of occurrence of action potentials increases

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41
Q

The type of neuronal circuit that ensures that we continue to breathe while asleep is a ________ circuit.
A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. Reverberating
D. Parallel-after-discharge
E. None of the choices is correct

A

C. Reverberating

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42
Q

The type of neuronal circuit in which several nerve impulses come together at a single postsynaptic neuron is a ________ circuit.
A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. Reverberating
D. Parallel-after-discharge
E. None of the choices is correct

A

A. Converging

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43
Q

The spinal cord ends at the…
A. Sacrum
B. Coccyx
C. 5th lumbar vertebrae
D. 2nd lumbar vertebrae

A

D. 2nd lumbar vertebrae

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44
Q

A posterior and anterior root of each spinal segment unite to form a…
A. Cervical enlargement
B. Lumbar enlargement
C. Spinal nerve
D. Denticulate ligament
E. Spinal ganglion

A

C. Spinal nerve

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45
Q

The subdural space lies between…
A. The arachnoid mater and the pia mater
B. The pia mater and the dura mater
C. The dura mater and the arachnoid mater
D. The pia mater and the subarachnoid space
E. The endosteum and the periosteum.

A

C. The dura mater and the arachnoid mater

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46
Q

Which of the following is not true of meningitis?
A. Inflammation of the meninges occurs
B. Bacteria can be the cause
C. Viruses can be the cause
D. CSF flow can be disrupted
E. It only affects spinal meninges

A

E. It only affects spinal meninges

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47
Q

Which of the following is not true regarding an epidural block?
A. It is commonly used as a method of pain control during labor and delivery
B. This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia
C. It can provide sensory and motor anesthesia, depending on the anesthetic selected
D. Intubation is not necessary because respiratory muscles are not paralyzed
E. It affects only the spinal nerves in the immediate area of the injection

A

B. This procedure does not provide sustained anesthesia

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48
Q

What space, found between the vertebral wall and the dura mater, is the area for injecting anesthesia for childbirth?
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Subdural space
C. Epipial space
D. Epidural space

A

D. Epidural space

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49
Q

Samples of CSF for diagnostic purposes are normally obtained by placing the tip of a needle in the…
A. Dura mater
B. Arachnoid mater
C. Epidural space
D. Subarachnoid space
E. Cerebral ventricles

A

D. Subarachnoid space

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50
Q

Where is cerebrospinal fluid found around the spinal cord?
A. Subdural space
B. Epidural space
C. Dorsal root ganglia
D. Subarachnoid space

A

D. Subarachnoid space

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51
Q

A viral disease that destroys the cells of the anterior gray horn will…
A. Lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis
B. Block autonomic regulation
C. Interfered with crude touch and temperature sense
D. Affect visceral motor function

A

A. Lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis

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52
Q

Ken has a herniated disc which is pinching the dorsal root ganglion. He is most likely experiencing impairment in which sensory pathway?
A. Somatic sensory
B. Visceral sensory
C. Somatic and visceral sensory
D. Somatic and visceral motor
E. Visceral motor

A

C. Somatic and visceral sensory

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53
Q

In which plexus does the ulnar nerve arise?
A. Cranial
B. Cervical
C. Lumbar
D. Sacral
E. Brachial

A

E. Brachial

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54
Q

Which portion of a reflex arc is most likely to be located entirely within the central nervous system?
A. Sensory neuron
B. Motor neuron
C. Effector
D. Interneuron
E. Sensory receptor

A

D. Interneuron

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55
Q

Place the following parts of a reflex arc in the correct order beginning with the sensory receptor.

(1) Motor neuron

(2) Interneuron

(3) Effector

(4) Sensory neuron

(5) Sensory receptor

A

5,4,2,1,3

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56
Q

Muscles and glands that are capable of producing a response when stimulated by motor neurons are called ________.
A. Aponeuroses
B. Effectors
C. Neuromodulators
D. Receptors
E. Sensory organs

A

B. Effectors

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57
Q

The knee-jerk reflex involves which of the following?
A. Sensory and motor neurons
B. Sensory neuron, Interneuron, and motor neuron
C. Sensory neuron, motor neuron, and inhibitory Interneuron
D. Sensory neuron and Interneuron
E. The brain

A

A. Sensory and motor neuron

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58
Q

The ________ reflex complements the flexor reflex by activating contralateral muscles.
A. Stretch
B. Tendon
C. Flexor
D. Crossed extensor
E. Reciprocal

A

D. Crossed extensor

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59
Q

Which of the following is not true about a positive Babinski reflex?
A. Normal in newborns
B. Abnormal in adults
C. A sign of injury to descending spinal tracts
D. Clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected
E. Flaring of the toes when the sole is stroked

A

D. Clinicians test this when a peripheral nerve injury is suspected

60
Q

Which of these is not one of the main divisions of the adult brain?
A. Cerebrum
B. Diencephalon
C. Prosencephalon
D. Brain stem
E. Cerebellum

A

C. Prosencephalon

61
Q

The wall between the lateral ventricles is called the…
A. Cerebral aqueduct
B. Fornix
C. Flax cerebri
D. Corpus callosum
E. Septum pellucidum

A

E. Septum pellucidum

62
Q

Select all characteristics of graded potentials. They…
A. Decrease in amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
B. Are short-lived
C. Occur at the axon
D. Are faster if neuron is myelinated
E. Can summate temporally or spatially

A

A. Decrease in amplitude as they move away from the stimulus point
B. Are short-lived
E. Can summate temporally or spatially

63
Q

The division of the peripheral nervous system that brings sensory info to the central nervous system.
A. Efferent
B. Somatic
C. Afferent
D. Autonomic
E. Parasympathetic

A

C. Afferent

64
Q

If a drug selectively blocks sodium leak channels, the resting membrane potential of a neuron would be:
A. More positive
B. The same
C. 0mV
D. More negative

A

D. More negative

65
Q

An Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential occurs when:
A. Chemically gated potassium channels of postsynaptic neuron are open and potassium is diffusing out of the cell
B. Chemically gated sodium channels of postsynaptic neuron are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell
C. More calcium ions diffuse into the neuron through the voltage gated channels at presynaptic terminal
D. The neuron is hyperpolarized
E. More potassium ions than usual diffuse out of the postsynaptic cell

A

B. Chemically gated sodium channels of postsynaptic neuron are open and sodium is diffusing into the cell

66
Q

The ________ nervous system provides involuntary regulation of smooth muscle, cardiac muscle, and glandular activity.
A. Somatic
B. Afferent
C. Peripheral
D. Autonomic
E. Isotonic

A

D. Autonomic

67
Q

Which type of neuronal processing is often used to proling response to a stimulus?
A. Convergent circuit
B. Multipolar circuit
C. All answers are a good match
D. Parallel Processing
E. Divergent circuit
F. Reverberating circuit

A

F. Reverberating circuit

68
Q

Digestion of food is regulated by the…
A. Sensory division
B. Somatic nervous system
C. sympathetic division of the ANS
D. None of these choices
E. Parasympathetic division of the ANS

A

E. Parasympathetic division of the ANS

69
Q

The most crucial factor determining the resting potential of a neuron is the diffusion of…
A. Potassium into the cell through gated channels
B. Sodium out of the cell through leak channels
C. Sodium into the cell through fated channels
D. Potassium out of the cell through leak channels

A

D. Potassium out of the cell through leak channels

70
Q

Select all correct answers that are true for the fastest neuron types
A. Use saltatory conduction
B.Lightly myelinated
C. Type C
D. Small diameter
E. Type A
F. Heavily myelinated

A

F. Heavily Myelinated
E. Type A
A. Use saltatory Conduction

71
Q

The rabies virus travels to the CNS via…
A. Retrograde axoplasmic transport
B. Subcutaneous connective tissue
C. Cerebrospinal fluid
D. Anterograde axoplasmic transport
E. Blood Vessels

A

A. Retrograde axoplasmic transport

72
Q

Saltatory conduction occurs in…
A. myelinated axons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon
B. Unmyelinated axons, where action potentials occur continuously down the entire axon
C. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only under the myelinated sheath
D. The axon terminal, where full size action potentials occur at the hillock
E. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at the nodes

A

E. Myelinated axons, where action potentials occur only at the nodes

73
Q

The hyperpolarization that occurs at the end of an action potential is due to the…
A. Open state of chemically gated sodium channels
B. Closer of voltage-gated potassium channels
C. Open state of voltage-gated sodium channels
D. Open state of voltage-gated potassium channels
E. Closure of chemically gated sodium channels

A

D. Open state of voltage gated potassium channels

74
Q

The dural fold that projects into the longitudinal fissure between cerebral hemispheres is called the…
A. Dura sinus
B. Falx cerebri
C. Tentorium cerebellum
D. Falx cerebelli
E. Choroid plexus

A

B. Falx cerebri

75
Q

Tony hit his head in a car accident. The physicians diagnosed him with a subdural hemorrhage. Which of the following correctly states where the bleeding has occurred in his brain?
A. Blood is between the dura mater and the skull
B. Blood is between the pia mater and the arachnoid mater
C. Blood is between the pia mater and the brain
D. Blood is between the superior sagittal sinus and inferior sagittal sinus
E. Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

A

E. Blood is between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

76
Q

What structure is covered by many blood vessels and adheres tightly to the surface of the brain?
A. Pia mater
B. Arachnoid mater
C. Dura mater
D. Cranial plexus
E. Choroid plexus

A

A. Pia mater

77
Q

Which of the following is not a function of cerebrospinal fluid?
A. Provides cushioning for delicate neural tissues
B. Provides buoyant support for the brain
C. Acts as transport medium for nutrients
D. Produces ATP for impulse transmission
E. Acts as a transport medium for waste products

A

D. Produces ATP for impulse transmission

78
Q

What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?
A. Reabsorb CSF into the blood of dura sinuses
B. Drain the CSF from the arachnoid mater
C. Transfer CSF to the cerebral aqueducts
D. Produce CSF
E. Produce arachnoid mater

A

B. Drain the CSF from the arachnoid mater

79
Q

To return CSF to circulation, arachnoid granulations extend into the…
A. Subarachnoid space
B. Superior sagittal sinus
C. Carotid canal
D. Interior sagittal sinus
E. Jugular foramen

A

B. Superior sagittal sinus

80
Q

Select all that apply: Hydrocephalus may result from…
A. Deficient production of CSF
B. Excessive production of CSF
C. Blockage of circulation of CSF
D. Excessive water intake
E. Hormonal imbalance

A

B. Excessive production of CSF
C. Blockage of circulation of CSF

81
Q

Which of the following is correctly associated with the medulla oblongata?
A. It gives rise to conscious thought
B. It contains nuclei for regulation of heart rate and blood vessel diameter
C. It contains enlargements called cerebral peduncles
D. It is the most superior portion of the brain stem
E. It relays sensory information

A

B. It contains nuclei for regulation of heart rate and blood vessel diameter

E. It relays sensory information

82
Q

The term used to describe the crossing over of a tract to the side of the nervous system opposite to where the axons originated is…
A. Decussation
B. Contralateral
C. Ascending crossovers
D. Pyramidal tracts
E. Consensual tracts

A

A. Decussation

83
Q

If the pons was damaged, which of the following functions would be affected?
A. Breathing
B. Coordination
C. Sleep patterns
D. Judgement

A

A. Breathing

84
Q

The medulla oblongata relays auditory stimuli to the…
A. Substantia nigra
B. Tegmentum
C. Cerebral peduncles
D. Superior colliculi
E. Inferior colleculi

A

E. Inferior colleculi

85
Q

The cerebellum communicates with other parts of the CNS by means of nerve tracts called the ________.
A. Vermis
B. Lateral grey horn
C. Cerebellar peduncles
D. Arbor vitae
E. Folia

A

C. Cerebellar peduncles

86
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum?
A. Coordinate control of voluntary movements
B. Control posture, locomotion, and fine motor coordination
C. Help maintain muscle tone
D. Control of heart rate
E. Control of skeletal muscle to maintain balance

A

D. Control of heart rate

87
Q

Which of the following is not function of the hypothalamus?
A. Produce ADH
B. Secrete melatonin
C. Regulate body temp
D. Secrete oxytocin
E. Control autonomic centers

A

B. Secrete melatonin

88
Q

The ________ is important in storage and recall of new long-term memories.
A. Amygdala
B. Cingulate gyrus
C. Hypothalamus
D. Hippocampus
E. Substantia nigra

A

D. Hippocampus

89
Q

The system that functions in tying together emotions, motivation and memory is the…
A. Reticular activation system
B. Circadian system
C. Limbic system
D. Hypothalamic system

A

C. Limbic system

90
Q

Joe begins to experience mood swings and disturbed thirst and hunger. Imaging studies indicate that a brain tumor is the likely cause of these disorders. In what part of the brain is the tumor most likely located?
A. Epithalamus
B. Cerebellum
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. Reticular formation

A

D. Hypothalamus

91
Q

The visual information is processed in the…
A. Frontal lobe
B. Parietal lobe
C. Temporal lobe
D. Occipital lobe
E. Insula

A

D. Occipital lobe

92
Q

Association fibers connect…
A. The cerebrum with the spinal cord
B. One cerebral hemisphere to another
C. Areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere
D. Areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the midbrain
E. Areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the spinal cord

A

C. Areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere

93
Q

Lesions of the basal nuclei could cause…
A. Loss of memory
B. Uncontrolled rage
C. Fluent but incoherent speech
D. A slight shaking of the hands or head
E. Loss of the sense of smell

A

D. A slight shaking of the hands or head

94
Q

The sleep/wake cycle is influenced by the _____.
A. Basal nuclei
B. Reticular formation
C. Vermis
D. Thalamic nuclei
E. Cerebellum

A

B. Reticular formation

95
Q

Anna has an eating disorder along with intense thirst and wildly varying body temperatures, which means she may have a dysfunction of the ________.
A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Thalamus
D. Hypothalamus
E. Brain stem

A

D. Hypothalamus

96
Q

The ________ hemisphere is known for its involvement in categorization, symbolization, and analytical reasoning.
A. Left
B. Right

A

A. Left

97
Q

The major pathway of communication between the right and left hemispheres is the…
A. Cerebral gyri
B. Cerebral sulci
C. Longitudinal fissure
D. Hypothalamus
E. Corpus callosum

A

E. Corpus callosum

98
Q

Based on the motor homunculus, which of the following body regions has the fewest number of motor units per comparable area size?
A. Tongue
B. Face
C. Fingers
D. Lips
E. Back of trunk

A

E. Back of trunk

99
Q

The primary somatosensory cortex is located in the ________ lobe.
A. Frontal
B. Temporal
C. Occipital
D. Parietal

A

D. Parietal

100
Q

During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated. What do you expect the patient to do?
A. Flex his fingers
B. Talk to the surgeon
C. Smile
D. Move his hand
E. Feel pressure on his toes

A

E. Feel pressure on his toes

101
Q

A person with damage to the premotor cortex area that coordinates eye movements…
A. Can read but cannot understand the words
B. Cannot read it understand the words
C. Can understand the words but cannot follow the lines on the page
D. Can process linguistic info visually but not through auditory inputs

A

C. Can understand the words but cannot follow the lines on the page

102
Q

Association areas…
A. Correlate info from opposite sides of the brain
B. Correlate similar functions from different lobes on the same side of the brain
C. Correlate similar functions from the same loaves on the opposite sides of the brain
D. Integrate new sensory inputs with memories of past experiences
E. Integrate outgoing motor info

A

D. Integrate new sensory inputs with memories of past experiences

103
Q

Damage to which lobe of the brain (that normally plans appropriate behavior) has been most frequently associated with personality abnormalities?
A. Frontal
B. Parietal
C. Occipital
D. Temporal
E. Insula

A

A. Frontal

104
Q

Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the cerebrum?
A. Interpreting smell and taste
B. Controlling the autonomic nervous system
C. Initiating voluntary movements
D. Making moral judgements
E. Writing poetry

A

B. Controlling the autonomic nervous system

105
Q

An EEG scan of an adult patient revealed prominent beta waves. The recording was made when the patient was…
A. Drain dead
B. Concentrating
C. Having a seizure
D. Resting

A

B. Concentrating

106
Q

Neurons of the thalamus that are part of sensory conduction pathways are considered…
A. Primary neurons
B. Secondary neurons
C. Tertiary neurons
D. Quarternary neurons

A

C. Tertiary neurons

107
Q

The conversion of a sensory input to a change in membrane potential in the receptor is known as…
A. Transduction
B. Reception
C. Effection
D. Potential
E. Stimulation

A

A. Transduction

108
Q

The afferent neuron that carries the sensation and enters the CNS is a ________ neuron.
A. First order
B. Second order
C. Third order
D. Interneuron
E. Motor

A

A. First order

109
Q

The term general senses refers to sensitivity to all of the following, except…
A. Taste
B. Temperature
C. Touch
D. Vibration
E. Pain

A

A. Taste

110
Q

A receptor that contains many mechanically-gated ion channels would function best as a…
A. Tactile receptor
B. Chemoreceptor
C. Photoreceptor
D. Thermoreceptor
E. Light receptor

A

A. Tactile receptor

111
Q

Endorphins can reduce perception of sensations initiated by…
A. Nociceptors
B. Mechanoreceptors
C. Thermoreceptors
D. Chemoreceptors
E. Proprioreceptors

A

A. Nociceptors

112
Q

Following a car accident a patient can not feel his legs. The doctor tells him that there is a swelling which is compressing a portion of his spinal cord. Which part of the spinal cord is likely to be compressed?
A. Anterior white commissures
B. Descending tracts
C. Ascending tracts
D. Anterior gray commissure
E. Anterior gray horns

A

C. Ascending tracts

113
Q

Select all that correctly describe organization of spinal cord and nerves
A. Ventral root contains axons of motor neurons
B. Spinal nerve is mixed
C. Ventral root contains only sensory neurons
D. Dorsal ramus contains only sensory neurons
E. Lateral grey horn contains nuclei of visceral motor neurons

A

A. Ventral root contains axons of motor neurons
B. Spinal nerve is mixed
E. Lateral grey horn contains nuclei of visceral motor neurons

114
Q

The brachial plexus gives rise to the following nerve(s):
A. Ulnar
B. Radial
C. Phrenic
D. Median
E. Musculotaneous

A

A. Ulnar
B. Radial
D. Median
E. Musculotaneous

115
Q

Suppose you feel something brushing agaisnt your arm, the sensory info would be carried to the spinal cord over a ______ ramus.
A. Ascending
B. Ventral
C. Sypathetic
D. Lateral
E.Dorsal

A

B. Ventral

116
Q

The _______ contains cell bodies of motor neurons.
A. Ventral column
B. Posterior gray horn
C. Spinal nerve
D. Dorsal column
E. Anterior grey horn

A

E. Anterior gray horn

117
Q

What is found in the dorsal root ganglia?
A. Cell bodies of bipolar sensory neurons
B. cell bodies og multipolar interneurons
C. Cell bodies of unipolar sensory neurons
D. Cell bodies of multipolar motor neurons
E. Axons of unipolar motor neurons

A

Unipolar sensory neurons

118
Q

In order to collect CSF to diagnose meningitis, the top of the needle should be placed in the _____.
A. arachnoid mater
B. subarachnoid space
C. Cerebral Ventricles
D. Epidural space
E. Dura Mater

A

B. Subarachnoid space

119
Q

Destruction of cells in ventral gray horn would likely lead to…
A. Interfere with position sense
B. Block autonomic regulation
C. mainly interfere with crude touch and temperature sense
D. Lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis
E. Affect visceral motor function

A

D. Lead to skeletal muscle weakness or paralysis

120
Q

Select all the are true for a stretch reflex.
A. Muscle spindles detect stretch of the muscle
B. Motor neuron conducts action potentials to muscle
C. Interneurons release neurotransmitter
D. Sensory neurons conduct action potential

A

A. Muscle spindles detect stretch of the muscle
B. Motor neuron conducts action potentials to muscle
D. Sensory neurons conduct action potential

121
Q

The ability to localize the position of body parts is called ________.
A. Two-point discrimination
B. Proprioception
C. Fine touch
D. Light touch
E. Perception

A

B. Proprioception

122
Q

Bladder fullness is to ________ as blood pH is to ________.
A. Nociceptors; thermoreceptors
B. Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors
C. Baroreceptors; Nociceptors
D. Chemoreceptors; Nociceptors
E. Baroreceptors; thermoreceptors

A

B. Baroreceptors; chemoreceptors

123
Q

Changes in the blood concentration of glucose, oxygen, and hydrogen are detected by…
A. Baroreceptors
B. Chemoreceptors
C. Nociceptors
D. Proprioceptors
E. Thermoreceptors

A

B. Chemoreceptors

124
Q

Which ascending tract carries the sensations for fine touch and vibration?
A. Corticobulbar
B. Corticospinal
C. Posterior (dorsal) column
D. Spinothalamic
E. Spinocerebellar

A

C. Posterior (dorsal) column

125
Q

What loss would result from cutting through the medial lemniscus on the right side?
A. Loss of pain sensation on the left side of the body
B. Loss of pain sensation on the right side of the body
C. Loss of fine touch on the left side of the body
D. Loss of fine touch on the right side of the body
E. Complete hemiplegia (paralysis) on the left side of the body

A

C. Loss of fine touch on the left side of the body

126
Q

The ________ nervous system carries impulses to skeletal muscles.
A. Somatic
B. Sympathetic
C. Parasympathetic
D. Afferent
E. Autonomic

A

A. Somatic

127
Q

In motor pathways, the only portion of the pathway that is outside of the CNS is the…
A. Lower motor neuron
B. Upper motor neuron
C. Axon of upper motor neuron
D. Interneuron
E. Axon of lower motor neuron

A

E. Axon of lower motor neuron

128
Q

Which areas of the brain monitor and adjust activities of the motor pathways?
A. Basal nuclei
B. Cerebellum
C. Basal nuclei and cerebellum
D. Midbrain
E. Pons

A

C. Basal nuclei and cerebellum

129
Q

The neurons that directly innervate skeletal muscles are called…
A. First order neurons
B. Second order neurons
C. Third order neurons
D. Upper motor neurons
E. Lower motor neurons

A

E. Lower motor neurons

130
Q

Select all symptoms consistent with upper motor neuron lesions.
A. Hyperreflexia
B. Hypotonica
C. Muscle atrophy
D. Fasciculations
E. Positive babinski sign

A

A. Hyperreflexia
E. Positive babinski sign

131
Q

Formation of new memories involves the _______, and storage of long-term memories primarily involves the ______.
A. Hippocampus; association areas
B. Amygdala; reticular formation
C. Cerebellum, corpus callosum
D. Lateral ventricles; hippocampus

A

A. Hippocampus; association areas

132
Q

Conversion of a short-term memory to a long-term memory is called…
A. Memory conversion
B. Anterograde amnesia
C. Memory programming
D. Memory consolidation

A

D. Memory consolidation

133
Q

During ________ sleep, dreaming occurs.
A. REM
B. Deep
C. Beta
D. Stage 1
E. Stage 2

A

A. REM

134
Q

What part of the retina lacks photoreceptors?
A. Optic disk
B. Macula
C. Fovea
D. Anterior retina
E. Posterior retina

A

A. Optic disk

135
Q

What part of retina is responsible for sharpest vision?
A. Optic disk
B. Fovea
C. Peripheral retina
D. Posterior retina
E. All answers are correct

A

B. Fovea

136
Q

The cell of the retina that produces an action potential that goes to the brain is a(n)…
A. Rod
B. Cone
C. Bipolar cell
D. Amacrine cell
E. Ganglion cell

A

E. Ganglion cell

137
Q

Which statement is True for “dark current” of photoreceptors…
A. The exit of Na+ out of the cell when light is not hitting the cell
B. The entry of Na+ into the cell when light is not hitting the cell
C. Decrease in glutamine release
D. Activation of bipolar cells

A

B. The entry of Na+ into the cell when light is not hitting the cell

138
Q

When light strikes a photoreceptor it…
A. Depolarizes and releases more neurotransmitter
B. Depolarizes and releases less neurotransmitter
C. Hyperpolarizes and releases more neurotransmitter
D. Hyperpolarizes and releases less neurotransmitter

A

D. Hyperpolarizes and releases less neurotransmitter

139
Q

In the light-adapted state…
A. Photoreceptors are much more sensitive to stimulation
B. Photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation
C. We can only see color, and not black and white
D. Colors are dull

A

B. Photoreceptors are much less sensitive to stimulation

140
Q

Dietary deficiency of vitamin A is likely to cause…
A. Retinitis pigmentosa
B. Color blindness
C. Night blindness
D. Retinal detachment
E. Increased retinal isomerization

A

C. Night blindness

141
Q

Which of the following is not controlled by the ANS?
A. Skeletal muscles
B. Cardiovascular system
C. Respiratory system
D. Urinary system

A

A. Skeletal muscles

142
Q

A visceral motor neuron whose cell body is within the spinal cord and called a(n)________ neuron.
A. Upper motor
B. Lower motor
C. Preganglionic
D. Postganglionic
E. Somatosensory

A

C. Preganglionic

143
Q

Sympathetic preganglionic fibers are ________ and have ________ axons.
A. Short; myelinated
B. Short; Unmyelinated
C. Long; myelinated
D. Intermediate; small

A

A. Short; myelinated

144
Q

In which system are the ganglia in or near the target organ?
A. Sympathetic ANS
B. Parasympathetic ANS
C. Somatic
D. Motor
E. CNS

A

B. Parasympathetic ANS

145
Q

During a mugging, a person experiences extreme level of fear. Which of the structures below are responsible for this and other emotional states?
A. Corpus Callosum
B. Superior Colliculus
C. Hippocampus
D. Reticular formation
E. Amygdala

A

E. Amygdala

146
Q

The blood brain barrier is reduced or missing from four locations in the brain. Which is not one of these locations?
A. Choroid Plexus
B. Hypothalamus
C. Pituitary gland
D. Cerebrum
E. Pineal gland

A

D. Cerebrum