Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Biology 1406 > Chapter 5 > Flashcards

Chapter 5 Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
AP® Biology flashcards Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

Plant cell walls consist mainly of _____.

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cellulose is a

A

polysaccharide that is a major component of the tough walls that enclose plant cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The characteristic that all lipids have in common is that _____.

A

none of them dissolves in water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Almost all the covalent bonds in lipids are nonpolar, causing their

A

solubility in water to be extremely low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Lipids are

A

hydrophobic substances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Palm oil and coconut oil are more like animal fats than are other plant oils. Because they _____ than other plant oils, they may contribute to cardiovascular disease.

A

contain fewer double bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Evidence suggests that a diet high in saturated fats may contribute to

A

human cardiovascular disease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Some regions of a polypeptide may coil or fold back on themselves. This is called _____, and the coils or folds are held in place by _____.

A

secondary structure … covalent bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Secondary structure is the

A

localized folding and/or coiling of the primary structure of a polypeptide. It results from hydrogen bonding between atoms of the polypeptide backbone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A dehydration reaction (or condensation reaction) is the process in which _____.

A

water molecules are produced as a polymer is formed from monomers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Monomers are joined together in a

A

reaction in which two molecules are covalently bonded to each other through the loss of a water molecule; this is called a condensation reaction or, specifically, a dehydration reaction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A hydrophobic amino acid R group (side group) would be found where in a protein?

A

on the inside of the folded chain, away from water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hydrophobic R groups are

A

nonpolar. By orienting within the folded chain they associate with other nonpolar R groups or side chains and avoid coming into contact with water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Sucrose is formed when glucose is joined to fructose by a(n) _____.

A

glycosidic linkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Glycosidic linkages join

A

simple sugars to form polysaccharides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The flow of genetic information in a cell goes from _____.

A

DNA to RNA to protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The information in DNA is transcribed into

A

RNA and then translated into protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The building blocks or monomers of nucleic acid molecules are called _____.

A

nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A nucleotide is a

A

nucleic acid monomer consisting of a nitrogen base, a pentose sugar, and a phosphate group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nucleotides joined together by covalent bonds are called

A

phosphodiester linkages and form nucleic acid molecules.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The four main categories of large biological molecules present in living systems are _____.

A

proteins, nucleic acids, polysaccharides, and lipids

CHECK AND MAKE SURE THIS IS RIGHT??)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which polymers are composed of amino acids?

A

Proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Proteins are composed of

A

amino acids joined together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which of the following are attached to the central carbon atom in an amino acid?

A

A carboxyl functional group,
A side chain (“R group”)
and An amino functional group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which is not attached to the central carbon atom in an amino acid?

A

An oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The central carbon atom in an amino acid is bonded to

A

an amino functional group, a carboxyl functional group, a side chain, and hydrogen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which part of an amino acid is always acidic?

A

Carboxyl functional group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The carboxyl group (COOH) contains two oxygen atoms that tend to pull electrons away from the hydrogen atom, so

A

this group tends to lose a proton and is acidic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which monomers make up RNA?

A

Nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Nucleotide monomers make up

A

nucleic acids.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the following statements about the formation of polypeptides from amino acids is true?

A

A bond forms between the carboxyl functional group of one amino acid and the amino functional group of the other amino acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A hydroxyl group is removed from the carboxyl group of one amino acid and hydrogen is removed from the amino group of the other amino acid, allowing

A

a bond to form between the two groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Enzymes in the digestive tract catalyze

A

hydrolysis reactions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Enzymes in the digestive tract break down food molecules, which is

A

a process that occurs by hydrolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

The linking of monomers involves the

A

removal of water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which molecule is not a carbohydrate?

A

Lipid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

A lipid is a

A

hydrophobic polymer, not a carbohydrate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Some molecules that are carbohydrates are

A

Glycogen
Cellulose
and
Starch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Monosaccharides

A

can be classified according to the spatial arrangement of their atoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Peptidoglycan is a

A

polysaccharide found only in bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which complex carbohydrate contains only a-1, 4-glycosidic linkages?

A

Amylose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Cellulose’s function

A

structural component of plant cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Cellulose is the

A

main structural component of plant cells walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which polysaccharide contains a modified monosaccharide?

A

Peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid units that make up peptidoglycan are composed of

A

modified glucose monomers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Glycogen is

A

a polysaccharide found in animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Animals store energy in the form of

A

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

glucose + glucose —> _____ by _____.

A

maltose + water … dehydration synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Maltose is the disaccharide formed when

A

two glucose molecules are linked by dehydration synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Which of these is a source of lactose?

A

milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Lactose is the sugar found in

A

milk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Which of these is a polysaccharide?

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

_____ is the most abundant organic compound on Earth.

A

cellulose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cellulose is a

A

component of plant cell walls, and is the most abundant organic compound found on earth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lactose, the sugar in milk, is a

A

disaccharide, because it can be split into two monosaccharides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

A simple sugar is composed of equal parts carbon and water, which gave rise to the general name of any sugar as a

A

carbohydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A carbohydrate that yields many monosaccharides when hydrolyzed is a

A

polysaccharide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

A monosaccharide cannot be

A

hydrolyzed any further

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Which is not a lipid?

A

RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

RNA is a

A

nucleic acid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Which of these are lipids?

A

phospholipid
steroids
cholesterol
wax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The fatty acid tails lack

A

double bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Phospholipids are composed of

A

a phosphate group, a glycerol, and fatty acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which of these is rich in unsaturated fats?

A

olive oil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Olive oil is a

A

plant oil, and most plant oils are rich in unsaturated fats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

A function of cholesterol that does not harm health is its role _____.

A

as a component of animal cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Cholesterol is an important component of

A

animal cell membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Defensive proteins are manufactured by the _____ system.

A

immune

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The immune system is involved in protecting the body against invasion by

A

foreign objects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Proteins are polymers of

A

amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What type of bond joins the monomers in a protein’s primary structure?

A

peptide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

The amino acids of a protein are linked by

A

peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Alpha helices and beta pleated sheets are characteristic of a protein’s

A

secondary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The secondary structure of a protein results from _____.

A

hydrogen bonds.

Electronegative oxygen and nitrogen atoms leave hydrogen atoms with partial positive charges.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Tertiary structure is NOT directly dependent on _____.

A

peptide bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Peptide bonds link together the amino acids of a protein’s

A

primary structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Secondary structures describes the

A

alpha-helices and beta-sheets that are formed by hydrogen bonding between backbone atoms located near each other in the polypeptide chain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Tertiary structure is

A

achieved when a protein folds into a compact, three-dimensional shape stabilized by interactions between side-chain R groups of amino acids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Primary structure is

A

the sequence of amino acids in a protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Quaternary structure is

A

the result of two or more protein subunits assembling to form a larger, biologically active protein complex.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The tertiary and quaternary structures of proteins—how they fold into their overall three-dimensional shapes, and how different protein subunits come together to interact—both ultimately depend on the

A

primary structure, the sequence of amino acids in the proteins. A different sequence of amino acids will lead to different secondary structures and a different shape of the overall protein.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

If a strand of DNA has the nitrogen base sequence 5’-ATTTGC-3’, what will be the sequence of the matching strand?

A

3’-TAAACG-5’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Adenine pairs with

A

thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Guanine pairs with

A

cytosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

If a DNA double helix is 100 nucleotide pairs long and contains 25 adenine bases, how many guanine bases does it contain?

A

75.

100 nucleotide pairs are a total of 200 nucleotides. Because of base pairing, if there are 25 adenine there must also be 25 thymine. This leaves 200–50 = 150 nucleotides to be divided evenly between guanine and cytosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The two strands of a DNA double helix are held together by _____ that form between pairs of nitrogenous bases.

A

hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Nitrogenous base pairs are joined by

A

hydrogen bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A nucleotide is composed of a(n) _____.

A

phosphate group, a nitrogen-containing base, and a five-carbon sugar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Which structure is not a component of a nucleotide?

A

Sulfhydryl Oxygen group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Which structures are components of a nucleotide?

A

pentose
nitrogen-containing base
phosphate group

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Nucleotide structure

A

The nitrogenous base is bonded to the sugar.
The sugar can either be ribose or deoxyribose
The sugar is bonded to the phosphate group.
The phosphate group is bonded to the sugar.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Guanine and uracil are examples of

A

nitrogenous bases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Adenine, thymine, and cytosine are examples of

A

nitrogenous bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Guanine, Uracil, Adenine, Thymine, and cytosine

A

examples of nitrogenous bases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Which linkage forms the backbone of a nucleic acid?

A

A sugar-phosphate linkage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

In DNA’s structure

A

The nucleic acid strands in a DNA molecule are oriented antiparallel to each other.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

The 5’ end of one strand in a DNA molecule is oriented opposite the 3’ end of the other strand, making the strands

A

antiparallel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the complementary DNA sequence to 5’ ATGCATGTCA 3’?

A

5’ TGACATGCAT 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

The nucleic acids DNA and RNA are made from chains of

A

nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Nucleotides consist of three components:

A

a five-carbon sugar (either ribose or deoxyribose), a nitrogenous base attached to the sugar’s 1’-carbon, and a phosphate group attached to the sugar’s 5’-carbon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Components of Nucleotides (Nucleotide building blocks)

A 
phosphate
ribose
deoxyribose
purine
pyrimidine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

All of the genetic material in all living organisms is made from these basic building blocks of nucleotides.

A

nucleotides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Thymine and deoxyribose occur

A

exclusively in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and phosphate occur in

A

both DNA and RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Uracil and ribose occur

A

exclusively in RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

DNA is used for

A

storage of genetic information.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The presence of deoxyribose as the sugar in DNA makes the molecule

A

more stable and less susceptible to hydrolysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

The 2’-oxygen on the ribose found in RNA makes RNA

A

much more susceptible to breakdown.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

It is important that mRNA be easily broken down, to ensure that

A

the correct levels of protein are maintained in the cell.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Three possible components of a DNA molecule

A

deoxyribose, phosphate group, thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

DNA and RNA have similar structures:

A

a pentose sugar with a nitrogenous base and a phosphate group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

DNA and RNA differ in the

A

type of pentose sugar each possesses (DNA has deoxyribose; RNA has ribose) and in one base (DNA has thymine; RNA has uracil).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

In a DNA sequence, the purine adenine always pairs with the

A

pyrimidine thymine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

In a DNA sequence, the purine guanine always pairs with the

A

pyrimidine cytosine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The base pair adenine-cytosine occurs

A

very rarely in nature. It only happens during a mutation event. When the DNA is replicated, one of the two daughters will contain a guanine-cytosine base pair in the location of the mutation, and the other daughter will contain an adenine-thymine base pair.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the function of fimbriae?

A

They are used to attach the cell to its substrate or to other prokaryotes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Fimbriae are

A

hair-like projections that aid in attachment. They are also known as attachment pili to distinguish them from the pili used in conjugation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

How does the large amount of genetic variation observed in prokaryotes arise?

A

They have extremely short generation times and large populations.
They can exchange DNA with many types of prokaryotes by way of horizontal gene transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

The short generation times and large population sizes in most prokaryotic species, coupled with their ability to exchange genes, helps to

A

increase genetic variability beyond what we would expect in asexually reproducing organisms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Genes for the resistance of antibiotics are usually located _____.

A

on plasmids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Bacteria that live around deep-sea, hot-water vents obtain energy by oxidizing inorganic hydrogen sulfide belched out by the vents. They use this energy to build organic molecules from carbon obtained from the carbon dioxide in seawater. These bacteria are _____.

A

chemoautotrophs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

chemoautotrophs use

A

inorganic molecules (in redox reactions) for energy, and carbon dioxide for carbon.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Obligate anaerobes are

A

poisoned by O2.

Some obligate anaerobes live exclusively by fermentation; others extract chemical energy by anaerobic respiration, in which substances other than O2 accept electrons at the “downhill” end of electron transport chains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Bacteria reproduce through

A 
binary fisson.
During binary fission, the DNA in the bacterial chromosome is replicated, and one copy is passed to each daughter cell.
Although plasmids (small, circular DNA molecules separate from the main bacterial chromosome) are not shown in the figure, any plasmids in a bacterial cell are also replicated and passed to each daughter cell during binary fission.
Mutations that arise during DNA replication are one source of genetic variation in bacterial populations.
The rapid reproduction and large sizes of many bacterial populations can yield considerable genetic variation despite a low mutation rate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Gram-positive bacteria

A
  • alcohol rinse does not remove crystal violet.
  • have a thick peptidoglycan layer
  • appear purple have Gram staining
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Gram-negative bacteria

A
  • alcohol rinse easily removes crystal violet
  • have a thin peptidoglycan layer
  • appear pink after Gram staining
  • have an outer membrane as part of their cell wall structure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Both gram-positive bacteria and gram-negative bacteria

A

have a plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Gram staining is a technique for

A

classifying bacteria based on differences in the structure of their cell walls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

_____ are surface appendages that allow a bacterium to stick to a surface.

A

Pili

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Pili enable bacterial cells to

A

stick to a surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the function of a bacterium’s capsule?

A

protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

Where is a bacterial cell’s DNA found?

A

nucleoid region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Bacteria lack a nucleus so

A

their DNA is found in the nucleoid region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

In a bacterium, where are proteins synthesized?

A

ribosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Ribosomes are involved in the

A

manufacture of polypeptides (proteins).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What name is given to the rigid structure, found outside the plasma membrane, that surrounds and supports the bacterial cell?

A

cell wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The cell wall is a

A

rigid supporting structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The _____ is the bacterial structure that acts as a selective barrier, allowing nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to leave the cell.

A

plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

The plasma membrane is

A

selectively permeable

140
Q

The structure that regulates the passage of material into and out of this bacterial cell is

A

the plasma membrane

141
Q

Beginning within the nucleus, the first step leading to the synthesis of a polypeptide is _____.

A

transferring of information from DNA to messenger RNA

142
Q

Transcription is the

A

first of the two main steps of protein synthesis.

143
Q

Pancreatic cells, which secrete a large amount of digestive enzymes, are labeled with radioactive leucine and then chased for several hours with nonradioactive leucine. Photographic emulsions are prepared at different times during the chase. Where would the black spots appear on an emulsion prepared 3 hours after the pulse?

A

Exterior of the cell.
Black spots would appear on the exterior of the cell after 3 hours, indicating that the proteins had been secreted from the cell.

144
Q

What path does a protein in the secretory pathway take, starting from its site of synthesis?

A

Rough ER, Golgi apparatus, secretory vesicles, plasma membrane

145
Q

Proteins are

A

synthesized in the rough ER, modified in the Golgi apparatus, and carried in secretory vesicles to the plasma membrane, where they are secreted.

146
Q

During a pulse-chase experiment, photographic emulsions were prepared at different times during the chase, and radioactive spots were detected at the following times and locations: 5 minutes: rough ER; 10 minutes: Golgi apparatus; 40 minutes: endosomes; 70 minutes: lysosomes; 140 minutes: lysosomes. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from these results?

A

The final destination of the proteins was the lysosome.

This conclusion can be drawn from the results, since the radioactive spots were last detected at the lysosome, which is not a secretory vesicle.

147
Q

What scientific hypotheses can be tested by a pulse-chase experiment?

A

Movement of molecules through a cell over time

Pulse–chase experiments allow for the tracking of molecules in a cell over time.

148
Q

Which organelle plays a role in intracellular digestion?

A

lysosome.

The prefix “lyso-“ means decomposition.

149
Q

The pathway of secretory proteins

A

Proteins that are secreted from a eukaryotic cell must first travel through the endomembrane system. As they are being synthesized, secretory proteins enter the lumen of the endoplasmic reticulum. From the ER, vesicles transport these proteins to the Golgi, where they are sequentially modified and concentrated in a cis-to-trans direction. Secretory vesicles bud from the Golgi and move along cytoskeletal filaments to eventually fuse with the plasma membrane, secreting their protein cargo. Each of these transport steps requires specialized proteins to ensure that the cargo is sent to the proper location and is able to fuse with the target membrane.

150
Q

The cilia and flagella of eukaryotic cells are composed of _____.

A

microtubules

151
Q

Eukaryotic cilia and flagella are composed of

A

microtubules.

152
Q

Prokaryotes thrive (live)

A

almost everywhere, including places too acidic, salty, cold, or hot for most other organisms

153
Q

Most prokaryotes are

A

microscopic, but what they lack in size they make up for in numbers

154
Q

Prokaryotes are divided into two domains:

A

Bacteria and archaea

155
Q

Domain Archaea

A

things live in extreme environments

156
Q

Domain bacteria

A

things live in regular environments

157
Q

Earth’s first organisms were likely

A

prokaryotes.

been around the longest.

158
Q

Most prokaryotes are

A

unicellular, although some species form colonies

159
Q

Most prokaryotic cells are much smaller than

A

eukaryotic cells

160
Q

Prokaryotic cells have a

A

variety of shapes

161
Q

The three most common shapes of prokaryotic cells are

A

spheres (cocci)
rods (bacili)
and
spirals (spirilla)

162
Q

An important feature of nearly all prokaryotic cells is their

A

cell wall

which maintains cell shape, protects the cell, and prevents it from bursting in a hypotonic environment

163
Q

Eukaryote cell walls are made of

A

cellulose or chitin

164
Q

Bacterial cell walls contain

A

peptidoglycan, a network of sugar polymers cross-linked by polypeptides

165
Q

Archaea contain

A

polysaccharides and proteins but lack peptidoglycan

166
Q

scientists use the Gram Stain to

A

classify bacteria by cell wall composition

167
Q

Gram-positive bacteria have

A

simpler walls with a large amount of peptidoglycan

168
Q

Gram-negative bacteria have

A

less peptidoglycan and an outer membrane that can be toxic

169
Q

Gram-positive bacteria

A

turn purple.
have a cell wall with only a peptidoglycan layer. and the peptidoglycan layer is bigger than gram-negative bacteria.
And then it has a plasma membrane underneath

170
Q

Gram-negative bacteria

A

turn pink.
have a cell wall that has an outer membrane and a smaller layer of peptidoglycan.
and then a plasma membrane underneath.

171
Q

many antibiotics target

A

peptidoglycan and damage bacteria cell walls

172
Q

gram-negative bacteria are more likely to be

A

antibiotic resistant.

not good to get.

173
Q

A polysaccharide or protein layer called a capsule covers

A

many prokaryotes

174
Q

Some prokaryotes have fimbriae, which

A

allow them to stick to their substrate or other individuals in a colony.
They are like hairy looking extensions.

175
Q

Pili (or sex pill) are longer than

A

fimbriae and allow prokaryotes to exchange DNA

176
Q

In a heterogeneous environment, many bacteria exhibit

A

taxis, the ability to move forward or away from a stimulus

177
Q

Chemotaxis is the

A

movement toward or away from a chemical stimulus

178
Q

Most motile bacteria propel themselves by

A

flagella scattered about the surface or concentrated at one or both ends

179
Q

Flagella of bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes are

A

composed of different proteins and likely evolved differently

180
Q

Prokaryotic cells usually lack

A 
complex compartmentalization 
(They dont have membranes on the inside. no nucleus)
181
Q

Some prokaryotes do have

A

specialized membranes that perform metabolic functions.

These are usually infoldings of the plasma membrane

182
Q

The prokaryotic genome has less DNA than the

A

eukaryotic genome

183
Q

Most of the genome consists of a

A

circular chromosome

184
Q

The chromosome is not surrounded by a membrane; it is located in the

A

nucleoid region

185
Q

Some species of bacteria also have similar rings of DNA called

A

plasmids

186
Q

There are some differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes in

A

DNA replication, transcription, and translation.

These allow people to use some antibiotics to inhibit bacterial growth without harming themselves.

187
Q

DNA is a big circularish piece in a part which is called the

A

nucleoid region

188
Q

Prokaryotes reproduce quickly by

A

binary fission and can divide every 1-3 hours.

they reproduce really fast

189
Q

Key features of prokaryotic reproduction

A

they are small
they reproduce by binary fission
they have short generation times

190
Q

Prokaryotes have short generation times which means

A

it doesn’t take a lot of time to mature as bacteria

191
Q

Many prokaryotes form metabolically inactive

A

endospores, which can remain viable in harsh conditions for centuries

192
Q

Prokaryotes short generation time allows them to

A

evolve quickly.

For example, adaptive evolution in a bacterial colony was documented in a lab over 8 years.

193
Q

Prokaryotes are not “primitive” (simple) but are

A

highly evolved.

They are good at what they do.

194
Q

Prokaryotes have

A

considerable genetic variation.

195
Q

Three factors that contribute to Prokaryote’s genetic diversity

A

Rapid reproduction
Mutation
Genetic recombination

196
Q

Prokaryotes reproduce by

A

binary fission, and offspring cells are generally identical

197
Q

Mutation rates during binary fission are

A

low, but because of rapid reproduction, mutations can accumulate rapidly in a population

198
Q

High diversity from mutations allows for

A

rapid evolution

199
Q

Genetic recombination

A

the combining of DNA from two sources, contributes to diversity.

genetic recombination- mixing DNA from different types of bacteria?

200
Q

Prokaryotic DNA from different individuals can be brought together by

A

transformation
transduction
conjugation

201
Q

Movement of genes among individuals from different species is called

A

horizontal gene transfer

202
Q

Transformation is when

A

floating around bacterial cells pick up other DNA and pick it up

203
Q

A prokaryotic cell can take up and incorporate foreign DNA from the surrounding environment in a process called

A

transformation

204
Q

Transduction is

A

the movement of genes between bacteria by bacteriophages (viruses that infect bacteria)

205
Q

transduction is when

A

it takes bacterial DNA and puts it into another DNA with the help of a virus that moves it from one to another.

Transduction-virus picking up DNA and moving it

206
Q

Conjugation is

A

the process where genetic material is transferred between prokaryotic cells

207
Q

In bacteria,

A

the DNA transfer is one way

208
Q

A donor cell attaches to a recipient by a

A

pilus, pulls it closer, and transfer DNA

209
Q

A piece of DNA called the

A

F Factor is required for the production of pili

210
Q

F Factor

A

plasmid

211
Q

R plasmids

A

carry genes for antibiotic resistance.

pieces of DNA that tell you how to resist antibiotics

212
Q

Antibiotics kill sensitive bacteria, but

A

not bacteria with specific R plasmids

213
Q

through natural selection,

A

the fraction of bacteria with genes for resistance increases in a population exposed to antibiotics.
Antibiotic-resistant strains are becoming more common.

214
Q

Prokaryotes can be categorized by how they obtain energy and carbon

A

phototrophs
chemotrophs
autotrophs
heterotrophs

215
Q

Phototrophs

A

obtain energy from light

216
Q

Chemotrophs

A

obtain energy from chemicals

217
Q

Autotrophs

A

require CO2 as a carbon source

218
Q

Heterotrophs

A

require an organic nutrient to make organic compounds

219
Q

Energy and carbon sources are combined to give four major modes of nutrition

A

photoautotrophy
chemoautotrophy
photoheterotrophy
chemoheterotrophy

220
Q

We are

A

chemoheterotrophs.

We get energy from chemicals and require an organic nutrient to make organic compounds?

221
Q

Prokaryotic metabolism varies with respect to

A

O2

222
Q

Obligate aerobes

A

require O2 for cellular respiration.

have to have it to live

223
Q

Obligate anaerobes

A

are poisoned by O2 and use fermentation or anaerobic respiration.
Can’t live with oxygen.

224
Q

Facultative anaerobes

A

can survive with or without O2.
Doesn’t matter if they have oxygen or not.

Ex. yeast.

225
Q

Nitrogen is essential for the

A

production of amino acids and nucleic acids.

226
Q

Prokaryotes have to get

A

nitrogen

227
Q

Prokaryotes can metabolize nitrogen in

A

a variety of ways

228
Q

In nitrogen fixation,

A

some prokaryotes convert atmospheric nitrogen (N2) to ammonia (NH3)

229
Q

Cooperation between prokaryotes allows them to use environmental resources they could not use as

A

individual cells

230
Q

Bacteria cooperate (work)

A

together

231
Q

In the cyanobacterium Anabaena,

A

photosynthetic cells and nitrogen-fixing cells called heterocysts (or heterocysts) exchange metabolic products.

232
Q

In some prokaryotic species

A

metabolic cooperation occurs in surface-coating colonies called biofilms.

biofilms are like the nasty stuff you get/feel on your teeth.

233
Q

Bacteria that ________ tend to have abundant internal membranes.

A

are photosynthetic

234
Q

Cyanobacteria have

A

thylakoid membranes, much like those in chloroplasts, that function in photosynthesis

235
Q

Bacterial cells, but not eukaryotic cells, possess

A

a nucleoid with a circular chromosome

236
Q

The bacterial chromosome is

A

one double-stranded DNA molecule in the form of a ring, and is not contained within a nuclear envelope

237
Q

What is a difference between bacteria and archaea?

A

Bacteria and Archaea have different chemicals in their cell membranes and cell walls.

238
Q

Bacteria have

A

peptidoglycan in their cell walls

239
Q

Archaea never have

A

peptidoglycan

240
Q

Plasmids

A

often contain antibiotic resistance.
are transferred from one bacterium to another by conjugation.
allow bacteria to survive adverse conditions.
replicate independently of the main chromosome.

241
Q

Plasmids may also direct the

A

metabolism of rarely encountered nutrients

242
Q

An F+ bacterial cell

A

acts as a donor during conjugation.
The F+ designation indicates that the bacterial cell has the genes necessary to initiate conjugation and transfer DNA to the receptor cell.

243
Q

Photoautotrophs use

A

light as an energy source and CO2 as a carbon source

244
Q

Gram-negative bacteria have less peptidoglycan than gram-positive cells, and their cell walls are

A

more complex structurally.

245
Q

Gram-negative bacteria do not contain as much

A

peptidoglycan. They have an additional outer membrane with lipopolysaccharides

246
Q

Portions of the genomes of certain prokaryotic species are very similar to portions of the genomes of distantly related prokaryotes. The process that most likely accounts for this genetic similarity is

A

horizontal gene transfer.

247
Q

prokaryotes are adept at obtaining DNA from other sources, including other species of prokaryotes, through the processes of

A

conjugation, transformation, and transduction.

248
Q

Bacteria that use light for their energy source and CO2 for their carbon source are called

A

photoautotrophs.

Photoautotrophs are photosynthetic organisms that harness light energy to drive the synthesis of organic compounds from carbon dioxide.

249
Q

Scientists hypothesize that the O157:H7 strain of E. Coli is so different from the K-12 strain because of

A

horizontal gene transfer over many years, most likely through the action of bacteriophages.

Many of these imported genes are associated with the pathogenic bacterium’s invasion of the host.

250
Q

The desulfovibrio bacterium breaks down organic matter (which it must have) and uses sulfate (not oxygen) as an electron acceptor. As a result, it produces hydrogen sulfide (H2S), accounting for the “rotten egg” smell of swamp muck. Oxygen is a deadly poison to Desulfovirbrio. We would call Desulfovirbrio an

A

obligately anaerobic chemoheterotroph.

Obligate anaerobes are poisoned by oxygen.
Chemoheterotrophs must consume organic molecules for both energy and carbon.

251
Q

Why is salt a good preservative to use for foods such as pork and fish?

A

Prokaryotic cells living in the food will shrink from their cell walls, impacting their ability to reproduce.

252
Q

A gram-negative cell wall consists of

A

a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane containing lipipolysaccharides

253
Q

Which of the following involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells?

A

biofilms

254
Q

In an experiment, a microbiologist put equal numbers of each of the following organisms into a flask of sterile broth, consisting mostly of sugar and a few amino acids. She then placed the flask in the dark. Which of the organisms would be most likely to survive?

A

chemoheterotrophic bacteria.

these organisms do not require light and use organic compounds for both energy and carbon

255
Q

Which statement about prokaryotes is true?

A

prokaryotes are widely used for bioremediation.
prokaryotes have been used in sewage treatment for decades, and they are being used to clean up oil spills and radioactive waste.

256
Q

prokaryotes are completely indispensable to which chemical cycle?

A

nitrogen.

257
Q

Nitrogen-fixing bacteria are

A

the only organisms that can fix atmospheric nitrogen into compounds that other organisms can use to build cellular components.

258
Q

Which of the following is true about R Plasmids?

A

R plasmids can carry genes that confer resistance to many antibiotics,
and they can be transferred via conjugation

259
Q

How is it possible that as many as 9 million mutations can arise each day in the E. coli inhabiting one human?

A

the mathematics of large population size and rapid reproduction rate combine to produce many mutations without a particularly high mutation rate.

260
Q

SImply by rapid multiplication and a very large population with a normal mutation rate,

A

enormous numbers of mutations can arise in a single day. Even if many of the mutations are lethal, they will hardly make a dent in the population.

261
Q

Bacterial flagella have a very complex structure composed of 42 distinct proteins. What is the most likely explanation for the evolution of these complex structures?

A

exaptation.
proteins that were already part of the bacterial body were modified through natural selection to take on new functions as the bacterial flagella.

262
Q

Which statement about transformation is true?

A

it can be facilitated by cell-surface proteins that recognize compatible DNA.

for some bacteria, transformation is a very important source of genetic material, and they have evolved mechanisms to make the process efficient.

263
Q

genetic variation in bacterial populations cannot result from

A

meiosis.

264
Q

genetic variations in bacterial populations can result from

A 
mutation
transformation
conjugation
and
transduction
265
Q

the bacteria that cause tetanus can be killed only by prolonged heating at temperatures considerably above boiling. this suggests that these bacteria

A

produce endospores.

endospores are extremely heat resistant.

266
Q

biofilms are an example of

A

metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic species.

267
Q

Bacteria in biofilms send signals to each other, produce structures to channel nutrients in and wastes out, and

A

produce proteins that help the cells adhere to the substrate and to each other.

268
Q

in the absence of meiosis and sexual reproduction, what general process allows genetic recombination among prokaryotes?

A

horizontal gene transfer

269
Q

horizontal gene transfer by wat of transformation, transduction, and conjugation allows

A

bacteria to share genetic material and recombine it.

270
Q

The peptide bond is

A

a covalent bond joining amino acids together to form a polypeptide.
It is a specific type of covalent bond joining two amino acids.

271
Q

The lipids that form the main structural component of cell membranes are

A

phospholipids

272
Q

Phospholipids have a

A

hydrophilic head and two hydrophobic tails. This permits the phospholipids to be arranged in a bilayer, or double layer, which forms a boundary between the cell and its external environment.

273
Q

a glucose molecule is to starch as

A

a nucleotide is to a nucleic acid.

274
Q

Nucleotides are the monomers that make

A

nucleic acid polymers, just as glucose is the monosaccharide (monomer) from which starch (polymer) is constructed

275
Q

Carbohydrates can function in which of the following ways?

A

structural support and energy storage.

276
Q

Carbohydrates function as both

A

storage molecules (starch, glycogen) and as structural support molecules (Cellulose)

277
Q

In what polysaccharide form do plants store glucose to be available later as an energy source?

A

Starch.

278
Q

Starch is a glucose storage polymer in

A

plants.

279
Q

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. what would be the molecular formular for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?

A

C60H102O51

280
Q

The fatty acid tails of a phospholipid are hydrophobic because they

A

have no charges to which water molecules can adhere.

281
Q

Phospholipid tails, which consists of nonpolar hydrocarbon chains, are

A

hydrophobic

282
Q

One characteristic shared by sucrose, lactose, and maltose is that

A

they are all disaccharides.

283
Q

A disaccharide consists of

A

two monosaccharides joined together by a glycosidic linkage

284
Q

Which of the following is a polymer?

A

cellulose, a plant cell wall component.

285
Q

The polysaccharide cellulose is a

A

major component of plant cell walls.

It is a polymer composed of many glucose monomers joined together by glycosidic linkages.

286
Q

A polysaccharide that is used for storing energy in human muscle and liver cells is

A

glycogen.

287
Q

Humans and other vertebrates store glucose as a

A

polysaccharide called glycogen in their liver and muscles

288
Q

When a protein is denatured, why does it lose its functionality?

A

denaturation breaks the weak bonds, such as hydrogen bonds and van der Waals interactions, that hold the protein in its three-dimensional shape. Without the proper shape, the protein cannot function.

289
Q

Denaturation disrupts

A

secondary, tertiary, and quaternary protein structure, causing the protein to lose its form, and thus its function

290
Q

Lipids differ from other large biological molecules in that they

A

are not truly polymers.

291
Q

Lipids are not all made of the same type of

A

monomer. Their association as a group (fats, phospholipids, and steroids) is related to their solubility behavior.

292
Q

Which of the following are pyrimidines found in the nucleic acid DNA?

A

thymine and cytosine

293
Q

The polysaccharide that you are most likely to have eaten recently is

A

starch.

294
Q

Starch is a

A

storage polysaccharide found especially in certain plant tissues

295
Q

What is the process by which monomers are linked together to form polymers?

A

dehydration or condensation reactions

296
Q

When monomers are linked together to form a more complex polymer,

A

a water molecule is removed by dehydration (condensation) reactions

297
Q

A shortage of phosphorus in the soil would make it especially difficult for a plant to manufacture

A

DNA.

298
Q

the backbone of a nucleic acid consists of

A

alternating sugar and phosphate groups.

299
Q

What do Alzheimer’s, Parkinson’s, and mad cow disease have in common?

A

all have been associated with the buildup of misfolded proteins in cells.

These diseases and others have been associated with a buildup of misfolded versions of various proteins within cells.

300
Q

Which of the following is true regarding complementary base pairing in DNA and RNA molecules?

A

Although the base pairing between two strands of DNA in a DNA molecule can be thousands to millions of base pairs long, base pairing in an RNA molecule is limited to short stretches of nucleotides in the same molecule or between two RNA molecules

301
Q

Complementary base pairing provides an

A

accurate way to synthesize a new DNA molecule from an existing one, and gives RNA molecules particular three-dimensional shapes necessary for their function.

302
Q

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the a form. Which of the following could amylase break down?

A

glycogen, stach, and amylopectin

303
Q

Some lipids are formed when fatty acids are linked to glycerol. These subunits are linked together by

A

ester linkages.

304
Q

In making a fat, each of the three fatty acid molecules is bonded to a glycerol by an

A

ester linkage type of covalent bond

305
Q

Which of the following lists ranks these molecules in the correct oder by size? from largest to smallest.

A

protein, sucrose, glucose, water

306
Q

which type of protein shields a newly forming protein from cytoplasmic influences while it is folding into its functional form?

A

chaperonins

307
Q

Chaperonins shield proteins from

A

“bad influences” (interactions with other molecules in the cytoplasm) while they are folding into their functional forms

308
Q

A polypeptide is a

A

chain of amino acids that have been linked together by dehydration reactions

309
Q

What is the term for compounds that do not mix with water?

A

hydrophobic

310
Q

Hydrophobic compounds are those that are

A

insoluble in water

311
Q

which of the following components of a tossed salad will pass through the human digestive tract and be digested the least?

A

cellulose (in the lettuce)

312
Q

Cellulose contains

A

glycosidic linkages that cannot be broken by human digestive enzymes

313
Q

Omega-3 fatty acids are

A

polyunsaturated fats that contain three or more cis double bonds and are found in vegetable oils, some nuts, and in fatty fish. Considered essential fatty acids, they are required for normal growth in children and studies suggest that they provide protection against cardiovascular disease in adults.

314
Q

On the basis of the principle of complementary base pairing, you would expect the percentage of adenine to be equal to the percentage of

A

thymine

315
Q

Which of the following carbohydrate molecules has the lowest molecular weight?

A

glucose

316
Q

glucose is a

A

monosaccharide

317
Q

Which of the following describes differences between DNA and RNA?

A

RNA molecules consist of a single polynucleotide chain, whereas DNA molecules consist of two polynucleotide chains organized into a double helix.
They contain different sugars.
One of their nitrogenous bases is different.

318
Q

the alpha helix and beta pleated sheet represent which level of protein structure?

A

secondary structure

319
Q

Both the alpha helix and the beta pleated sheet are localized regions of

A

polypeptides held in a given structure by hydrogen bonds

320
Q

Protein molecules are polymers (chains) of

A

amino acid molecules

321
Q

Polymers of amino acids are called

A

polypeptides

322
Q

A protein consists of

A

one or more polypeptides folded into specific conformations

323
Q

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

A

they have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids

324
Q

Amylase is an enzyme that breaks down starch. Why can’t the same enzyme break down cellulose?

A

the monosaccharide monomers in cellulose are bonded together differently than in starch.

325
Q

The glucose monomers in cellulose are bonded in a

A

beta glycosidic linkage, whereas those in starch have an alpha glycosidic linkage. the enzyme amylase is specific for the alpha glycosidic linkage.

326
Q

The sex hormones estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone belong to which class of molecules?

A

lipids.

327
Q

Steroids, such as estrogen, progesterone, and testosterone, are lipids based on their

A

insolubility in water. the molecules are characterized by a carbon skeleton consisting of four fused rings of carbon atoms.

328
Q

What is a distinguishing feature of most naturally occurring fats?

A

nearly all naturally occurring unsaturated fats have cis double bonds

329
Q

Naturally occurring unsaturated fats found in plants and fish are distinguished by the

A

presence of one or more cis double bonds in their hydrocarbon chains

330
Q

A nucleotide is made of which of the following chemical components?

A

a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar

331
Q

Each nucleotide consists of three parts:

A

an organic molecule, called a nitrogenous base
a 5 carbon sugar, called a pentose
and a phosphate group that serves in the phosphodiester covalent bond that forms a bridge between adjacent nucleotides

332
Q

In a hydrolysis reaction, a polymer is broke up into its constituent monomers, and in this process water is

A

consumer.

333
Q

the meaning of “hydrolysis” is

A

“to break with water”

334
Q

Enzyme molecules require a specific shape to perform their catalytic function. Which of the following might alter the shape of an enzymatic protein?

A

denaturing the protein
a change in salt concentrations of pH
mixing in a chemical that removes hydrogen bonds
heating the protein

335
Q

Which of the following molecules is a monosaccharide?

A

C6H12O6

336
Q

Monosaccharides have molecules formulas that are multiples of

A

CH2O

337
Q

If a small droplet of triaclyglycerol molecules is suspended in water, the fat molecules form a “ball of spaghetti” with no particular orientation. But if a droplet of phospholipid molecules is put in water, all the molecules point outward, toward the water. Phospholipids are forced into this orientation because phospholipids have

A

a charged end and a noncharged end.

338
Q

The hydrocarbon tails of phospholipids are

A

hydrophobic and are excluded from water. The negatively charged phosphate group and its attachments form a hydrophilic head that is attracted to water.

339
Q

The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are in the a (alpha) form. Which of the following could amylase break down?

A

glycogen, starch, and amylopectin

340
Q

Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?

A

They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.

341
Q

Which of the following categories includes all of the others in the list?

a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. starch
d. carbohydrate
e. polysaccharide

A

d. carbohydrate

342
Q

The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the

A

primary level

343
Q

Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?

A

The phosphodiester linkages of the polynucleotide back bone would be broken

344
Q

The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration synthesis?

A

C60H102O51

345
Q

Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA?

A

5’-ATGC-3’ with 5’-GCAT-3’

Biology 1406 (53 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions