Chapter 4 Flashcards

1
Q

neurons always look the same

A

f Dif shapes and sizes

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2
Q

A protein is a chain of fairly simple building-block molecules called …

A

amino acids

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3
Q

how many of the 22 amino acids must we ingest in food

A

8

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4
Q

what is a node of ranvier

A

Uninsulated sections of the axon

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5
Q

REVIEW FIGURE 4.1

A

?

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6
Q

what is the charge difference inside and outside the neuron

A

The inside of the neuron is slightly negative relative to the outside.

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7
Q

why is it important that neutrons are slightly negative in cell

A

This potential difference results from an uneven distribution of ions between the inside and outside of a cell.

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8
Q

what ionized molecules make for the resting potential of a cell

A

K + and Na +

Cl-

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9
Q

To understand the resting potential, we need to under-stand two things: …2

A

(a) The membrane potential is a relative potential—that is, we are always comparing the inside to the outside of the membrane; and (b) the outside of the membrane is always considered equal to zero.

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10
Q

of K, A, Cl and Na which are more inside or outside the cell

A

more K and A inside cell

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11
Q

3 passive processes?

A

diffusion, electrostatic charge and differential permiability

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12
Q

what is differential permeability

A

The only way ions can move into and out of the cell is through thousands of these specialized protein channels called ionophores or ion channels. These proteins are often a target of behav-iorally active drugs.

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13
Q

K+ and Cl–ions cross the cell membrane by easily passing through these channels, but tend to maintain their relative concentrations ..why?

A

inside and outside the cell (respectively) because the forces of diffusion and electrostatic charge off-set each other,

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14
Q

does A ever move in or out of cell

A

no too big

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15
Q

passively there is more Na inside the cell

A

t active t keeps it out (3 na out for every 1 k in

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16
Q

The resting potential of a neuron describes the …

A

distribution of ions in the absence of stimulation, but this membrane potential can vary substantially in response to a variety of stimuli.

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17
Q

When the membrane potential becomes less negative (i.e., moves toward zero and positive numbers), it is called…

A

depolarization

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18
Q

When the membrane potential becomes more negative (i.e., moves further away from zero), it is called ….

A

hyperpolarization.

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19
Q

what’s a cells normal resting potential

A

-70 mV

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20
Q

if the neuron is depolarized to about −55 mV, called the …, the entire resting potential and the processes that maintain it break down.

A

threshold

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21
Q

why does breakdown occur at threshold

A

because of special gated ion channels that are sensitive to the number of positive charges inside the cell. When the potential difference is reduced beyond the threshold, these voltage-gated ion channels open, allowing the free flow of ions across the membrane.

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22
Q

At this point, Na+ channels close, mark-ing the end of the … of the action potential. K+ channels remain open, and the efflux (outflow) of K+ continues; this is called the … phase of the action potential.

A

rising phase

repolarization

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23
Q

This breakdown and restoration of the resting poten-tial is known as an …., and it occurs very quickly.

A

action potential

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24
Q

how many ap can occur per second

A

thousands

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25
Q

The term … is often used to indicate the occurrence of an action potential

A

firing

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26
Q

where is an action potential generated

A

section of the neuron’s axon that lies adjacent to the axon hillock

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27
Q

The Na+ ions that move into the cell through ion channels also move sideways along the inside surface of the membrane. This passive movement, due to diffusion and electric charge, what does this do to resting potential

A

reduces the resting potential of the surrounding membrane

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28
Q

what does it mean to say APs are nondecremental

A

they reach the axon terminal with the same strength as which they were ini-tiated near the axon hillock.

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29
Q

what is the jumping of AP called

A

saltatory conduction

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30
Q

how fast can APs move

A

120 meters per second

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31
Q

APs are always the same

A

t as long as stimulations is strong enough to depolarize cell at threshold = all or none law

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32
Q

if all action potentials are the same, how does a neuron convey information about the strength of the stimulus depolarizing it?

A

rate at which action potentials are generated. If a depolarizing stimulus is applied continuously to a cell, it will cause the cell to produce repeated action poten-tials

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33
Q

Therefore, the stronger the … stimulus, the faster the membrane will fire. This principle is called the …

A

depolarizing

rate law.

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34
Q

why is AP all or nothing

A

The action potential is invariable in axons because axons have only voltage-gated ion chan-nels and nothing else that can modulate the effect of depolarization

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35
Q

Because the consequence of this disturbance is variable, we refer to depolarization in the cell body and dendrites as …, rather than action potentials

A

graded or postsynaptic potentials (PSPs)

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36
Q

The intensity of PSPs is propor-tional to the magnitude of the disturbance; however, this intensity decreases as the …

A

distance from the site of stim-ulation lengthens

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37
Q

where?: where variable PSPs have the potential to be converted to unvarying action potentials.

A

The region of the axon adjacent to the axon hillock is the place

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38
Q

If stimulation of dendrites or the cell body results in the opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels what will result

A

depolarization = excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)

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39
Q

the more the cell is depolarized past its threshold, the … it will fire.

A

faster

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40
Q

If stimulation of dendrites or the cell body results in the opening of voltage-gated K+ chan-nels, K+ ions will rush out of the cell and the resting potential will increase or opening of voltage-gated Cl–channels;:T

A

hyper polarized = harder to produce AP

inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP).

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41
Q

There are two major types of integration of signals in neurons: …`

A

(a) temporal summation and (b) spatial summatio

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42
Q

Temporal summation occurs when a neuron experi-ences …

A

several PSPs closely in time

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43
Q

Spatial summation occurs when two or more PSPs occur in …

A

close proximity on a neuron.

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44
Q

The neuron may have Na+ ions entering in some regions (…) and Cl–ions entering or K+ ions leav-ing in other regions (…).

A

excitation

inhibition

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45
Q

what determines if voltage gated Na+, K+, or Cl–channels will open

A

Opening of these ion channels is controlled by activation of various receptor subtypes by neurotransmitter chemicals

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46
Q

figure 4.4

A

?

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47
Q

Where do natural action potentials come from?

A

the outside world =sensory receptor neutrons

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48
Q

do neuron membranes touch ever

A

no but can happen in other tissues

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49
Q

Information is transferred between neurons at …

A

syn-apses.

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50
Q

Synapses are most frequently located between terminal buttons and dendrites (…) or between terminal buttons and cell bodies (….). They may also be located on or near another neuron’s axon or terminal buttons (…), thereby allowing one neuron to modulate another neuron’s influence on the postsynaptic cell

A

axodendritic synapses
axosomatic synapses
axoaxonic synapses

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51
Q

Synap-tic vesicles are more densely packed in the … of the terminal button where there also exist many voltage-gated calcium (Ca2+) channels

A

release zone

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52
Q

Upon arrival of an action potential, these channels open, permitting an influx of Ca2+ ions into the terminal button. Ca2+ influx triggers ….

A

the movement and fusion of synaptic vesicles with the pre-synaptic membrane and the exocytosis of neurotransmit-ter.

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53
Q

neurtransmitters can be secreted from regions along the axon in the general vicinity of a number of cells and diffuse to their synapses where they influence the activity of many cells at the same time

A

t

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54
Q

A .. is a chemi-cal that is synthesized and released by neurons and that modulates the effects of neurotransmitters

A

neuromodulator

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55
Q

Neuromodulators or NT are typically released in greater amounts and travel further distances

A

neuromod

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56
Q

Substances that act as neurotransmitters at one synapse may also act as neuromodulators at a differ-ent synapse.

A

t

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57
Q

A … is a special-ized protein that spans the membrane of the postsynaptic cell and contains a binding site to which a specific neu-rotransmitter molecule can briefly attach

A

receptor, receptor site, or receptor complex

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58
Q

each neurotransmitter mole-cule must have only one receptor to which it can bind

A

F often many different receptor subtypes to which a particular neurotransmitter molecule can bind

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59
Q

T: In some synapses, postsyn-aptic receptor proteins contain binding sites directly con-nected to a gated ion channel

A

IONOTROPIC receptors

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60
Q

The binding sites on …. are not directly connected to an ion channel. Instead, receptor sites are situated on the extracellular portion of a long signal protein that weaves its way back and forth seven times across the cell membrane

A

metabotropic recep-tors

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61
Q

metabolic: … are composed of subunits that, when the receptor is in an inac-tive state, are bound together.

A

G proteins

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62
Q

explain what happens during metetrobic reception

A

Some neurotransmitter molecules bind to receptors on membrane signal proteins, which are linked to G proteins. When a neurotransmitter molecule binds to a metabotropic receptor, a subunit of the G protein breaks off into the neuron and either binds to an ion channel or stimulates the synthesis of a second messenger.

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63
Q

figure 4.5

A

?

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64
Q

metabotrophic: the subunit may initiate a biochemical (enzymatic) reac-tion that leads to the synthesis of another molecule called a …

A

second messenger (neurotransmitters are considered first messengers).

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65
Q

what are the 3 ways second messangers work

A

Often, a second messenger interacts with gated ion chan-nels from inside the cell with similar but stronger and more long-lasting effects, compared to those of directly gated ion channels. Or, the second messenger can alter the operation of nongated ion channels in a way that changes the resting potential or the cell’s sensitivity to other stimuli.

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66
Q

release of a second mes-senger may lead to even longer-term or permanent effects because it can activate a type of protein called a …

A

kinase.

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67
Q

what are kinases

A

Kinases are enzymes that alter the functioning of other proteins, including ion chan-nels and receptors, and they do so for a much longer time than do second messengers.

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68
Q

how long will a kinase last

A

can remain active for many minutes or even hours.

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69
Q

The proteins created by the DNA could be …3 or any of the other molecules used by the cell in receiving and trans-mitting information

A

receptor sites, ion channels, ion pumps,

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70
Q

Patterns of gene activa-tion and silencing are known as the …, and the study of their influence on behavior and health is a hot field of research called …

A

epigenome

epigenetics

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71
Q

.T:stretches of DNA that determine whether a particular gene is expressed to initiate and regulate protein production.

A

enhancers or promotors—

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72
Q

what ultimately controls the expression of particular genes in the cell

A

transcription factors which bind directly to the “switches” to activate or repress tran-scription of a gene

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73
Q

what is it that arises from changes in gene expression that can be very long-lasting and are thought to be responsible for the formation and storage of memories in the brain.

A

Changes in neuron excitation or sensitivity

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74
Q

a type of metabotropic receptor. Receptor sites for neurotransmit-ters are located not only on the postsynaptic neuron but also on the presynaptic neuron:T

A

autoreceptors

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75
Q

how do auto receptors work on antidepressants

A

(regulate its levels through the activity of G proteins and second messengers)
Antidepressants produce a buildup of crucial neurotransmitters, but autoreceptors detect this excess and reduce production and release of the neu-rotransmitter molecules, thus blocking the effectiveness of the drug.

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76
Q

why do antidepressants start working after a few weeks

A

takes a few weeks to exhaust the autoreceptors before the drug can make changes in the functioning of the synapse.

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77
Q

T: The release of neurotrans-mitters from the presynaptic cell to alter the excit-ability of a postsynaptic cell most common communication method

A

heteroreceptors

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78
Q

hetero: from post to pre cell These are metabotropic receptor sites that func-tion very similarly to autoreceptors except that they respond, not to the release of neurotransmitter by the cell upon which they reside, but to …

A

chemicals released by the postsynaptic cell or other nearby cells when they become depolarized.

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79
Q

This transmission of chemi-cal information from a postsynaptic to a presynaptic cell is termed ….

A

retrograde signaling

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80
Q

2 ways of terminating synaptic action

A

reuptake

enzymatic degradation or deactivation

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81
Q

define reuptake

A

most common : (a) The presynaptic cell may quickly reabsorb the intact neurotransmitter mole-cule, taking it back into the cytoplasm of the terminal button where it gets repackaged into vesicles (which also get recycled) for future use

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82
Q

2 things at work during reuptake

A

glial cells and transporter proteins

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83
Q

explain enzymatic degradation or deactivation

A

The synapse may contain an enzyme, produced in and released from the same neuron as the neurotransmitter breaks the neurotransmitter into its precursors (constituent parts), which may also be taken back into the presynaptic cell to be remanufactured for future release

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84
Q

In the PNS, these groups of cell bodies are called …., and the bundles of axons are called nerves

A

ganglia (singular is ganglion)

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85
Q

In the CNS, the cell body groups are called … or centers, and the bundles of axons are called …

A

nuclei (singular is nucleus)

tracts

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86
Q

what makes up white and grey matter

A

Because axons are gener-ally covered with myelin, which is white, the nerves and tracts are called white matter. The unmyelinated cell bodies are called gray matter.

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87
Q

reuptake and is accomplished by a specialized mechanism that actively employs … molecules embedded in the membrane of the pre-synaptic cell.

A

transporter protein

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88
Q

what does the somatic NS do

A

how the brain and spinal cord recieve info from and allow us to interact with our enviro

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89
Q

where are the cell bodies of motor neurons

A

in the CNS= spinal cord

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90
Q

what nervous system contains the motor nerves

A

The somatic nervous system also contains the motor nerves

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91
Q

what kind of nerves are in the somatic system

A

motor, cranial

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92
Q

… is the transmitter at most neuromuscular junc-tions in the somatic system, and the receptor sites are of the nicotinic cholinergic type.

A

Acetylcho-line (ACh)

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93
Q

what do cranial nerves do

A

which are attached to the undersurface of the brain. Mostly, these nerves convey motor commands and/or sensory information to and from areas of the face and neck.

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94
Q

is somatic carrying to or from

A

to CNS

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95
Q

what is the autonomic NS in charge of

A

the autonomic nervous sys-tem is concerned with sensory information that we are usually unaware of

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96
Q

examples of autonomic info?

A

information about blood pressure and blood gases, the functioning of organs, and levels of hormones.

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97
Q

does somatic or automatic control the systems we have conscious control over

A

somatic system usually com-mands muscles over which we have voluntary control, the autonomic nervous system commands the muscles of the heart and intestines, the secretions of glands, and other regulatory systems over which we normally have no conscious control.

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98
Q

what are the 2 divisions of the ANS

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic division

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99
Q

T: generally keeps the internal functioning of the body running smoothly and calmly, in a rest-and-digest mode of operation

A

parasympa

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100
Q

The parasympathetic and sympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system are anatomically, function-ally, and neurochemically distinct.

A

t

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101
Q

where do the cell bodies of parasympathetic neuron originate

A

sacral region of spinal cord and cranial nerves

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102
Q

cell bodies of the sympathetic division originate in the …

A

tho-racic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord

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103
Q

The parasym-pathetic system uses… as a transmitter to control glands and muscles

A

ACh

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104
Q

what system are atropine drops in eyes that dilate pupils blocking

A

para system

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105
Q

The sympathetic system uses both …as neurotransmitters and … as a hormone.

A

acetylcholine and
norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

epinephrine (adrenaline)

106
Q

cocaine makes heart race and increased blood sugar level, what system?

A

sympathetic arousal

107
Q

the spinal cord It is made up of cell bodies and synapses with …, which help coordinate sensory and motor behavior.

A

interneurons

108
Q

Axons from sensory nerves enter the gray matter of the spinal cord from the side nearest the..

A

back

motor axons leave the from

109
Q

The ventral horn of the gray matter of the spinal cord con-tains the cell bodies of the …, the neurons that directly control the action of muscles and reflexes

A

motoneurons

110
Q

The dorsal horn contains cells that …

A

con-vey sensory information.

111
Q

are you born with the amount of neurons you’ll have

A

f neurogenesis is possible

112
Q

where does neurogenesis occur

A

hippocampus

sub ventricular zone

113
Q

what do these 2 zones where neurogenesis happens do

A

hippocampus involved in the formation of new memories

subventricular zone (which lines the walls of the brain’s lateral ventricles, cerebrospinal-filled cavities) from which new neurons migrate to the olfactory bulbs, involved in the sense of smell

114
Q

Most of the CNS is able to restructure and reorganize its connections during..

A

learning

115
Q

can the CNS repair itself

A

yes neuroplasticity

116
Q

The area at the base of the brain, where the spinal cord arises, is called the …

A

medulla oblongata

117
Q

the medulla contains part of the … which consists of numerous nuclei that act as control centers for the autonomic nervous system

A

descending reticular formation

118
Q

proper func-tioning of the autonomic nervous system depends on …l in the medulla

A

the general level of arousa

119
Q

why do drugs that depress medulla lead to death sometimes

A

it controls breathing: becomes depressed to the point where breathing stops.

120
Q

where is the vommiting centre

A

medulla

121
Q

what is the the chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), located in a region of the medulla called the area postrema

A

in vomit center

122
Q

what makes vommiting centre special

A

very few areas in the brain that is not shielded by the blood–brain barrier. It is therefore able to monitor the blood for toxins and can send a message to the vomit-ing center to initiate vomiting

123
Q

can nausea be produced even without ingesting something

A

Some drugs, such as opiates and nicotine, stimulate this center and cause nausea and vomiting even though the drug was inhaled or injected.

124
Q

where contains nuclei of the reticular formation that play a role in sleep and arousal.

A

pons

125
Q

what does the pons have to do with motor coordination

A

bridges and refines motor commands conveyed between parts of the cortex (includ-ing the motor cortex) and the cerebellum

126
Q

The pathway between the which 3 centres is a superhighway of motor information, containing about 20 million axons

A

cortex, pons, and cerebellum

127
Q

The … is a group of about 12,000 neu-rons whose cell bodies reside in the pons.

A

locus coeruleus

128
Q

how many synapses on a locus coeruleus

A

250 00

129
Q

what synapses use more of the norepinephrine in the brain

A

locus coeruleus

130
Q

what is the medial forebrain bundle

A

the pathway that reinforces lever pressing in rats .

131
Q

Activity of the locus coeruleus is modulated by input

from the inhibitory neurotransmitter … whose neu-rons form synapses there.

A

GABA

132
Q

Activity in the locus coeruleus is associated with ….

A

cognitive arousal, sleep-wake cycles, atten-tion, learning and memory, fear and pain, panic, and anger. (very active during panic attack)

133
Q

function of the cerebellum

A

as a component of the brain’s exten-sive motor system. integrated, coordinated, and refined into fluid move-ments

134
Q

when the cerebellum sends signals back to the motor cortex it goes through the…

A

thalamus (modifies motor commands)

135
Q

what does damage to cerebellum look like

A

People with damage to the cerebellum are slow and clumsy and may appear to be intoxicated by alcohol.

136
Q

The …. is a diffuse system consisting of more than 110 individual nuclei located in the core of the brainstem

A

reticular formation

137
Q

what is function of descending RT

A

These projections are involved in autonomic nervous system activity (e.g., breathing and heart rate), reflexes (e.g., coughing and swallowing), as well as pos-ture, balance, and motor movement

138
Q

what does the ascending reticular formation or the reticular activating system (RAS). do?

A

when the RAS becomes active, so too does the entire brain.

139
Q

barbiturates and alcohol, which enhance .. activity, decrease the ability of neurons in the RAS to fire repeatedly and, consequently, decrease arousal.

A

GABA

140
Q

stimulation of what nuclei causes sleep

A

One subset of nuclei located within the reticular for-mation is referred to as the raphe system or raphe nuclei (uses serotonin)

141
Q

The …. in a cooperative situation focuses on self-respect, mutual respect, and equality

A

moral orientation

142
Q

The moral orientation in competitive situations is based on ….

A

inequality and the win–lose struggle to determine who will have superior and who will have inferior outcomes

143
Q

The moral orientation in individualistic situations is based on …

A

strict self-interest

144
Q

Prosocial behaviors are …

A

actions that benefit other people by helping, supporting, encouraging their goal accomplishment or well-being

145
Q

why are prosocial behaviours good

A

tend to build positive relationships with peers

146
Q

there is a negative relationship between cooperativeness and …

A

harm-intended aggression: antisocial behaviours (The more competitive the student, the more frequently the student engaged in harm-intended aggression)

147
Q

what is the scope of justice

A

is the extent to which a person’s concepts of justice apply to others

148
Q

T: is applying considerations of fairness and justice to others, seeing them as entitled to a share of the community’s resources, and seeing them as entitled to help, even at a cost to oneself

A

moral inclusion

149
Q

what is distributive justice

A

method used to grant benefits (and sometimes costs and harms) to group or organizational members.

150
Q

There are three major ways in which benefits may be distributed in distributive justice

A

equity

151
Q

what is the equity view

A

a person’s rewards should be in proportion to his or her contributions to the group’s effort.

152
Q

a child’s view of distributive justice develops over time

A

t Children age four or younger, for example, were found to believe that whoever wants something the most should get it. After age four, this belief tends to be replaced by the view that benefits should be based on strict equality or reciprocity

153
Q

… involves fairness of the procedures that determine the outcomes a person receives

A

Procedural justice

154
Q

The more cooperative the situation and the greater the person’s cooperativeness, the more the person will put the … over …

A

long-term well-being of the group over immediate self-interest

155
Q

3 main benefit of cooperation

A

common good
valuing self
automaticity in moral responding

156
Q

3 outcomes of cooperative efforts

A

effort to achieve, quality of relationships, and psychological health

157
Q

what is positive interdependence

A

exists when individuals perceive that they are linked with other people in such a way that they cannot succeed unless the others succeed (and vice versa) and/or that they must coordinate their efforts with the efforts of others to complete a task

158
Q

There are two major categories of interdependence: …

A

outcome interdependence and means interdependence

159
Q

If there is no outcome interdependence (goal and reward interdependence), there is no reason for…

A

no reason for cooperation or competition.

160
Q

what is means indterdepedance

A

Means interdependence includes resource, role, and task interdependence (which are overlapping and not independent from one another).

161
Q

Group membership in and of itself does not seem sufficient to produce higher achievement and productivity—… is required

A

positive interdependence

162
Q

does positive goal interdependence on its own improve achievement

A

While positive goal interdependence is sufficient to produce higher achievement and productivity than achieved by individualistic efforts, the combination of goal and reward interdependence is even more effective.

163
Q

There is no significant difference between working to achieve a reward and working to avoid a loss.

A

t

164
Q

… interdependence promotes higher achievement and greater productivity than does … interdependence

A

Goal

resource

165
Q

Resource interdependence by itself may decrease achievement and productivity compared with individualistic efforts

A

t

166
Q

The more complex the procedures involved in interdependence, the longer it will take group members to reach their full levels of productivity why

A

The more complex the teamwork procedures, the more members have to attend to teamwork and the less time they have to attend to taskwork. Once the teamwork procedures are mastered, however, members concentrate on taskwork and outperform individuals working alone.

167
Q

how many of the 22 amino acids work as NT?

A

8

168
Q

Two of the most widespread and abun-dant of the amino acid NT are the excitatory neurotransmitter … and the inhibitory neurotransmitter …

A

glutamate

GABA

169
Q

Glutamate is an abundant excitatory neu-rotransmitter that mediates as much as 70% of ….within the CNS

A

synap-tic transmission

170
Q

what happens to glutamate after its release how is it recycled

A

removed from the synaptic cleft by glutamate reuptake transporter proteins embedded in pre-synaptic terminal buttons and also on surrounding glial cells. When taken up by glial cells, glutamate is converted into its precursor, glutamine, by the enzyme glutamine syn-thetase. Glial cells release glutamine back to the glutama-tergic neuron where, once inside the terminal button, it is converted to glutamate

171
Q

where are glutamatergic receptors

A

Glutamatergic axon terminals exist throughout nearly the entire brain

172
Q

is glutamate inotropic or meta?

A

not

173
Q

how many metatopic receptors

A

8 plus

174
Q

what are the 3 glatamatergic ionotrophic receptors called

A

called kainate, AMPA, and NMDA receptors

175
Q

what do called kainate, AMPA, and NMDA receptors allow for

A

influx of Nano efflux of K when stimulated

176
Q

The NMDA receptor is located both postsyn-aptically and presynaptically what’s the term for this

A

(as a heteroreceptor

177
Q

all and ketamine bind to which of these glu receptors

A

NMDA

178
Q

At resting potential, the NMDA receptor ion channel is blocked by …

A

magnesium

179
Q

how does the NMDA channel free up

A

voltage depedant and NT dependant (glutamate and glycine binding)As the postsynap-tic cell depolarizes releasing Mg

180
Q

figure 4.16

A

.

181
Q

NMDA receptor ion channels admit Ca2+ ions into the cell why is this important

A

further depolarization and acts as a second messenger to activate enzymes, protein kinases, and transcription fac-tors, thereby exerting long-lasting effects on the cell’s excitability.

182
Q

It is this kind of NMDA-mediated change in the func-tion of glutamate neurons that is thought to underlie ..

A

learn-ing and memory

183
Q

what is entitivity

A

Entitativity is the perception that a group is a unified and coherent whole in which the members are bonded together

184
Q

Perceived entitativity, in turn, influences both group members and nonmembers, …how

A

with group members perceiving the group as a unified and coherent whole and nonmembers perceiving the group to be a single entity

185
Q

how do you prevent free riding

A

One of the factors preventing free riding is a sense of responsibility to the group and the other group members.

186
Q

Positive interdependence is posited to create “…” that increase group members’ feelings of responsibility and accountability for (a) completing one’s share of the work and (b) facilitating the work of other group members

A

responsibility forces

187
Q

how do you increase responsibility forces

A

Responsibility forces increase when there is group and individual accountability.

188
Q

Group accountability exists when …

A

the overall performance of the group is assessed and the results are given back to all group members to compare against a standard of performance

189
Q

.. exists when the performance of each individual member is assessed, the results are given back to the individual and the group to compare against a standard of performance, and the member is held responsible by groupmates for contributing his or her fair share to the group’s success

A

Individual accountability

190
Q

increasing individual accountability, perceived interdependence among group members may also be increased.

A

t

191
Q

As group size increases, individual members tend to communicate less frequently, which may reduce the amount of information utilized in arriving at a decision why

A

as the group gets larger and larger, members are less likely to see their own personal contribution to the group as being important to the group’s chances

192
Q

the interpersonal and small-group skills of the members may determine the …

A

level of members’ productivity.

193
Q

how do social skills influence productivity

A

increase it (social skills of praising, supporting, asking for information, giving information, asking for help, and giving help. )

194
Q

what are processionals goals

A

refer to the sequence of events instrumental in achieving outcome goals

195
Q

what is group processing 2 parts

A

is reflecting on a group session to (a) describe what member actions were helpful and unhelpful and (b) make decisions about what actions to continue or change.

196
Q

group processing with individual feedback was more effective than was group processing with whole group feedback increase what 3 things

A

positive relationships
self esteem
achievement and motivation

197
Q

Group processing promotes individual self-monitoring, which can promote a sense of …

A

self-efficacy

198
Q

what is self-efficacy

A

the expectation of successfully obtaining valued outcomes through personal effort

199
Q

should people in groups monitor positive or negative experiences

A

only positive perceive as less stressful

200
Q

when individuals anxious about being successful are told they have succeeded, their performance tends to increase significantly

A

t

201
Q

what is e compensation effect

A

(i.e., an increase in performance that occurs when group members work harder to compensate for the real or imagined shortcomings of other group members

202
Q

group processing may be seen as a form of team reflexivity ( Avery good thing for groups), what does this mean

A

the extent to which group members overtly reflect on and modify their functioning

203
Q

when is exploitation most likely

A

when the life of the group is short, the time the group terminates is known, and the exploitation cannot be traced

204
Q

There are four conditions that contribute to the stability of cooperation

A

group members must have a stake in their future interaction
cooperators must be easily identifiable, and the actions of each group member must be visible to all other group members
group members need to emotionally identify with their groupmates and with the group as a whole.
group members must understand the value of reciprocity and are able and willing to reciprocate cooperation.

205
Q

how does technology aid cooperation

A

interact around the world, with experts and cooperation more feasible, effective, involving, and even fun.

206
Q

what is a webquest

A

WebQuests organize groups to complete inquiry-oriented projects among participants so they can solve particular problems or explore areas of mutual interest.

207
Q

ways technology helps teamwork

A

reading, writing, websites, web quests, enrich discussions, reports, multimedia projects, covering relevant events, simulation games, bookmarking, course management

208
Q

Depending on the circumstances, benefits may be distributed according to ..

A

merit, equality, or need

209
Q

what view : The rule is that in a just distribution, benefits will be distributed among individuals in proportion to their contributions; those members who contribute most to the group’s success receive the greatest benefits.

A

equity of merit view of distributing benefits

210
Q

The utilitarian value of a benefit increases with the number of persons who want the benefit; the benefit becomes a scarce commodity when its supply is far less than the demand for it

A

??

211
Q

The … of the benefit may become far more important than the intrinsic value of the benefit.

A

symbolic meaning

212
Q

The … is, in essence, an individual incentive plan aimed at motivating each group member to compete to be the most productive group member

A

equity method

213
Q

what are the shortcomings of the equity method

A

creates competition
extrinsic motivation to contribute
people with more resources have more success

214
Q

A …. is an attribute that tends to attract resources because it gives the possessor an advantage in a competition for these other resources.

A

resource attractor

215
Q

examples of resource attractors?

A

born into wealth
physical abilities
prestigious uni

216
Q

a merit system often results in a situation in which the group members who are rewarded the most are …

A

given the power to distribute future benefits.

217
Q

An .. distributes benefits to all group members equally

A

equality system of distributive justice

218
Q

The distribution of benefits according to need distributes benefits to the group members according to …

A

need

219
Q

Whatever the group’s system of distributing benefits, it has to be perceived as …

A

“just” by group members

220
Q

Before a task is performed, members tend to believe that an … system is fairest, but after a task is completed, an … system tends to be viewed as the fairest

A

equity, equality

221
Q

One reason competition is less effective is that when individuals are working toward competitive goals, they tend to engage in … such as self-worth protection, self-handicapping, and defensive pessimism

A

self-protective strategies

222
Q

what is self worth protection

A

involves withholding effort so that failure can be attributed to not trying rather than to incompetency (excuse ready if one fails)

223
Q

Defensive pessimism involves what 2 parts

A

unrealistically low (a) expectations for succeeding and (b) valuing of the task, so that anxiety about succeeding is minimized

224
Q

can competition be constructive

A

yes

225
Q

what makes for constructive competition 3

A

winning unimportant
everyone has reasonable chance to win
clear rules and criteria for winning

226
Q

Most individuals are likely to perceive their performance as a failure, and losing promotes the development of “..,” whereas ­winning can promote the development of “….”

A

competition learned helplessness

psychological burnout

227
Q

Competition is the underlying basis for a number of other theories, such as ..2

A

realistic conflict theory and social dominance theory

228
Q

Realistic conflict theory maintains that intergroup conflicts are rational in the sense that groups have …

A

incompatible goals and are in competition over scarce resources

229
Q

Social dominance theory assumes that resources are limited, and therefore, individuals, groups, and species ..

A

.compete to acquire scarce resources

230
Q

Social dominance theory has been used to explain such dynamics as ..

A

ingroup bias AND BULLYINg in schools

231
Q

Individualistic efforts may be most appropriate when… 6

A
  1. cooperation too costly
  2. important goal
  3. expected success
  4. simple tasks need to be completed
  5. clear and specific directions
  6. What is accomplished will be used subsequently in a cooperative effort.
232
Q

In most situations, group members usually have which motives

A

a mixture of cooperative, competitive, and individualistic motives (Which one dominates the situation, however, has important implications for individual, group, and organization productivity, morale, and well-being.)

233
Q

… needs to dominate group life.

A

Cooperativeness

234
Q

The more members … one another, the more effectively they can work together

A

trust

235
Q

what are the 4 elements of trust

A
  1. there is risk involved in trusting
  2. the benefit or harm from trust depends on actions of another
  3. the loss will be greater than the gain
  4. confident that positive outcome will result
236
Q

The trust that must exist in a group in order for it to work effectively is established through a sequence of trusting and …

A

trustworthy actions

237
Q

review figure 3.4

A

.

238
Q

The crucial elements of trust are …., on the one hand, and …. on the other

A

openness and sharing

acceptance, support, and cooperative intentions

239
Q

whats the difference between openess and sharing

A

Openness is the sharing of information, ideas, thoughts, feelings, and reactions to the issue the group is pursuing. Sharing is the offering of your materials and resources to others in order to help them move the group toward goal accomplishment.

240
Q

difference between acceptance and support

A

Acceptance is the communication of high regard for another person and his contributions to the group’s work. Support is the communication to another person that you recognize her strengths and believe she has the capabilities she needs to manage productively the situation she is in

241
Q

what are Cooperative intentions

A

are the expectations that you are going to behave cooperatively and that every group member will also cooperate in achieving the group’s goals.

242
Q

without … there is no trust

A

risk

243
Q

2 steps to building trust

A

Person A takes a risk by disclosing to person B his thoughts, information, conclusions, feelings, and reactions to the immediate situation.
Person B responds with acceptance, support, and cooperativeness and reciprocates person A’s openness by disclosing her own thoughts, information, conclusions, feelings, and reactions to the immediate situation and to person A. (or vice versa)

244
Q

…T: is the willingness to risk beneficial or harmful consequences by making oneself vulnerable to other group members

A

Trusting behavior

245
Q

you have to agree wih somoene to show support

A

f remember that accepting and supporting the contributions of other group members does not mean that you agree with everything they say.

246
Q

… is probably the first and deepest concern to arise in a group.

A

Acceptance (begins with acceptance of oneself)

247
Q

The key to building and maintaining trust is …

A

being trustworthy.

248
Q

how do you test if you ca trust someone

A

one person has to become vulnerable to see whether the other person abuses that vulnerability

249
Q

what response causes distrust

A

Distrust is created when group members use rejection, ridicule, or disrespect as a response to one another’s openness

250
Q

whats the difference between trusting and trustworthy behaviour

A

Trusting behavior:
Being self-disclosing and openly accepting and supportive of others.

Trustworthy behavior:
Expressing acceptance, support, and cooperative intentions.

251
Q

how can you reestablish broken trust

A

8 steps on page 33

252
Q

2 ways to build a tough but fair reputation?

A
  1. respond cooperatively to those who act competitively

2. Use a tit-for-tat strategy that matches the other person’s behavior if the ­others continue to compete.

253
Q

always trusting should be the norm

A

Never trusting and always trusting are equally inappropriate.

254
Q

T: is, in the beginning, a false definition of a situation that evokes a new behavior, one that makes it possible for the originally false impression to come true

A

self fulfilling prof

255
Q

trust exists in a. persons personality

A

is, in the beginning, a false definition of a situation that evokes a new behavior, one that makes it possible for the originally false impression to come true

256
Q

once develpoed does trust stay the same

A

f constantly changing

257
Q

Trust is hard to build and easy to destroy

A

t

258
Q

The key to building and maintaining trust is being trustworthy. what does this mean

A

The more accepting and supportive you are of others, the more likely they will disclose their thoughts, ideas, theories, conclusions, feelings, and reactions to you.

259
Q

how is trust different for competitiors vs cooperation

A

Cooperation increases trust, competitive decreases trust

260
Q

why should you go in trusting people

A

Initial trusting and trustworthy actions within a group can create a self-fulfilling prophecy. 

261
Q

High trusters, compared with low trusters, are … 3.

A

(a) more trustworthy; (b) more likely to give others a second chance, respect the rights of others, and be liked and sought out as friends (by both low- and high-trust people); and (c) less likely to lie and be unhappy, conflicted, or maladjusted

262
Q

review terms on page 34

A

.