Chapter 18 - Biopsychology of Psychiatric Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Psychiatric disorders

A

A disorder of psychological function sufficiently severe to require treatment by a psychiatrist or clinical psychologist.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

DSM-IV-TR

A

The current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, produced by the American Psychiatric Association.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Positive symptoms

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia that involve the production of an abnormal behavior or trait (e.g., hallucinations).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Negative symptoms

A

Symptoms of schizophrenia that involve the loss of a normal behavior or ability (e.g., anhedonia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

The first anti-schizophrenic drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Reserpine

A

The first monoamine antagonist to be used in the treatment of schizophrenia; the active ingredient of the snakeroot plant.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Haloperidol

A

A butyrophenone that was used as an anti-schizophrenic drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Phenothiazines

A

A class of anti-schizophrenic drugs that bind effectively to both D1 and D2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Butyrophenones

A

A class of anti-schizophrenic drugs that bind primarily to D2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Neuroleptics

A

Drugs that alleviate schizophrenic symptoms.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Atypical neuroleptics

A

Drugs that are effective against schizophrenia without binding strongly to D2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Clozapine

A

An atypical neuroleptic that is used to treat schizophrenia, does not produce Parkinsonian side effects, and does not have a high affinity for D2 receptors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Psychedelic drugs

A

Drugs whose primary action is to alter perception, emotion, and cognition.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Anhedonia

A

A general inability to experience pleasure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Clinical depression (major depressive disorder)

A

Depression that is so severe that it is difficult for the patient to meet the essential requirements of daily life.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Affective disorders

A

Depression and mania

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Mania

A

An affective disorder in which the patient is overconfident, impulsive, distractible, and highly energetic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Mood disorders

A

Affective disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bipolar affective disorder

A

A disorder of emotion in which the patient experiences periods of mania interspersed with periods of depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Unipolar affective disorder

A

A disorder of emotion in which a patient experiences depression but no periods of mania.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Reactive depression

A

Depression that is triggered by a negative experience.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Endogenous depression

A

Depression that occurs with no apparent cause.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Seasonal affective disorder (SAD)

A

Type of affective disorder in which attacks of depression and lethargy typically occur every winter, presumably triggered by the reduction in sunlight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Postpartum depression

A

Clinical depression that some women suffer after they have given birth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Iproniazid

A

The first antidepressant drug; monoamine oxidase inhibitor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

MAO inhibitors

A

Antidepressant drugs that increase the level of monoamine neurotransmitters by inhibiting the action of monoamine oxidase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Cheese effect

A

The surges in blood pressure that occur when individuals taking MAO inhibitors consume tyramine-rich foods, such as cheese, pickles, etc..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants

A

Drugs with an antidepressant action and a three-ring molecular structure; they selectively suppress REM sleep.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Imipramine

A

The first tricyclic antidepressant drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Selective serotonin-reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

A

Class of drugs that exert agonistic effects by blocking the reuptake of serotonin from synapses; used to treat depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Prozac

A

The trade name of fluoxetine, the first selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor developed for treating depression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Mood stabilizers

A

A drug that blocks the rapid transition between depression and mania.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Lithium

A

A metallic ion that is used in the treatment of bipolar affective disorder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Up-regulation

A

An increase in the number of receptors for a neurotransmitter in response to decreased release of that neurotransmitter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Three structures have been found to be abnormal in many structural and functional brain-imaging studies of affective disorders:

A

The amygdala,
The medial prefrontal cortex,
The hippocampus.

Even the connections between these structures appears to be disturbed in some patients with affective disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Antischizophrenia medications typically affect

A

only the positive symptoms of schizophrenia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The first two antischizophrenic drugs were

A

chlorpromazine and reserpine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The monoamine theory of depression is based on the fact that

A

most drugs used to treat depression are monoamine agonists.

39
Q

MAO inhibitors are no longer used in the treatment of depression because they

A

block MAO’s ability to break down tyramine.

40
Q

The probability that a close biological relative (i.e., a parent, sibling, or child) of a patient suffering from schizophrenia will also be diagnosed with schizophrenia is about _____.

A

10%

41
Q

Schizophrenia typically begins in (what age range)

A

adolescence or early adulthood

42
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

binds to the D2 dopamine receptor

43
Q

Selective norepinephrine-reuptake inhibitors are used in the treatment of

A

depression

44
Q

Name a positive symptom of schizophrenia

A

hallucinacions

45
Q

When insufficient neurotransmitter is released at a synapse, there is often compensatory ______ of the receptors.

A

up-regulation

46
Q

The first tricyclic antidepressant, was initially thought to be an antischizophrenic drug. However, it had no effect against schizophrenia but seemed to help some depressed patients.

A

Imipramine

47
Q

Four major classes of drugs have been used in the treatment of affective disorders:

A
  • monoamine oxidase inhibitors
  • tricyclic antidepressants
  • selective monoamine-reuptake inhibitors
  • mood stabilizers
48
Q

The first antischizophrenic drug

A

chlorpromazine. Was developed as an antihistamine.

49
Q

Drugs (like chlorpromazine) that bind effectively to both D1 and D2 receptors.

A

phenothiazines

50
Q

Drugs (like haloperidol) that bind effectively to D2 receptors but not to D1 receptors.

A

butyrophenones

51
Q

Affective flattening

A

reduction or absence of emotional expression

52
Q

reduction or absence of emotional expression

A

affective flattening

53
Q

alogia

A

reduction or absence of speech

54
Q

reduction or absence of speech

A

alogia

55
Q

avolition

A

reduction or absence of motivation

56
Q

reduction or absence of motivation

A

avolition

57
Q

inability to experience pleasure

A

anhedonia

58
Q

catatonia

A

remaining motionless, often in awkward positions for long periods

59
Q

remaining motionless, often in awkward positions for long periods

A

catatonia

60
Q

Name some positive symptoms of schizophrenia

A

delusions, hallucinations, inappropriate affect, incoherent speech or thought, odd behavior.

61
Q

inappropriate affect

A

failure to react with the appropiate emotion to positive or negative events

62
Q

Schizophrenia means

A

the splitting of psychic functions

63
Q

The primary symptom of the disorder (schizophrenia):

A

the breakdown of integration among emotion, thought, and action.

64
Q

Schizophrenia attacks about _____ of individuals of all races and cultural groups.

A

1%

65
Q

The concordance rate for schizophrenia in identical twins is substantially less than 100%, suggesting that

A

differences in experience have a significant effect on the development of schizophrenia.

66
Q

It is clear that schizophrenia has multiple causes. Many genes have been linked to the disorder, but

A

no single gene can cause schizophrenia. Instead, the genes act in combination with one another and experience to produce the disorder.

67
Q

The concordance rates for schizophrenia in identical twins are

A

45%

68
Q

Monoamine

A

a compound having a single amine group in its molecule, especially one that is a neurotransmitter (e.g., serotonin, norepinephrine, dopamine).

69
Q

Disorder of tics. Typically begins early in life-usually in childhood or early adolescence- with simple motor tics, such as eye blinking or head movements, but the symptoms tend to become more complex and severe as the patient grows older.

A

Tourette syndrome

70
Q

echolalia

A

repetition of another’s words

71
Q

palilalia

A

repetition of one’s own words

72
Q

coprolalia

A

uttering obscenities

73
Q

Tourette syndrome develops in approximately ___ of the population, and is three times more frequent in ____ than in _____.

A

.07%,
males,
females

74
Q

Some patients with Tourette syndrome also display signs of

A

attention-defecit/hyperactivity disorder, obsessive-compulsive disorder, or both.

75
Q

Although the tics of Tourette syndrome are involuntary, they can be temporarily ______ with concentration and effort by the patient.

A

supressed,

76
Q

The greatest difficulty in studying Tourette syndrome is the fact that symptoms usually _______.

A

subside as people age

77
Q

Most research on the cerebral pathology associated with Tourette syndrome has focused on the _____. Patients with this disorder tend to have smaller _____. Presumably, the decision to suppress the tics comes from the prefrontal cortex, which initiates the suppression by acting on the ______.

A

caudate,
caudate nuclei,
caudate nuclei.

78
Q

An MRI study of children with Tourette syndrome documented thinning in ____ cortex that was particularly prominent in the areas that controlled the ____, ____ and ____.

A

sensorimotor,
face,
mouth,
larynx (voice box).

79
Q

The tics of Tourette syndrome are usually treated with ______, which can reduce tics by about ______. Though, many patients refuse because of the adverse side affects.

A

neuroleptics,

70%.

80
Q

The success of D2 receptor blockers in blocking Tourette tics is consistent with the current hypothesis that the disorder is related to an abnormality of the _______. The efficacy of thesee drugs especially implicates the ______, which is the target of many of the dopaminergic projections into the basal ganglia.

A

basal ganglia-thalamus-cortex feedback,

striatum (caudate plus putamen).

81
Q

Individuals who have not been diagnosed with schizophrenia but are at risk for the disorder (for example, because they have close relatives with schizophrenia) display ______.

A

reduced volumes in several brain areas

82
Q

Extensive ______ exists when patients first seek medical treatment and have their first brain scans. Subsequent brain scans reveal that the brain damage has ______. Damage to different areas of the brain develops at ______.

A

brain damage,
continued to develop,
different rates.

83
Q

Anxiety disorders are the most _____ of all psychiatric disorders. About _____ of people suffer from an anxiety disorder at some point in their lives. The incidence seems to be about ______ as great in females as in males.

A

prevalent,
17%,
twice.

84
Q

Panic disorders

A

characterized by rapid-onset attacks of extreme fear and severe symptoms of stress (e.g., choking, heart palpitations, shortness of breath); they are often components of generalized anxiety and phobic disorders, but they also occur as separate disorders.

85
Q

Phobic anxiety disorders

A

similar to generalized anxiety disorders except that they are triggered by exposure to particular objects (e.g., birds, spiders) or situations (e.g., crowds, darkness).

86
Q

Generalized anxiety disorders

A

characterized by stress responses and extreme feelings of anxiety that occur in the absence of any obvious precipitating stimulus.

87
Q

Obsessive-compulsive disorders

A

characterized by frequently recurring, uncontrollable, anxiety-producing thoughts (obsessions) and impulses (compulsions). Responding to them is a means of dissipating the anxiety associated with them.

88
Q

Posttraumatic stress disorder

A

a persistent pattern of psychological distress following exposure to extreme stress, such as war or being the victim of sexual assault.

89
Q

Agoraphobia

A

a pathological fear of public places and open spaces.

90
Q

A pathological fear of public places and open spaces.

A

Agoraphobia

91
Q

repetition of another’s words

A

echolalia

92
Q

repetition of one’s own words

A

palilalia

93
Q

uttering obscenities

A

coprolalia