Chapter 16 2013 Flashcards

0
Q

What is the entry point to the global combat support system

A

Air Force portal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

What was created in 2000 to simplify access to information

A

Air Force portal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The goal of this program is to provide timely, accurate, and trusted support information to joint and Air Force commanders at all echelons

A

Global combat support system (GCSSAF)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Military pay raises are capped at 1/2% below what

A

Private sector growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

This is a nontaxable allowance used to offset the cost of the servicemembers meals

A

BAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Members who are not able to take their families to the permanent duty station are eligible for payment of this in addition to BAH or OHA

A

Family separation Housing (FSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who qualifies for BAH-differential

A

Members living in single type government quarters who pay court ordered child support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

When is preliminary replacement allowance of the clothing replacement allowance issued

A

Between the sixth and 36 months of active-duty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a type of allowance payable to members in addition to any other allowances or Perdiem to which a member may be entitled due to separation from their family

A

Family separation allowance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the max deduction that can be levied by the secretary defense for the Armed Forces retirement home

A

One dollar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How many discretionary allotments can one member have

A

Six

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Charitable contributions, Child or spousal support, garnishment for commercial debts, and delinquent travel charge card debt would be what type of allotment

A

Nondiscretionary allotment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the maximum SGLI amount

A

$400,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How large is a PCS advanced payment

A

Up to three months of basic pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When is the commanders approval required for PCS advanced payments

A

A1C or below, over 12 months to repay, greater than one month of basic pay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

This allowance is paid when members with dependents relocate household goods in conjunction with a PCS or members without dependents are not assigned government quarters upon arrival at their permit do station

A

Dislocation allowance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

These allowances are paid members who arrive at PCS location either Conus or non-conus to defray added living expenses incurred

A
TLE = CONUS
TLA = OCONUS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

When is the member expected to pay the amount billed from the TravelCard company

A

Upon receipt of the monthly statement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In cases where traveler is TDY for 45 days or more he or she shall file what

A

An interim voucher every 30 days and use split disbursement to pay the bill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Who coordinates the TravelCard program on behalf of unit commander keeping information such as account names, account numbers, addresses and telephone numbers

A

Agency program coordinators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the earliest an ATM in advance on the government travel card may be obtained

A

Three working days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

At what point may a late fee be assessed against a government travel card account

A

75 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who must an individual coordinate with upon departure and arrival during a PCS for TravelCard considerations

A

The Agency program coordinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

At how many days does the card company proceed through judicial system against cardholder accounts

A

126 days delinquent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

At what point does the card contractor charge off the account report delinquency to the credit bureau transferring collection to a third-party agency

A

At 210 days delinquent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Does an individual have to give their consent for the Air Force to collect on debts owed

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

At what value is an individual given due process prior to debt collection from the Air Force

A

$100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The Air Force may also collect debts involving which 6

A

Federal, Bonus, Hospital, HHG, ROS, and Overpay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When may waver or remission provision be requested

A

If the military member requires relief from valid debts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

When can a waiver of claims for erroneous pay or allowances be requested

A

When there’s no indication of fraud, misrepresentation, fault, or lack of good faith on the part of the member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

When can a member or commander apply for remission of debt to the Air Force

A

When it is not debt due to non-collection of court-martial forfeiture and if hardship factors are considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Established by the federal employees retirement act of 1986

A

TSP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

maximum amount of pay member can contribute to TSP

A

100%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the annual limit of the TSP

A

$17,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Military leave program AFI

A

AFI 36-3003

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

At what point does use or lose leave start and when must it be used by

A

At 75 days by September 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

5 times when members do not earn leave

A

AWOL, Unauthorized leave, Confinement, IN EXCESS, or APELLATE leave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How long may special leave accrual be kept for

A

Two fiscal years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Days of special leave acrual that can be sold back

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When are members eligible for SLA

A

Assigned or deployed to an operational mission or staff headquarters for 60 days, or deployed in danger for 120 consecutive days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Leave request form

A

AF Form 988

41
Q

Is a member charged leave while hospitalized

A

Ends the day before, starts the day after

42
Q

Which AFI governs leave

A

36-3003

43
Q

When is excess leave accrued

A

When an individual has used all of the leave they anticipate to earn during that enlistment

44
Q

How many days of en route leave can a member request after completing basic or technical training

A

10 days conus 14 days overseas

45
Q

What is environmental and morale leave

A

Leave authorized for overseas installations with adverse environmental conditions

46
Q

What is the longest period a regular pass may span

A

Four days

47
Q

What is the longest period of a special pass

A

4 days

48
Q

Can a special pass be used with leave without returning to work for one day

A

Yes either at the beginning or the end but not both

49
Q

Can a permissive TDY be used in conjunction with special passes

A

No

50
Q

Permissive TDY are not authorized for what 5

A

Close proximity House hunting, Permissive reassignment, PME graduation, Change of command, or Retirement ceremony

51
Q

Post-deployment/mobilization respite absence is permitted for tours in which two countries

A

Iraq and Afghanistan

52
Q

Which part of the leave request is sent with authorization number to the finance office

A

Part I

53
Q

Which part of the leave request form is given to the member after obtaining the leave authorization number

A

Part II

54
Q

Which part of the leave request form is retained by the supervisor for completion after the member returns

A

Part III

55
Q

Where is part III of the Air Force form 988 sent after signed by the supervisor and member

A

Cmdr. support staff are processing

56
Q

Unlawful discrimination under equal opportunity guidelines would be based on what five characteristics of a persons or group

A

Race, color, religion, national origin, or sex

57
Q

Sexual-harassment does not have to result in what

A

Concrete psychological harm to victim

58
Q

Who may file EO complaints

A

Military personnel, their family members, and retirees

59
Q

What are military informal complaint procedures

A

Filing a verbal or written correspondence to an alleged offender or requesting intervention by coworker or using the chain of command to intervene

60
Q

formal complaint process timeline

A

9 duty days EO clarification
6 duty days for legal review
5 duty days for commander action
20 total

61
Q

Sexual harassment complaint timeline

A

6 duty days for clarification
4 duty days for legal review
4 duty days commander action
14 Total

62
Q

Within how many days must a formal EO complaint be filed

A

60 calendar days

63
Q

Within how many days must that EO office complete the informal civilian complaint process unless an extension is granted

A

Within 30 calendar days, not to exceed 60 with extension

64
Q

Within how many days must a civilian formal complaint be filed

A

45 calendar days

65
Q

Who must a civilian formal complaint be filed with within 15 calendar days of receiving the notice

A

The EO director or designee

66
Q

How long does the EO office have to complete a formal civilian complaint

A

180 calendar days

67
Q

What are the three classification levels of an equal opportunity and treatment incident

A

Minor, serious, or major

68
Q

Under what article of the UC MJ many members who believe they have been wronged by their commanding officer request redress

A

Article 138

69
Q

Within how many days must the member apply to the commander for redress of a wrong

A

180

70
Q

days to submit request for redress through superior officer

A

90 days

71
Q

AFI governing complaints of wrongs under article 138

A

AFI 51-904

72
Q

Class A mishap

A

$2 million or more
Destroyed aircraft
fatality or permanent disability

73
Q

Class B mishap

A

$500,000-$2 million
partial disability
three or more personal hospitalized

74
Q

Class C mishap

A

$50,000-$500,000

one or more days away from work

75
Q

Class D mishap

A

$20,000 to $50,000

76
Q

Who is responsible for creating and maintaining a job safety training guide and documenting and maintaining completed training records

A

Workcenter supervisor

77
Q

Which form is used by individuals to report a hazard

A

AF IMT 457

78
Q

Which root cause of the mishap is due to a climate, process, or resource acquisition management that falls through or encourages members not follow safety guidelines

A

Organizational influences

79
Q

Which root cause of the safety mishap can stem from failure to correct problems, inappropriately planning operations, inadequate supervision, or violations by supervisor

A

Supervisory influences

80
Q

Which root cause of a safety hazard consists of the cumulative culture of the organization combined with specific events and physical condition of worker

A

Preconditions for unsafe acts

81
Q

Which root cause of a safety incident is a result of active errors or violations made by the individual

A

The unsafe act themselves

82
Q

What is the purpose of safety investigations

A

For mishap prevention purposes only not for punishment

83
Q

Falls, scaffolding, hazard communication, respiratory protection, lockout tag out, electrical wiring methods, power industrial trucks, ladders, electrical Gen. requirements, and machine guarding

A

Top 10 OSHA violations

84
Q

Within how many workdays must the safety office respond to an AF IMT 457

A

10 Workdays

85
Q

What is the cause of the highest number of Air Force injury related deaths each year

A

Traffic mishaps

86
Q

What are the 4 risk management principles

A

Except no unnecessary risk, decisions at appropriate levels, integrate at all levels, apply process continuously

87
Q

What are the two levels of risk management

A

Deliberate and real-time

88
Q

Five-step risk management process includes

A

ID, Assess, Decide, Implement, Evaluate

89
Q

On-the-fly risk management level

A

Real-time

90
Q

The step of the risk management process involves quantitative and qualitative measures to determine severity of risks or hazards

A

Assess the hazards

91
Q

What are the four levels of hazard severity

A

Catastrophic, critical, moderate, and negligible

92
Q

What are the levels of mishap probability

A

Frequent, likely, occasionally, seldom, unlikely

93
Q

What are the steps Of the real-time process or ABCD model

A

Assess the situation, balance controls, communicate, and decide or Debrief

94
Q

Who does the SARC work for

A

The vice wing commander

95
Q

Who provides support, liaison services, and care to the victim in a sexual assault

A

The victim advocate

96
Q

What type of sexual assault reporting provides the victim with confidentiality

A

Restricted reporting

97
Q

Who is not eligible to make a restricted report

A

Reserves not active-duty retired members and dependents

98
Q

Who may receive restricted reports

A

Only SARCs, VAs, healthcare providers

99
Q

Who is notified and within how many hours of a restricted report being filed

A

Vice wing commander within 24 hours

100
Q

What six pieces of information are provided from the SARC to the vice Wing Commander on a restricted report

A

When, Time of day, on or off installation, number of assailants, number of victims, nature of assault

101
Q

Is misconduct in relation to a sexual assault punishable on the victim

A

Yes