2A373 Volume 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Training detachments are administratively assigned to which MAJCOM

A

Air Education and training command

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Air education and training command training detachments normally do not provide what type of training

A

Ancillary training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Each airframe and power plant specialized course must be completed within how many months

A

13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following is used as the cover folder for individuals training record

A

AF Form 623, Individual training record

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

All of the following can designate critical task that apply to a specific Air Force specialty code in a particular workcenter except

A

Unit training managers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade

A

Maintenance group commander

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In order to be given authority to downgrade a red X an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander and hold the minimum grade of

A

Master sergeant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What training phase has these four sub phases: multiphase, MAJCOM mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training

A

II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What continuation training consists of academic and practical hands-on courses that Complement initial skills training received through AETC Mission ready airman and training detachment courses

A

Maintenance qualification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

How often does the maintenance training flight provide a status of training briefing to the maintenance group commander

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

An individual comes due for training recertification while TDY, on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning before decertification is required

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his or her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course

A

Unit training manager

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Once you have completed the master task list for your master training plan your next step is to

A

Determine training needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In order to account for unfunded requirements and valid non-maintenance tasks the logistics composite model allows what percentage of overhead Manning

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which element of logistics composite model study considers whether modeling conditions

A

Operations requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which factor is not modeled in a logistics composite model manpower study

A

Training deployments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Manpower authorizations are

A

Funded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

A unit manpower document does not

A

Show the name of the person assigned to a particular position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A meeting to discuss manning issues in the maintenance group is normally held

A

Monthly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which maintenance group office acts as the office of primary responsibility for maintenance analysis referrals

A

Maintenance data systems analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The block training method is normally used to teach which maintenance training flight training course

A

Maintenance orientation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which agency is normally responsible for monitoring the overall maintenance supply interface and resolving supply support problem

A

Maintenance supply liaison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which of the following is not normally a maintenance supply liaison duty

A

Collecting and turning in expendable excess and surplus precious metal bearing assets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The assets in a high priority mission support kit should be transferred into the host base’s standard supply system account after how many days

A

30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
How often are operating commands required to review permanent readiness spares packages
Annually
26
Which extendability recoverability and repair ability codes must be assigned to an asset before it can be placed on a bench stock
XB3
27
Shop stock should not exceed how many days of usage
90
28
Provided it is still serviceable you're allowed to inspect and remark with a new expiration date which type of shelflife item
Type II
29
Name three obvious signs of pollution
Oil sheen on standing water, stressed vegetation, stains on ground
30
Who is responsible for developing a hazard communication training plan to notify personnel of all known hazards they may be exposed to a particular workcenter
Section supervisor
31
In the maintenance group who is responsible for establishing procedures and controls for the local manufacture of tools, parts and other items as required by technical guidance
Maintenance group commander
32
Who in the maintenance group is responsible for ensuring the capability exists to meet local manufacture requirements
Maintenance squadron operations officer or maintenance superintendent
33
Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment acct custodian
Squadron commander
34
An individual must receive a specific block of supply training before assuming duties as a due in for maintenance monitor
IIB
35
Which of the following is not covered in the precious metals recovery program
Copper
36
Which precious metal indicator code indicates that an item of supply does not contain precious metal
A
37
Which precious metal indicator code indicates that an item of supply contains a combination of two or more precious metals
C
38
Which supply tracking document provides information on all document numbers processed during the day
D04, Daily document register
39
With supply tracking document is produced daily and lists all backordered parts with an urgency of need code of A
D18, Priority Monitor report
40
Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and Bench stock supply support
M-24, Organization effectiveness report
41
Which logistics readiness squadron office accounts for special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance assets managed on in-use detail records
Equipment liaison office
42
What is the special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for standalone spares
A
43
What is the special-purpose recoverable authorized maintenance flag code for fault isolation spares
F
44
Who is the final authority for reviewing a units list of supply assets requiring functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming
Logistics readiness squadron chief inspector
45
Who is not normally in the review chain for items listed as supply assets requiring local performed functional check, calibration, or operational flight programming
Maintenance group commander
46
Who ultimately determines if the security provided at a transient location is adequate for classified assets installed on an aircraft
Aircraft commander
47
Who's responsible for the immediate security of classified equipment installed on aircraft after it makes an emergency landing
Aircraft commander
48
When the aircraft owner or user does not stay with the aircraft he or she must arrange for security checks to be accomplished every
Three hours
49
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing
Three
50
What supply delivery priority is appropriate for bench stock items
Five
51
Which urgency justification codes are used to show a supply request for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit or shop replaceable units spare
AR or JA
52
Before supply point can be established and located in the maintenance work area, who must maintenance coordinate with
LRS material management element
53
What is the accountability document used for supply points that shows the quantity authorized, on hand, and due out
Supply point listing
54
When A MICAP Part issues and is placed in the TNB supply personnel notify the
MOC
55
When a backordered item issues and is placed in a TNB supply personnel notify the
AMU P&S
56
When items are placed in an Aircraft TNB which entry is not normally need
Security classification
57
When the goal is to get a refund or a new item in exchange what type of deficiency report is submitted
Supply discrepancy report
58
Who has the responsibility for overall deficiency report program management for the submitting organization or group
Originating point
59
Who acts as the deficiency report focal point between the support point and submitting organization
Action point
60
Units cannot make local modifications to which Air Force publication
Technical orders
61
Who is responsible for establishing a maintenance group technical order custodian to administer TO requirements in support of assigned group mission and activities
Maintenance group commander
62
Which is not normally a maintenance group technical order distribution office duty
Establishing technical order distribution account subaccounts as required
63
The product improvement manager is usually assigned to what maintenance group section
Quality assurance
64
What are the three technical order change priority categories
Urgent, routine, emergency
65
An improvement that identifies a replacement for hazardous materials or an ozone-depleting substances would be submitted as what TO change priority
Urgent
66
Who is the final approval authority for waivers of technical order system policies and procedures
HQ USAF/A4MM
67
Which of the following is not an aproved communication method for issuing approved technical order waivers or deviations
Telephone
68
If a serially controlled item is canned who is the CANN authority required to notify
P&S
69
For a unit using the extended cannibalization cycle the standard timeframe for having an aircraft down is
45 to 60 days
70
How are radiographic inspections accomplished outside the nondestructive inspection laboratory classified
Unshielded
71
When calibrating navigational equipment an external power unit is a attached while towing an aircraft during what type of operation
Compass Rose
72
Red ball maintenance defines a situation that requires all of the following except
An approved maintenance group technical order compliance waiver
73
During Redball maintenance it is important that expediters have a quick reference list available in order to
Reduce the time needed to research parts
74
Which of the following is not a member of the joint Council on aging aircraft
National Transportation Safety Board
75
Who appoints an officer or NCO as the maintenance group aircraft structural integrity program project officer
Maint group commander
76
What aircraft maintenance unit section is required to ensure aircraft structural integrity program equipped aircraft are identified as such in weekly schedules
P&S
77
Who is the office of primary responsibility for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools and equipment use on the flightline and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas
Maintenance group commander
78
In addition to daily accountability check how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment
Annually
79
How many digits make up an equipment identification designator code used to identify tools and equipment
Nine
80
In the equipment identification designator code U6JG00001 what does the third character J identify
Unit
81
Without a waiver what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found
Operations officer or maintenance group superintendent
82
Who is the quality assurance chief inspector directly responsible to for ensuring the required maintenance standardization evaluation program functions are performed
QuAlity assurance officer in charge or superintendent
83
Personnel should normally be assigned to a unit for how many months before being selected to quality assurance inspector
Six
84
What maintenance standardization and evaluation team individual assessment finding is defined as a condition that would endanger personnel or jeopardize equipment
Major
85
What maintenance standardization and evaluation team individual assessment is performed after a technician completes the task
Quality verification inspection
86
The wing foreign object damage monitor is normally located within
Quality assurance section
87
The wing foreign object damage monitor must notify the MAJCOM FOD manager within how many hours of a FOD incident
24
88
What dollar amount of damage must be exceeded for foreign object damage incident to be used to calculate the FOD rate for a unit
$20,000
89
What time frame is used for determining whether an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a reportable dropped object
Engine start to engine shutdown
90
A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported in accordance with
AFI 10-206, Operational reporting
91
Which Air Force publication provides general guidance for executing effective maintenance recovery operation
AFI 21-101
92
The maximum total initial duty time including home station duty, travel time, and recovery site duty upon arrival that a maintenance recovery team member maybe worked before being given eight hours of uninterrupted rest is
16 hours
93
Which maintenance squadron flight is the office of primary responsibility for the maintenance groups crashed damaged or disabled aircraft recovery program operating instruction
Maintenance flight
94
How often Must the Team chief for the crash damage the disabled aircraft recovery program conduct a exercise
Annually
95
After initial training how often Must crashed damaged or disabled aircraft recovery team members receive additional academic and hands on training
Annually
96
Which Air Force portal link provides access to recurring Air Force periodicals like airman Magazine and the air and space journal
Air Force E-Pubs
97
Which Air Force portal link can be used to access user manuals for various Air Force computer systems
Air Force Ctr. for electronic distribution of systems
98
Which of the following is responsible for coordinating the number of certified load team members in support of aircraft generation planning
Wing weapons manager
99
You're primarily concerned with answering the question: "what steps need to be taken?" during which aircraft generation planning area
Aircraft generation actions
100
You're primarily concerned with answering the question: "how long does each step or group of steps take?" During which aircraft generation planning area
Aircraft generation action timing