Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

WAPS Testing > 2A353 Volume 1 > Flashcards

2A353 Volume 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The estimated percent of accidents caused by nature is

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The safety training phase described as an effective tool that creates a lasting impression for new Airman is

A

Initial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The responsibility for initiating a lost tool report belongs to the

A

Person issued the tool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The lowest person authorized to clear a red X when A lost tool cannot be located is the

A

Maintenance Superintendent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The optimum temperature to cool sealants mixed in an automatic mixing machine is

A

75°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Temporary storage of hazardous materials at a Central Accumulation Point cannot exceed

A

90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Hazardous waste management system rules are published by

A

The EPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Radiation hazards are affected by

A

Strengthening of emission, time of exposure, and weather

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Normally the safe distance behind an operating jet engine exhaust is

A

200 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The noise intensity of a jet engine is greatest toward the rear at a

A

45° angle at either side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The symptom that is not a sign of noise fatigue is

A

A feeling of emptiness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A fire extinguishers pressure is within a safe operating range when the gauge needle is within the

A

Green markings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Aircraft oxygen servicing or draining is prohibited within how many feet of hangers or structures

A

50 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Individuals not directly involved in nitrogen servicing should be outside a

A

20 foot radius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Under ideal conditions an aircraft is said to be operationally ready when

A

The required inspection and servicing are complete

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

As fireguard position yourself even with the

A

Nose of the aircraft and at a 45 degree angle outboard of the engine being started

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The weather condition most likely to cause aircraft damage is

A

Sudden local storms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

If no maximum wind velocity is specified in the aircraft technical order the maximum wind velocity as prescribed by Air Force occupational safety and health standards 91 – 100 aircraft flightline ground operations activities allowed during aircraft jacking is

A

15 mph

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During desert operations lubrication should be done

A

Only when necessary and then sparingly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The F-2 lift bag is designed to lift

A

24,000 pounds to a maximum height of 6’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A major drawback of using pneumatic lifting bags is

A

Instability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The method of aircraft hoisting confined to emergencies when no other method is available

A

Crane hoisting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The type of technical order library that does not need to maintain currency is

A

Reference

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

In the second grouping of A TO number the alpha character in parentheses means the

A

Modified aircraft mission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The total number of Air Force TO catalogs is

A

One

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The directional flow of the schematics in the troubleshooting manual is from the

A

Left side of the diagram to the right side of the diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Inspection work cards are known as

A

Abbreviated TOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Due to their potential for harm commanders are required to ensure immediate action TCTOs are distributed to all affected personnel within

A

Four hours after receipt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The type of TOl improvement issued for all TCTO deficiencies is

A

Urgent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The nondirective publication that may cite forms and provide guidance on completing them but can’t enforce what’s on the form is

A

Pamphlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

In order of increasing capability the Air Force’s varying degrees of maintenance capabilities are

A

Organizational, intermediate, or Depot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The type of maintenance that ensures equipment is ready And available at the time of need is

A

Preventative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The most common excuse for taking shortcuts is

A

Time restraints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The prime contributors to dropped objects are

A

Latches and fasteners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

In most units the responsibility for investigating dropped objects rest with

A

Quality assurance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The first step in developing an effective FOD prevention program is to

A

Identify all possible sources of FOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The responsibility for FOD prevention belongs to

A

Everyone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

The method that cannot be used to search for lost tool is

A

Magnetic particle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The information that the configuration management subsystem ensures is loaded properly into the maintenance information system database is

A

Select serially controlled and time change items

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The IMDS is the production oriented automated maintenance management system at the

A

Base level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The IMDS subsystem that provides information about jobs performed by maintenance activities is the

A

Job data documentation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The GAS is normally sent out

A

90 days after graduation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A list of training courses available for an AFSC can be found in the

A

CFETP, Part II

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Tasks that a person is expected to perform in a duty position or WC but are not included in the CFETP, part II, or AFJQS are listed

A

On an Air Force form 797 job qualification standard continuation command JQS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The first step taken when reviewing an Air Force technical orders 244 is to

A

Match the ID number on the form with the ID number on the unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

The two mx stands on which C1 maintenance Stand can be installed as an extension are the

A

B1 and B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The maintenance stand that has an adjustable height of 13 to 20 feet is the

A

B2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

The maintenance stand that is a scissor type is the

A

B-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The lifting mechanism of an aircraft Jack is called a

A

Ram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The low and high-pressure capabilities in PSIG of the NSU L 75 nitrogen servicing unit are

A

0 to 350 and 350 to 3600

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Usable pressure range measured in PSI, Of the MC 1A air compressor is

A

0-3200 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

The MC-2A air compressor is capable of delivering air at a maximum pressure measured in Psi of

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The maximum BTUs per hour output of the H-1 heater is

A

400,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

The new generation Heater oil burner and combustion blower are powered by

A

60 Hz alternator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The temperature range the C-10 air-conditioner is capable of delivering conditioned air at is

A

47°F to 200°F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The FL 1D floodlight consists of two

A

Thousand watt lamp fixtures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

The unit capable of providing AC and DC electrical power in addition to pneumatic power for ground maintenance is the

A

A/M32A-60

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

The MK – 3A – 1 is driven by a

A

Electric motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The MB-4 tractor incorporates

A

Four-wheel steering and four-wheel-drive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Aluminum alloy washers are used with steel bolts on aluminum allow parts in low torque Applications to

A

Prevent corrosion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Special bolts are identified by

A

The bolt head marked with the letter S

62
Q

The Bolt used were heavy tension or lengthwise stress must be sustained as a

A

Hex head

63
Q

The number of threads that must be showing through self locking nut for maximum locking effect is at least

A

Two

64
Q

Aircraft cable size is determined by its

A

Diameter

65
Q

A 7 x 19 cable has

A

Seven strands with 19 wires per strand

66
Q

The correct way to detect broken wires on a cable is to

A

Pass a cloth along the length of the cable

67
Q

A push Pull rod end engagement is checked

A

By inserting safety wire in the hole in the end of the terminal

68
Q

A hose may bear a colored indicator stripe to show

A

It’s direction of natural lay

69
Q

When using 0.032 safety wire there should be how many turns per inch

A

7-12

70
Q

When securing widely spaced bolts by the DoubleTwist safety wiring method the maximum number of bolts that maybe wired in a series is

A

Three

71
Q

When is it permissible to reuse cotter pins

A

Never

72
Q

On a standard electrical connector the key and keyway are located

A

Adjacent to the A or 1 pin

73
Q

To tighten cannon plugs do not use

A

Channel lock pliers

74
Q

The number of positions on the function switch of the AN/PSM-37 Multi meter is

A

Seven

75
Q

To measure current flow you connect an AN/PSM-37 Multi meter in

A

Series in the circuit

76
Q

When the H symbol is shown on the fluke multimeter display the

A

Touch hold mode is in use

77
Q

When measuring resistance on a fluke multimeter the letters OL indicate

A

Overload

78
Q

Prior to using a torque wrench cycle the torque wrench through the breakaway torque at the

A

Maximum setting at least six times

79
Q

The responsibility for ensuring good supply discipline is practiced resides with

A

Supervisors at all levels

80
Q

Shop stock should not normally exceed

A

90 days usage or the UI or unit pack whichever is greater

81
Q

They expandability, recoverability, repairability code that designates a repair cycle asset is

A

XF

82
Q

Consumable items are identified by the expandability recoverability repairability code

A

XB3

83
Q

The DD forms easily identified by their green margins and letters are the

A

1577-2 Unserviceable tag-material, and 1577-3, Unserviceable label-material

84
Q

The deficiency report category that results and it work line stoppage is

A

I

85
Q

Engines overhauled by depot are covered against defects in workmanship for

A

100 hours of operation or one year from the date of receipt

86
Q

The Air Force technical order form 781 must be removed from the forms binder

A

After the event number is entered at the maintenance debriefing

87
Q

The Air Force technical order form 781K is used to document

A

Engine data

88
Q

Responsibility for maintaining the Air Force technical order 781 series forms binder rest with the

A

Crew chief

89
Q

The action necessary to clear an erroneous red X symbol is

A

Place the statement symbol entered in error in the discrepancy block and then sign inspected by block

90
Q

This symbol entered on the forms if an aircraft exceeds the PDM cycle by 90 days and an extension is not granted is a

A

Red X

91
Q

The inspection usually performed just prior to take off and that may include operational checks of some systems is the

A

End of runway

92
Q

The BPO is performed to

A

Determine if the aircraft is suitable for another flight

93
Q

If an aircraft is idle for more than 30 or 90 days inspection required is

A

Calendar

94
Q

The type of inspection that ensures the completeness of historical documents is

A

Acceptance

95
Q

The AF IMT 2691 is used to

A

Account for aircraft – 21 TO equipment

96
Q

Corrosion or deterioration of the metal part continues until a part is

A

Exhausted or salvaged

97
Q

Galvanic corrosion occurs when

A

Different metals are in contact with each other and an electrolyte

98
Q

The frequency of cleaning an aircraft exterior depends for the most part on

A

Environmental conditions

99
Q

The type of cleaners not very effective on greas but excellent for interior lightly soiled areas plastics and instrument glass covers is

A

Detergent

100
Q

The solution used to treat areas affected with electrolyte from a lead acid battery is

A

Sodium bicarbonate

101
Q

List the personal characteristics that cause a person to perform an unsafe act or to overlook or tolerate an unsafe condition

A

Inattentiveness impatience excitability and stubbornness

102
Q

What should be accomplished after any maintenance action

A

Clean up

103
Q

Failing to clean up drips and spills can cause what dangers

A

Slips and falls

104
Q

List the 4 principles of ORM

A

Accept no unnecessary risk, make risk decisions at appropriate levels, except risks only if benefits outweigh costs, integrate ORM into all levels

105
Q

What’s considered to be the direct cause of many accidents

A

Unsafe acts or physical hazards

106
Q

What is called a practical joke but is a major cause of accidents

A

Horseplay

107
Q

What precautions should be taken when wearing metal frame glasses around and energized electrical circuit

A

Where neckbands

108
Q

What are the four major phases of safety training

A

Initial, supervisor, job safety, general

109
Q

Name the two most frequent methods used in job safety training

A

Personal interview with trainer and standup talks

110
Q

What TOs cover sealants solvents and adhesive

A

42A3–1-2 and 1-1–691

111
Q

Sealants are packaged and available in what general units of issue

A

Two-part can kit, Semkit cartridge, and premixed and frozen

112
Q

What is the sealant application life

A

How long sealant can be used for at 75° and 50% humidity

113
Q

List three sources of antenna radiation

A

High-frequency radio transmitters, radar, and ECM

114
Q

What references provide guidance for servicing operations

A

AFOSH 91 series, 00–25–172, and aircraft TOs

115
Q

What TO list criteria for positioning fire extinguishers

A

00 – 25 – 172

116
Q

What is the minimum safe distance for operating ground power equipment during oxygen servicing

A

50 feet

117
Q

Why do many job guides list nitrogen as the preferred choice for servicing compressed gas components

A

Because of it’s inert qualities

118
Q

As a general rule where should you position yourself for marshaling an aircraft

A

To the front and left of the pilot

119
Q

What is the preferred method of raising a downed aircraft

A

Jacking

120
Q

To overcome the instability of lifting bags you should add

A

Shoring to other parts of the aircraft

121
Q

What makes up A TO library

A

One or more current TO’s with all Changes revisions and supplements maintained on a continuing basis or special-purpose library

122
Q

What information is required on a TO binder

A

Binder number and contents

123
Q

Equipment designator for utility aircraft

A

1U

124
Q

Equipment designator for trainer aircraft

A

1T

125
Q

Equipment designator for attack aircraft

A

1A

126
Q

What group of the TO number tells you the type of TO

A

Group 3

127
Q

Designator for maintenance instructions

A

– 2

128
Q

Designator for flight manuals

A

-1

129
Q

Designator for IPBs

A

-4

130
Q

Designator for work Unit code manual

A

-06

131
Q

Designator for inspection requirements

A

-6

132
Q

What are the functions of groups four through six of A TO number

A

Subdivided into system and subsystem

133
Q

What Provides a listing of all TOs that apply to a specific weapon system

A

is the purpose of the LOAP

134
Q

What is An wautomated information system that provides a hardware and software infrastructure for managing tech manuals throughout DOD

A

the JCALS system

135
Q

What are the four major types of TOs

A

Tech manuals, abbreviated TOs, TC TOs, methods and procedures tech orders or MPTO

136
Q

Name three types of abbreviated TOs

A

Check list, work cards, and charts

137
Q

What are the five types of TCTO’s

A

Immediate, urgent, routine, record and interim

138
Q

Which type of TCTO has red Xs around the first page

A

Immediate action

139
Q

What type of TCTO is issued for a potential hazardous condition that could result in injury to personnel or damage to property

A

Urgent action

140
Q

Which TCTO is issued for having a reduced tactical or support utility status

A

Routine action

141
Q

Which TCTO doesn’t list STEP by step procedures

A

Record

142
Q

How are ITCTOs issued

A

Electronically

143
Q

When does an MPTO become effective

A

On the date received unless otherwise specified

144
Q

What are the three classifications of TO improvement reports

A

Emergency, urgent, routine

145
Q

What TO improvement reports submitted if fatality or serious injury may occur, extensive damage or destruction of equipment, inability to achieve or maintain operational posture

A

Emergency

146
Q

What type of improvement report is submitted if safety could be jeopardized

A

Urgent

147
Q

Which type of report is For TO deficiencies and processed within 45 days

A

Routine

148
Q

What are the two categories of publication

A

Directive and nondirective

149
Q

What type of publication does not list procedures or detailed how-to instructions

A

Policy directives

150
Q

What type of publication is used to direct action and ensure compliance across the Air Force

A

Departmental instructions or AFI

151
Q

Which type of directive publication has two categories departmental and field level

A

Manuals

152
Q

What Assigns responsibility, directs actions, and prescribe procedures?

A

the purpose of an OI

WAPS Testing (35 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions