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Premed95 > Biology Review > Flashcards

Biology Review Flashcards

1
Q

all amino acids exist as ___

A

zwitterions

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2
Q

what is cortisol?

A

stress hormone

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3
Q

as acidity increases, HgB’s affinity for O2 ___

A

decreases

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4
Q

centrosomes CONTAIN

A

centrioles, composed of microtubules

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5
Q

the citric acid cycle produces GTP, T/F

A

T

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6
Q

Calcium released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum binds to

A

troponin

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7
Q

what is the function of the loop of henle?

A

water reabsorption

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8
Q

how does competitive inhibition work?

A

binding reversibly to the active site

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9
Q

what happens to the Km and Vmax in competitive inhibition?

A

Vmax unchanged, Km increases

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10
Q

what does an uncompetitive inhibitor bind?

A

the E-S complex

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11
Q

what happens to the Vmax and Km of uncompetitive inhibition?

A

Lowers Vmax and Lowers Km

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12
Q

where do noncompetitive inhibitors bind?

A

at a location other than the active site

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13
Q

what happens to the Km and Vmax during noncompetitive inhibition?

A

Km remains the same, decreases Vmax

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14
Q

gut flora are found mostly in the __

A

cecum

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15
Q

what is the function of DNA ligase?

A

joining strands of DNA together

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16
Q

what is the equation for osmotic pressure?

A

PI=iMRTwhere i= # of solute particles and R is ideal gas constat

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17
Q

what is beta oxidation?

A

cleaving the beta carbon next to the COOH group

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18
Q

what does chymotrypsin do?

A

cleaves peptide bonds preferentially near hydroPHOBIC amino acids

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19
Q

pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA in the

A

mitochondrial matrix

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20
Q

pyruvate is converted to acetyl CoA by

A

pyrvuate dehydrogenase

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21
Q

what are prosthetic groups?

A

nonprotein components of enzymes required for enzymatic activity. NOT part of original AA sequence of protein

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22
Q

what is an enoyl?

A

carbonyl with a double bond between alpha and beta carbons

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23
Q

each FADH2 produces __ ATP

A

1.5

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24
Q

each NADH produces __ ATP

A

2.5

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25
Q

can viral budding occur in bacteria?

A

no, because prokaryotes have a cell wall

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26
Q

would a pyrimidine–>pyrimidine mutation affect structure?

A

no

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27
Q

what is thyroxine?

A

associated with thyroid, responsible for regulating metabolism

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28
Q

what is the founder effect?

A

phenomenon where certain areas of world show higher allele frequency than others

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29
Q

does salinity affect enzyme rate?

A

yes

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30
Q

where is oxytocin made?

A

hypothalamus

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31
Q

what are pseudopodia made of?

A

microfilaments

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32
Q

what are actin and myosin made of?

A

microfilaments

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33
Q

where is the mitral valve located?

A

between the left atrium and left ventricle

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34
Q

what is an apoenzyme?

A

enzyme lacking its cofactor

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35
Q

what is a holoenzyme?

A

enzyme+coenzyme

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36
Q

what lipid is the component of myelin?

A

sphingomyelin

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37
Q

which channel repolarizes the membrane to its resting potential?

A

K+ (potassium)

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38
Q

a cell that isn’t dividing but metabolically “active” is in what stage of the cell cycle?

A

G0 or G1.

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39
Q

what does the diaphragm do during inspiration

A

contracts

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40
Q

what do the intercostal (rib) muscles do during inspiration?

A

contract

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41
Q

what happens to the pupil during the sympathetic response

A

DILATES

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42
Q

when are primary oocytes made?

A

between fertilization and birth

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43
Q

glomerular filtration rate is dependent on

A

blood pressure

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44
Q

what do the kidneys do in response to decreased blood pressure?

A

activate renin-angiotensin system to increase sodium and water reabsorption, increasing blood volume and pressure

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45
Q

what is adaptive radiation?

A

divergence of one species into multiple different species which can occur when the original species is geographically isolated

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46
Q

what causes a neuronal depolarization?

A

sodium ions moving IN

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47
Q

what does calcitonin do?

A

DECREASE blood calcium(think: it “tones down” blood Ca)

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48
Q

what does parathyroid hormone do?

A

INCREASE blood calcium

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49
Q

what are sertoli cells?

A

provide nourishment for developing sperm cells

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50
Q

what are the steps in spermatogenesis?

A

spermatogonium–>primary spermatocyte–>secondary spermatocyte–> spermatid–>spermatozoan

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51
Q

what is unique about exocrine glands?

A

secrete through ducts

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52
Q

what does the pancreas produce?

A

proteolytic enzymes (chemotrypsin)

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53
Q

what is the function of ADH?

A

anti-diuretic hormone, fxns to increase water reabsorption and urine concentration

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54
Q

what is the function of the descending loop of henle?

A

water reabsorption

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55
Q

what is the function of myoglobin?

A

STORAGE of O2, no transport

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56
Q

what direction does RNA polymerase travel in? what direction does it synthesize in?

A

travels: 3–>5synthesized: 5–>3

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57
Q

what kind of polymerase is found in a retrovirus?

A

RNA dependent DNA polymerase

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58
Q

what is the function of the leaky potassium channels?

A

maintainence of resting membrane potential

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59
Q

what is a zymogen?

A

inactive form of protein

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60
Q

are shorter wavelengths(higher freq) more likely or less likely to be absorbed by body tissue?

A

more likely

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61
Q

how many phosphates are attached to each nucleotide in DNA?

A

2

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62
Q

where does the H-bonding occur between nucleotides?

A

between the PYRIMIDINE rings (benzene looking things)

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63
Q

what property of the lipid sphingomyelin makes it important for action potentials?

A

its conductivity(or lack thereof), as conductivity and insulation are related

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64
Q

error bars are a measure of___

A

PRECISION

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65
Q

what is an ideal control group?

A

has all the factors of the test group except the thing being tested

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66
Q

what are T cells activated by?

A

antigen presenting cells

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67
Q

what are antigen presenting cells?

A

B cells, macrophages, dendritic cells

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68
Q

what to antigen presenting cells do?

A

display a MHC

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69
Q

neutrophils and macrophages are part of the

A

innate immune system

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70
Q

what is a spliceosome?

A

splices from RNA not DNA

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71
Q

what does DNA methylation do?

A

suppress transcription by condensing chromatin

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72
Q

how many ATP are produced in glycolysis?

A

2 total. 4 in, 2 out.

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73
Q

what are the 3 stop codons on DNA?

A

TGA, TAA, TAG

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74
Q

what does a kinase do?

A

transfer phosphate from high energy molecule (GTP or ATP), to substrate

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75
Q

what does a phosphatase do?

A

removes phosphate group from substrates

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76
Q

what is the function of a fibroblast?

A

produce ECM

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77
Q

what does prolactin do?

A

stimulate breast milk PRODUCTION

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78
Q

what does oxytocin do?

A

stimulate breast milk RELEASE (as well as uterine contractions, etc)

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79
Q

what is the function of VLDL? (very low density lipoprotein)

A

carry fatty acids AWAY FROM liver

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80
Q

what does HDL do?

A

carries stray fatty acids and triglycerides TO liver

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81
Q

what is the ploidy of a secondary spermatocyte? and of a primary spermatocyte?

A

n, 23/ 2n, 46

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82
Q

what direction does DNA polymerase READ in?

A

3–>5

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83
Q

what direction does DNA polymerase SYNTHESIZE in?

A

5–>3

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84
Q

what is the function of lutenizing hormone?

A

stimulate leydig cells to promote testosterone–>make sperm

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85
Q

what is the function of CD8 cells?

A

detect and kill INTRACELLULAR pathogens

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86
Q

what is the function of CD4 T cells?

A

helper cells, release cytokines and help suppress or regulate immune response

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87
Q

what is the function of B cells?

A

releasing antibodies

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88
Q

maltose is the product of?

A

amylose breaking down starch

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89
Q

what connects the cells in cardiac muscle?

A

GAP JUNCTIONS (aka electrical synapses)

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90
Q

what do tight junctions do?

A

TIGHT joining of cells, prevent movement of shit

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91
Q

what does the sodium potassium pump do?

A

pumps 3 Na+ out and 2 K+ in. Net output of 1+ out of cell, maintains negative potential INSIDE CELL

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92
Q

what do cytotoxic T cells do?

A

kill cancer cells or infected/damaged cells

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93
Q

what is the function of a dendritic cell?

A

process antigen material, and present it to T cells. act as messengers between adaptive and innate immune system

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94
Q

what is the difference between a coenzyme and a cofactor?

A

a coenzyme is ORGANIC, while a cofactor is not (usually a metal ion or something)

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95
Q

what event precedes the release of opening of Na+ channels on the motor end plate, resulting in depolarization of muscle fibers?

A

binding of acetylcholine

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96
Q

what do reducing conditions do in gel electrophoresis?

A

disrupt disulfide bonds

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97
Q

what do denaturing conditions do during gel electrophoresis

A

disrupt interactions between monomers allowing primary structure to be analyzed

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98
Q

what is the significance of the hill coefficient?

A

higher than 1 meants enzyme exhibits cooperativity

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99
Q

what is the G1/S checkpoint?

A

checkpoint before transcription takes place

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100
Q

what is kD?

A

binding affinity constant

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101
Q

what does CO2 and H2O create?

A

carbonic acid (H2CO3)

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102
Q

is pressure lower or higher in the lower extremities?

A

HIGHER

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103
Q

the GLUT4 is only found in

A

adipose tissue and muscle

104
Q

what is a chaotropic agent?

A

disrupts H bonding networks (fucks up enzymes)

105
Q

at a pH below the isoelectric point, a protein will have a net

A

POSITIVE charge

106
Q

how do you find the pI of an amino acid without any acidic/basic side chains?

A

take the averages of the amino and carboxy pKas. w

107
Q

what is the pKa of the carboxy terminus?

A

2

108
Q

what is the pka of the n-terminus?

A

~10

109
Q

what ribsomal subunit type is associated with eukaryotes?

A

80s

110
Q

what ribosomal subtype is associated with prokaryotes?

A

70s

111
Q

how many reading frames does prokaryotic mRNA have?

A

multiple

112
Q

how is the lagging strand synthesized?

A

short RNA primers

113
Q

a large kD means

A

unfavorable interaction, low binding affinity

114
Q

the GI tract is derived from

A

endoderm

115
Q

what is opsonization?

A

when antibodies bind to antigens on a pathogen

116
Q

what happens to insulin levels after a meal?

A

increase

117
Q

what are the fat soluble vitamins?

A

ADEK

118
Q

where can lipid peroxides be found in the cell, and why?

A

mitochondrial membrane because that is where the ETC is and Oxygen is taking place in redox reaction

119
Q

what is trisomy 21?

A

downs syndrome

120
Q

what is trisomy 14?

A

DEATH! why? because it has more genes

121
Q

do polar or charged amino acids play a part in dimerization of proteins?

A

no because they interact with the cytosol preferentially.

122
Q

how does SDS page separate proteins?

A

based on mass

123
Q

glucose 6-phosphatase plays a role in

A

gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis

124
Q

how do you calculate kcat?

A

Vmax/Km(or[E])

125
Q

what are some starting materials for gluconeogenesis?

A

lactate, oxaloacetate, alpha-ketoglutarate

126
Q

what happens to the Galpha subunit of a GPCR when a ligand is bound?

A

exchanges bound GDP for a GTP

127
Q

what enzyme catalyzes the rate limiting step in glycogenolysis?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

128
Q

phosphogluconate is involved in

A

the pentose phosphate pathway

129
Q

succinyl CoA synthetase produces

A

succinate and GTP

130
Q

what is the product of the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

NADPH

131
Q

what does glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase do in the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

catalyze conversion of glucose 6 phosphate into 6-phosphogluconolactone

132
Q

what primarily composes the secondary structure of proteins?

A

H bonding between backbones

133
Q

alpha helix and beta sheets are an example of

A

secondary structure

134
Q

disulfide bridges are what level of protein structure?

A

tertiary

135
Q

trypsin and lipase function in what part of the body?

A

small intestine

136
Q

cytokinesis is possible because of what protein structure?

A

microFILAMENTS

137
Q

prokaryotic flagella are made from ___

A

flagellin, different from eukaryotes

138
Q

what are the stages of interphase?

A

G1–>S–>G2

139
Q

the y intercept in a linweaver-burke plot represents

A

1/vmax

140
Q

how many electrons does cytochrome c carry?

A

ONE

141
Q

ideal PCR primers have

A

a high G-C content

142
Q

when does nondisjunction occur?

A

anaphase 1 or 2

143
Q

which amino acids are used to make proteins?

A

only L

144
Q

what is euchromatin?

A

loose, easily accesible to transcription machinery

145
Q

what is the vasculature schema?

A

Arteries–>arterioles–>capillary bed–>venules–>veins

146
Q

the lower the Kd, the higher the

A

binding affinity

147
Q

what does a protease do?

A

hydrolytic cleavage of proteins

148
Q

what embyronic germ layer is the mouth derived from?

A

ectoderm

149
Q

what does lipase do?

A

hydrolyze fatty acids/fats

150
Q

proteins destined for the cell membrane have a

A

signal sequence to bind to rough ER

151
Q

what does calcium do in the context of muscle movement?

A

binds troponin–>pulls tropomyosin away from actin-myosin binding site which allows myosin to bind actin

152
Q

where is glomerular filtrate the most concentrated?

A

medullary collecting duct

153
Q

what do ABC transport proteins do?

A

transport shit OUT of cell

154
Q

what is a lipid raft?

A

cholesterol rich domain in plasma membrane

155
Q

the initial filtration step in the kidney occurs due to

A

pressure difference in bowman’s capsule

156
Q

nucleotides are bonded to eachother by

A

5–>3 phosphodiester bond

157
Q

is loss of appetite a Sx of DM?

A

NO

158
Q

is glycolysis exergonic or endergonic?

A

exergonic

159
Q

what is the fate of pyruvate in gluconeogenesis?

A

reduced to glucose and NADH oxidized to NAD+

160
Q

what is the function of NADPH produced by the pentose phosphate pathway?

A

assists antioxidants

161
Q

vesicle exocytosis does what to membrane surface area?

A

INCREASES it

162
Q

what does aldosterone do?

A

increases sodium reabsorption, which increases blood osmolarity, which increases ADH production–>more water reabsorpton–>increae in blood volume and pressure

163
Q

what does the krebs cycle produce for each acetyl CoA?

A

1 FADH2, 4 NADH, 1 GTP

164
Q

what does the movement of Cl- ions into an neuron do?

A

hyperpolarizes it and prevents it from firing an action potential

165
Q

hyperpolarization of a neuron prevents its ability to

A

release neurotransmitters

166
Q

a frameshift mutation only affects

A

translation

167
Q

what are the assumptions for hardy-weinberg?

A

infinte population, random mating, no movement in or out

168
Q

a low Km indicates

A

higher binding affinity between enzyme and substrate

169
Q

what controls the anterior pituitary?

A

factors released by the hypothalamus

170
Q

what controls the posterior pituitary?

A

neuronal stimulus from the hypothalamus

171
Q

what is a proto-oncogene?

A

a gene that, when mutated, becomes an oncogene

172
Q

what is endothelium?

A

simple squamous cells that line blood and lymphatic vessels

173
Q

epi and nor-epi are produced by

A

the adrenal medulla

174
Q

where do epi and nor-epi bind?

A

the cell surface because they are derived from amino acids and are polar

175
Q

what happens during prophase?

A

spindle apparatus forms, centrioles move to poles, nuclear membrane disintegrates, chromatin condenses

176
Q

what is produced in oogenesis?

A

1 ovum after 2 divisions

177
Q

what is the 32 cell stage called?

A

blastula

178
Q

what is the 16 cell stage called?

A

morula

179
Q

what is the 1 cell stage called?

A

zygote

180
Q

what does the parasympathetic nervous system do to blood vessels?

A

contracts them

181
Q

what is IgA?

A

immunoglobulin that protects against toxins, bacteria, and free floating viral cells

182
Q

what does ACTH do?

A

stimulate adrenal cortex to produce cortisol and aldosterone

183
Q

how many carbons are in pyruvate?

A

3

184
Q

how many carbons in oxaloacetate?

A

4

185
Q

what is the sign for enthalpy(H) for an endothermic reaction?

A

positive(requires heat)

186
Q

what does a positive deltaH mean

A

rxn requires input of heat

187
Q

a positive deltaH and positive delta S means the reaction

A

is spontaneous at high temperatures

188
Q

ketogenesis uses ___ as substrates

A

fatty acids

189
Q

a decreased Km indicates

A

increased substrate affinity/increased velocity

190
Q

can noncompetitive inhibition be overcome with increased substrate concentration?

A

NO

191
Q

competitive inhibition can be overcome with

A

greater [S]

192
Q

what kind of sugar does NADPH contain?

A

ribose(pentose) because it is a nucleotide derivative

193
Q

fatty acid oxidation occurs in the

A

mitochondrial matrix

194
Q

pyrvuate is converted to acetyl coA in the

A

mitochondrial matrix

195
Q

increasing pKa of side chains means the isoelectric point

A

also increases

196
Q

when pH is less than pKa

A

protonated

197
Q

gastrin is produced by

A

G cells in the antrum of the stomach

198
Q

do peptides contain ester bonds?

A

NO

199
Q

how do you calculate recombination frequency?

A

of recombinants/total # of offspring

200
Q

to find overall frequency if the genes are unlinked

A

multiple each probability together

201
Q

what happens to the allele frequency in hardy weinberg?

A

remains the same

202
Q

how to draw glucose easily?

A

D glucose is right left right right,L glucose is left right left left

203
Q

are actin filaments polymerized in muscle contraction?

A

NO

204
Q

what happens to FSH levels after menstruation?

A

The are high

205
Q

what hormone increases to instigate ovulation?

A

LH

206
Q

what does aldosterone do to blood K levels?

A

decreases them because of increased K secretion

207
Q

what do exonucleases do?

A

repair base pair mismatches

208
Q

the conversion of pyruvate to oxaloacetate requires

A

CO2

209
Q

what is a missense mutation?

A

one AA substituted for another

210
Q

what is a nonsense mutation?

A

leads to a premature termination

211
Q

how do you measure catalytic efficiency?

A

kcat/Km

212
Q

anion exchange columns bind:

A

negatively charged anions

213
Q

how do you calculate Vmax given [E] and kcat?

A

Vmax=kcat[E]

214
Q

when both substrates occupy an active site, what kind of complex is formed?

A

ternary complex

215
Q

a sigmoidal shape indicates

A

cooperative binding

216
Q

how does a blood pressure reading occur?

A

constrict until no flow is heard. the first point at which it is heard is systolic, the point at which it is no longer heard again is diastolic

217
Q

where are the bonds occuring in the secondary structure of a protein?

A

between backbone amide protons and carbonyl oxygens

218
Q

pyrimidines are

A

CUT6 member rings

219
Q

phosphofructokinase-1 is inhibited by

A

ATP allosterically

220
Q

secretory proteins are synthesized and folded in the

A

rough ER

221
Q

what is ubiqutination?

A

targeting a protein for degradation by proteasomes

222
Q

what does glyceraldehyde-3phosphate-dehydrogenase do?

A

catalyze conversion of G3P to 1,3-biphosphoglycerate

223
Q

what does vasopressin do?

A

regulates insertion of aquaporins into collecting duct

224
Q

what are schwann cells?

A

myelin producing cells of PNS

225
Q

what are oligodendrocytes?

A

myelin producing cells of central nervous system

226
Q

blood from the small intestine flows to the

A

liver

227
Q

internalization of viruses by endocytosis would be mediated by

A

endosomes

228
Q

what do proteases do?

A

digest proteins into smaller fragments

229
Q

phosphoenolpyruvate is a product of

A

glycolysis

230
Q

how many ATP are produced per glucose in anaerobic conditions?

A

2 per glucose

231
Q

which part of the antibody recognizes foreign pathogens?

A

the tip of each light/heavy chain

232
Q

in muscle contraction the ___head binds to the ___ filament

A

myosin head, actin filament

233
Q

why is ATP required for muscle contraction?

A

required to break myosin-actin bond

234
Q

what does a reducing agent do in electrophoresis?

A

breaks disulfide bonds

235
Q

the conformational changes that allow actin/myosin to move relative to one another requires

A

ATP hydrolysis

236
Q

reuptake of calcium into the sarcoplasmic reticulum requires

A

ATP

237
Q

the terminal electron acceptor in fermentation is

A

pyruvate

238
Q

what are platelets formed from?

A

megakaryocytes

239
Q

do platelets have ribosomes?

A

yes

240
Q

increased blood O2 and decreased blood CO2 does what to pH?

A

increases it (respiratory alkalosis)

241
Q

is actin thick or thin?

A

THIN(acthin)

242
Q

is myosin thick or thin?

A

THICK

243
Q

what is the difference betwen nucleoside and nucleotide?

A

nucleotide has PHOSPHATE, whereas nucleoside just has the sugar and base

244
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for glycolysis?

A

PFK-1

245
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for gluconeogenesis?

A

fructose-1,6-biphosphatase

246
Q

whats the rate limiting enzyme for the TCA cycle?

A

isocitrate dehydrogenase

247
Q

whats the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenesis?

A

glycogen synthase

248
Q

what is the rate limiting enzyme for glycogenolysis?

A

glycogen phosphorylase

249
Q

what enzyme converts pyruvate to oxaloacetate in gluconeogenesis?

A

pyruvate carboxylase

250
Q

what converts oxaloacetate to phosphoenolpyruvate?

A

PEP carboxylase

251
Q

what enzyme catalyzes the conversion of fructose1,6biphosphate to fructose 6 phosphate?

A

fructose16biphosphatase

252
Q

what enzyme produces glucose from glucose-6-phosphate in gluconeogensis?

A

glucose-6-phosphatase

253
Q

is arginine or lysine more basic?

A

arginine

254
Q

what is unchanged in uncompetitive inhibition?

A

Km/Vmax

255
Q

what is the slope of a lineweaver burk plot

A

Km/Vmax

256
Q

what is specific activity?

A

enzyme units per milligram of total protein

257
Q

what elutes first in size exclusion chromatography?

A

allows smallest to elute first

Premed95 (20 decks)

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