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BB2 Revision12 Flashcards

1
Q

Tuberomamillary (TMN) system is involved in keeping the body awake. Which molecule controls it?

Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Orexins
Melatonin
Histamines

A

Tuberomamillary (TMN) system is involved in keeping the body awake. Which molecule controls it?

Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Orexins
Melatonin
Histamines

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2
Q

GABA & Galanin neurons project from which nucleus?

Paraventricular nucleus
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Arcuate nucleus
Pre-optic nucleus
Supraoptic nucleus

A

GABA & Galanin neurons project from which nucleus?

Paraventricular nucleus
Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Arcuate nucleus
Pre-optic nucleus (sleep promoting (I think))
Supraoptic nucleus

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3
Q

Which stage of sleep normally lasts the longest?

Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
REM

A

Which stage of sleep normally lasts the longest?

Stage 1
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
REM

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4
Q

which of the following is a benzodiazapene prescribed for chronic insomnia?

  • lorazepam
  • temazepam
  • Zolpidem
  • eszopiclone
A

which of the following is a benzodiazapene prescribed for chronic insomnia?

  • lorazepam - short term
  • temazepam - short term
  • Zolpidem - long term & z drug
  • eszopiclone
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5
Q

which of the following has the shortest half life?

  • lorazepam
  • temazepam
  • Zolpidem
  • eszopiclone
A

which of the following has the shortest half life?

  • lorazepam
  • temazepam
  • Zolpidem
  • eszopiclone

benzos: long half life; z drugs: short half life

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6
Q

A deficiency in which of the following causes narcolepsy?

Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Orexins
Melatonin
Histamines

A

A deficiency in which of the following causes narcolepsy?

Dopamine
Noradrenaline
Orexins
Melatonin
Histamines

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7
Q

Which of the following is depicted

Resting tremor
Postural tremor
Intentional tremor
Dystonia

A

Which of the following is depicted

Intentional tremor: occurs with a goal-directed movement and worsens as approaching the target

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8
Q

Which of the following genes involved in SCH is responsible for neurodevelopment and also signalling in corticolimbic areas

Dysbindin
DISC1
COMT
BDNF
Neuregulin 1

A

Which of the following genes involved in SCH is responsible for neurodevelopment and also signalling in corticolimbic areas

Dysbindin
DISC1
COMT
BDNF
Neuregulin 1

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9
Q

Which of the following genes involved in SCH causes synaptic plasticity and myelination

Dysbindin
DISC1
COMT
BDNF
Neuregulin 1

A

Which of the following genes involved in SCH causes synaptic plasticity and myelination

Dysbindin
DISC1
COMT
BDNF
Neuregulin 1

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10
Q

Which of the following genes involved in SCH may affect dopamine D2 receptor levels and glutamate and GABA transmission

Dysbindin
DISC1
COMT
BDNF
Neuregulin 1

A

Which of the following genes involved in SCH may affect dopamine D2 receptor levels and glutamate and GABA transmission

Dysbindin
DISC1
COMT
BDNF
Neuregulin 1

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11
Q

Which of the following is implicated in SCH?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is implicated in SCH?

A dorsolateral prefontal
B
C
D
E

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12
Q

Which of the following is most likely causing A?

Epilepsy
Parkinsons
Schizophrenia
Multiple sclerosis
Huntingdons

A

Which of the following is most likely causing A?

Epilepsy
Parkinsons
Schizophrenia
Multiple sclerosis
Huntingdons

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13
Q

Label A & B [1]

Which one is hyperactive in SCH? [1]

Which one is hypoactive in SCH? [1]

A

A: mesolimbic system - hyperactive

B: mesocortical system: hypoactive

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14
Q

Typical anti-psychotics have which of the following effect?

Relieve postive and negative symptoms
Relieve positive symptoms only
Relieve negative symptoms only
Relieve cognitive symptoms only

A

Typical anti-psychotics have which of the following effect?

Relieve postive and negative symptoms
Relieve positive symptoms only
Relieve negative symptoms only
Relieve cognitive symptoms only

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15
Q

Which of the following is tardive dyskinesia

A
B
C
D

A

Which of the following is tardive dyskinesia

A
B
C
D

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16
Q

Which of the following is acute dystonia

A
B
C
D

A

Which of the following is acute dystonia

A
B
C
D

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17
Q

Prolonged used of typical anti-psychotics may leda to which syndrome? [1]

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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18
Q

Alchohol / ethanol decreases the effect of which channel to cause psychodepression?

Na+
K+
Cl-
Ca2+
H+

A

Alchohol / ethanol decreases the effect of which channel to cause psychodepression?

Na+
K+
Cl-
Ca2+
H+

DOES NOT act on a single specific receptor protein.

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19
Q

Which of the following inibits dopamine uptake?

Caffeine
MDMA
Alcohol
Cannabis
Cocaine

A

Which of the following inibits dopamine uptake?

Caffeine
MDMA
Alcohol
Cannabis
Cocaine

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20
Q

What does the yellow rectangle represent?

Caffeine
MDMA
Alcohol
Cannabis
Cocaine

A

What does the yellow rectangle represent?

Caffeine
MDMA
Alcohol
Cannabis
Cocaine

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21
Q

Which of the following is an adenosine antagonist?

Caffeine
MDMA
Alcohol
Cannabis
Cocaine

A

Which of the following is an adenosine antagonist?

Caffeine: adenosine promotes sleep

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22
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of acton of MDMA use? [3]

A

3 key functions:
I. Stimulate release of catecholamines
II. Inhibit catecholamine recapture by the uptake system
III. Inhibit monoamine oxidase (MAO) activity

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23
Q

Which specific receptors do atypical anti-pyschotics target?

5-HT1A
Na
5-HT2A
D1

A

Which specific receptors do atypical anti-pyschotics target?

5-HT1A
Na
5-HT2A strong antagonists; weak D2 receptors
D1

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24
Q

Which of the following anti-pyschotics is particularly useful for negative symptoms?

Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine

A

Which of the following anti-pyschotics is particularly useful for negative symptoms?

Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine

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25
Q

Which of the following anti-pyschotics is a partial agonist at pre-synaptic D2 but an antagonist at post-synaptic D2?

Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine

A

Which of the following anti-pyschotics is a partial agonist at pre-synaptic D2 but an antagonist at post-synaptic D2?

Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine

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26
Q

Which of the following may cause an increased risk of infection?

Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine

A

Which of the following may cause an increased risk of infection?

Risperidone
Quetiapine
Aripiprazole
Clozapine
Olanzapine

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27
Q

State two key AEs of using typical anti-pyschotics? [2]

(that are non-pyramidal)

A

weight gain
rise in prolactin: sexual dysfunction, galactorrhoea, amenorrhea

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28
Q

Cannabis binds to CB1 receptors. Which enzyme does this subsequently inhibit? [1]

A

Inhibit Adenylate cyclase, thus inhibiting voltage-dependent calcium channels.

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29
Q

Clozapine targets which receptor

D1
D2
D3
D4

A

Clozapine targets which receptor

D1
D2
D3
D4

30
Q

A 30-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of irregular menses. She has been having irregular menstrual cycles for the past two years. The patient has a history of schizophrenia but has been stable on her current antipsychotic medication. She discontinued oral contraceptives and has abstained from both alcohol and nicotine for approximately one year as she and her husband are planning to start a family. The physical exam is unremarkable and the patient denies suicidal or homicidal ideations, denies auditory or visual hallucinations, cognition and judgment are intact. What is the most likely hormonal abnormality causing this patient’s symptoms?

A. Increased gonadotropin hormone secretion
B. Decreased human growth hormone secretion
C. Increased prolactin secretion
D. Decreased thyroid hormone production

A

A 30-year-old female presents to the clinic complaining of irregular menses. She has been having irregular menstrual cycles for the past two years. The patient has a history of schizophrenia but has been stable on her current antipsychotic medication. She discontinued oral contraceptives and has abstained from both alcohol and nicotine for approximately one year as she and her husband are planning to start a family. The physical exam is unremarkable and the patient denies suicidal or homicidal ideations, denies auditory or visual hallucinations, cognition and judgment are intact. What is the most likely hormonal abnormality causing this patient’s symptoms?

A. Increased gonadotropin hormone secretion
B. Decreased human growth hormone secretion
C. Increased prolactin secretion
D. Decreased thyroid hormone production

31
Q

The hippocampus receives direct input from:

A. Parahippocampal cortex.
B. Cingulate cortex.
C. Amygdala.
D. Septalnuclei and hypothalamus.
E. All of the above.

A

The hippocampus receives direct input from:

A. Parahippocampal cortex.
B. Cingulate cortex.
C. Amygdala.
D. Septalnuclei and hypothalamus.
All of the above.

32
Q

The output of the amygdala (arrow) is to
A. Septal nuclei and hypothalamus.
B. Dorsomedial thalamus.
C. Orbitofrontal cortex.
D. Ventral striatum.
E. All of the above.

A

The output of the amygdala (arrow) is to
A. Septal nuclei and hypothalamus.
B. Dorsomedial thalamus.
C. Orbitofrontal cortex.
D. Ventral striatum.
E. All of the above.

33
Q

While picnicing in the meadow the wind suddenly delivers the foul odor of a rotting smell. You vomit. Think of the circuitry involved in executing the motor act. Which does it NOT include?
A. Activity in the solitary tract.
B. Activity in the cortical amygdala.
C. Activity in the stria terminalis.
D. Hypothalamic integration of limbic input.
E. Activation of reticulospinal tracts.

A

While picnicing in the meadow the wind suddenly delivers the foul odor of a rotting smell. You vomit. Think of the circuitry involved in executing the motor act. Which does it NOT include?
A. Activity in the solitary tract

The solitary tract consists of primary sensory axons subserving taste and visceral sensation. Only after the act of vomiting would this pathway be active. While a lot of what we think of as taste is smell, the stimulus in this case is olfactory and involves the other structures listed.
34
Q

Axons in this structure are
A. Primary sensory axons.
B. Secondary sensory axons.
C. Tertiary sensory axons.
D. None of the above because its a central tract.
E. A & B.

A

Axons in this structure are
A. Primary sensory axons.
B. Secondary sensory axons.

Myelinated axons in the core of the olfactory tract are secondary sensory axons leaving pyramidal (mitral) cells and traveling to the olfactory cortex.

35
Q

What is the relationship of the hippocampus to this region of the lateral ventricle?
A. Its in the floor of the ventricle.
B. Its in the roof of the ventricle.
C. It is rostral to the ventricle.
D. It has no relationship to the ventricle.

A

What is the relationship of the hippocampus to this region of the lateral ventricle?
A. Its in the floor of the ventricle.
B. Its in the roof of the ventricle.
C. It is rostral to the ventricle.
D. It has no relationship to the ventricle.

36
Q

What structure on the ventral surface of the brain is the best indicator of the position of the amygdala?
A. The parahippocampal gyrus.
B. The internal carotid artery.
C. The posterior cerebral artery.
D. The uncus.

A

What structure on the ventral surface of the brain is the best indicator of the position of the amygdala?
A. The parahippocampal gyrus.
B. The internal carotid artery.
C. The posterior cerebral artery.
D. The uncus.

The uncus is the most conspicuous landmark and directly overlies the amygdala.
37
Q

Which of the following are specific sensory relay nuclei to primary somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus)?

A. Dorsomedial nucleus.
B. Intralaminar nuclei.
C. Ventral posterior medial and lateral thalamic nuclei.
D. Anterior thalamic nuclei.
E. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei.

A

Which of the following are specific sensory relay nuclei to primary somatosensory cortex (postcentral gyrus)?

A. Dorsomedial nucleus.
B. Intralaminar nuclei.
C. Ventral posterior medial and lateral thalamic nuclei.
D. Anterior thalamic nuclei.
E. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei.

38
Q

What is the major thalamic source of afferents to this gyrus?
A. Dorsomedial nucleus.
B. Intralaminar nuclei.
C. Ventral posterior medial and lateral thalamic nuclei.
D. Anterior thalamic nuclei.
E. Ventral anterior and ventral lateral nuclei.

A

What is the major thalamic source of afferents to this gyrus?
A. Dorsomedial nucleus.
B. Intralaminar nuclei.
C. Ventral posterior medial and lateral thalamic nuclei.
D. Anterior thalamic nuclei.

The anterior nuclei project to the cingulate gyrus. The cingulate gyrus projects to all areas of cortex and vice versa.

39
Q

Axons of hippocampal pyramidal cells travel in the
A. Ventral (amygdalofugal) pathway.
B. Stria terminalis.
C. Fornix.
D. Cingulum.

A

Axons of hippocampal pyramidal cells travel in the
A. Ventral (amygdalofugal) pathway.
B. Stria terminalis.
C. Fornix.
Correct! Hippocampal pyramidal cells send most of their axons through the fornix.

40
Q

These pallidal efferents go to:
A. Thalamus.
B. Putamen.
C. Red nucleus.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.

A

These pallidal efferents go to:
A. Thalamus.
B. Putamen.
C. Red nucleus.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.

41
Q

he majority of hypertensive hemorrhages occur in the basal ganglia. Rupture of branches of which artery are most common?
A. Middle cerebral.
B. Lenticulostriate or lateral striate.
C. Anterior cerebral.
D. Anterior communicating.
E. Posterior communicating.

A

he majority of hypertensive hemorrhages occur in the basal ganglia. Rupture of branches of which artery are most common?
A. Middle cerebral.
B. Lenticulostriate or lateral striate.
C. Anterior cerebral.
D. Anterior communicating.
E. Posterior communicating.

42
Q

Hemiballismus on the left side is usually due to a vascular accident affecting the:
A. Left subthalamic nucleus.
B. Right subthalamic nucleus.
C. Right striatum.
D. Left striatum.

A

Hemiballismus on the left side is usually due to a vascular accident affecting the:
A. Left subthalamic nucleus.
B. Right subthalamic nucleus.
C. Right striatum.
D. Left striatum.

43
Q

This is a picture is of the brain of a patient with Huntington’s Disease. Microscopically you would see:
A. Loss of melanin filled cells in the striatum.
B. Loss of cells in the caudate and putamen.
C. Degenerating axons from the substantia nigra.
D. All of the above.

A

This is a picture is of the brain of a patient with Huntington’s Disease. Microscopically you would see:
A. Loss of melanin filled cells in the striatum.
B. Loss of cells in the caudate and putamen.

Huntington's disease is characterized by a loss of the medium sized cells in the caudate and putamen. Cell loss also occurs in the cerebral cortex. This is an autosomal dominant disease appearing in the 30s or 40s with abnormal jerking movements and mental deterioration.Click on the numbers to see a motion sequence of Huntington's disease: 22756 to 22884*.
44
Q

A patient with a resting tremor in the right hand is killed in a traffic accident and is autopsied. The neuropathology report states there is a loss of cells in:
A. The right substantia nigra.
B. The left substantia nigra.
C. The right globus pallidus.
D. The left globus pallidus.

A

A patient with a resting tremor in the right hand is killed in a traffic accident and is autopsied. The neuropathology report states there is a loss of cells in:
A. The right substantia nigra.
B. The left substantia nigra.
C. The right globus pallidus.
D. The left globus pallidus.

45
Q

At which level do the primary vestibular axons enter the brain stem?
A. The caudal medulla.
B. The pontomedullary junction.
C. The mid-pons.
D. Near the mammillary bodies in the interpeduncular fossa.

A

B. The pontomedullary junction.

CN VI, VII, and VIII enter/exit the brain stem at the junction of the medulla and pons.
46
Q

The vestibular system can be stimulated or irritated by an infection of the inner ear or by a tumor (arrow) pressing on the vestibulocochlear nerve. Which of the following would NOT occur?
A. Decreased auditory acuity.
B. Vertigo.
C. Tinnitis.
D. Loss of facial sensation.
E. Nausea.

A

D. Loss of facial sensation.

Facial sensation, mediated by CN V would not be affected by a tumor compressing CN VIII, unless the tumor is large enough to press on CN V or affect the descending nucleus and tract of V in the medulla.

47
Q

This structure:
A. Signals angular acceleration.
B. Is important for conjugate eye movements.
C. Signals orientation with respect to gravity.
D. Is bathed with perilymph.

A

C. Signals orientation with respect to gravity.

The macula with its otoliths in a gelitinous membrane signals gravity and acceleration changes by deforming the kinocilia.

48
Q

The medial vestibulospinal tract and MLF aid in:
A. Orienting toward visual stimuli.
B. Maintaining visual fixation.
C. Stabilizing the head in space.
D. Vestibulocollic reflex (i.e. head bobbing when you fall asleep in lecture).
E. All of the above.

A

The medial vestibulospinal tract and MLF aid in:
A. Orienting toward visual stimuli.
B. Maintaining visual fixation.
C. Stabilizing the head in space.
D. Vestibulocollic reflex (i.e. head bobbing when you fall asleep in lecture).
E. All of the above.

49
Q

Ataxia is defined as:
A. Inability to perform rapidly alternating movements.
B. Error in the range of movement.
C. Lack of continuity in the execution of movements.
D. Error in the rate, force, and direction of movement.
E. Muscle weakness.

A

Ataxia is defined as:
A. Inability to perform rapidly alternating movements.
B. Error in the range of movement.
C. Lack of continuity in the execution of movements.
D. Error in the rate, force, and direction of movement.
E. Muscle weakness.

50
Q

What course do the axons follow in reaching these nuclei in the pons?
A. Cortex–>internal capsule–>cerebral peduncle.
B. Cortex–>internal capsule–>red nucleus.
C. Cortex–>thalamus–>cerebellar peduncle.
D. Thalamus–>internal capsule–>cerebellar peduncle.

A

What course do the axons follow in reaching these nuclei in the pons?
A. Cortex–>internal capsule–>cerebral peduncle.
B. Cortex–>internal capsule–>red nucleus.
C. Cortex–>thalamus–>cerebellar peduncle.
D. Thalamus–>internal capsule–>cerebellar peduncle.

51
Q

To what brain stem nuclei does this structure project?
A. Vestibular nuclei.
B. Reticular nuclei.
C. Red nucleus.
D. A and B.
E. A, B, and C.

A

D. A and B.

The fastigial nucleus projects to vestibular and reticular nuclei on the same side. The dentate, globose and emboliform project to the opposite red nucleus and thalamus through the superior cerebellar peduncle.

52
Q

What deficit(s) result from interrupting these neurons in area 4?
A. Spasticity.
B. Hypertonia.
C. Hyperreflexia.
D. Pathological reflexes.
E. All of the above.

A

E. All of the above.

All of these deficits occur with upper motor neuron pathology. Upper motor neurons are located in the cerebral cortex. This Golgi impregnated section of the cerebral cortex shows cells bodies and dendrites of pyramidal cells. Click on the numbers for a motion sequence: 31739 to 31802*.
53
Q

All of the following are sensory radiations from this structure EXCEPT:
A. Olfactory radiations.
B. Optic radiations.
C. Auditory radiations.
D. Somatosensory radiations.

A

All of the following are sensory radiations from this structure EXCEPT:
A. Olfactory radiations.
B. Optic radiations.
C. Auditory radiations.
D. Somatosensory radiations.

54
Q

Cortical afferents in the internal capsule have their cell bodies located in:
A. The dorsal horn.
B. The dorsal column nuclei.
C. The thalamic nuclei.
D. The cerebral cortex.

A

Cortical afferents in the internal capsule have their cell bodies located in:
A. The dorsal horn.
B. The dorsal column nuclei.
C. The thalamic nuclei.
D. The cerebral cortex.

55
Q

What brain stem region lies or sits in the tentorial notch (incisure)?
A. Pons.
B. Cerebellum.
C. Temporal lobes.
D. Midbrain.
E. Hypothalamus.

A

What brain stem region lies or sits in the tentorial notch (incisure)?
A. Pons.
B. Cerebellum.
C. Temporal lobes.
D. Midbrain
E. Hypothalamus.

56
Q

The main role of the septal nucleus is..

Memory acquisition and recall, formation of long-term memory

Emotional content of stimuli: fear, anxiety and danger

Pleasure and reward

Affective significance

A

The main role of the septal nucleus is..

Memory acquisition and recall, formation of long-term memory

Emotional content of stimuli: fear, anxiety and danger

Pleasure and reward

Affective significance

57
Q

The cingulate gyrus recieves input from which tract? [1]

Anterior spinothalamic
Lateral spinothalamic
Reticulospinal
Rubrospinal

A

The cingulate gyrus recieves input from which tract? [1]

Anterior spinothalamic
Lateral spinothalamic
Reticulospinal
Rubrospinal

58
Q

Label A-D of the internal circuit of hippocampal formation

A

A: entorhinal cortex
B: dentate gyrus
C: CA3
D: CA1

59
Q

Which of the following is the entorhinal cortex?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the entorhinal cortex?

A
B
C
D
E

60
Q

Which of the following is the anterior thalamus ?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the anterior thalamus ?

A
B
C
D
E

61
Q

Which of the following is the parahippocampal gyrus?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the parahippocampal gyrus?

A
B
C
D
E

62
Q

Which of the following is the perirhinal cortex?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is the perirhinal cortex?

A
B
C
D
E

63
Q

Which two parts of the pre-frontal cortex are involved in the limbic system? [2]

A

orbitofrontal cortex
cingulate cortex

(The anterior part of the cingulate cortex merges into the orbitofrontal cortex)

64
Q

Which of the following is involved in the limbic system?

A
B
C
D
E

A

Which of the following is involved in the limbic system?

A
B
C
D
E

65
Q

What is this area involved with regarding memory? [1]

A

Parahippocampal gyrus: It is primarily involved in the acquisition of new memories

66
Q

The fornix axons end in the [] and the [] of the hypothalamus

A

The fornix axons end in the septal nuclei and the mammillary body of the hypothalamus

67
Q

Describe the route for information of Papezs circuit

A
  1. Information goes from the cingulate cortex to the parahippocampal gyrus
  2. Information goes from the parahippocampal cortex to the hippocampus
  3. Information from the hippocampus goes along the fornix to the mamillary bodies of the hypothalamus
  4. Information goes from the hypothalamus to the anterior thalamus
  5. Information goes from the anterior thalamus back to the cingulate cortex
68
Q

Label A&B [2]

A

A: septal nucleus
B: nucleus accumbens

69
Q

State the role of the nucleus accumbens [1]

A

The accumbens (ventral striatum) is involved in the initiation and termination of behaviours (motor actions) that activate reward pathways

For example, the act of chewing and swallowing are rewarding as they immediately precede food entering the stomach (which releases peptides that act to trigger reward pathways in the brain.

70
Q

The cingulate gyrus recieves input from which tract? [1]

Anterior spinothalamic
Lateral spinothalamic
Reticulospinal
Rubrospinal

A

The cingulate gyrus recieves input from which tract? [1]

Anterior spinothalamic
Lateral spinothalamic
Reticulospinal
Rubrospinal

BB2 (65 decks)

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