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AJX: AW > B787 TYPE RATING ORAL > Flashcards

B787 TYPE RATING ORAL Flashcards

1
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE ABOUT SYSTEMS BETWEEN 787 AND 767?
A
  1. Electrical - 6 variable frequency starter generators (2 per engine and APU)
  2. PECS - liquid cooling system.
  3. Hydraulics - 5000psi (smaller lines), fewer items (flaps/slats, steering, gear, spoilers, thrust reversers).
  4. Air system - uses 4 CAC’s, no bleed air for air conditioning / pressurization. CAC’s driven electrically.
  5. Engine Bleed Air - only used for engine inlet and core anti-icing and SAS.
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2
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE MERIT AND DEMERIT OF ECL?
A
  1. Prioritizes checklist.
  2. Efficient to implement.
  3. Workload management.
  4. Closed loop items monitored by aircraft.
  5. Better situational awareness, therefore reduced errors.
  6. DEMERIT - Hidden checklists. (AOM 10.60.11)
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3
Q
  1. WHAT IF YOU FORGET TO DO CHECKLIST? (AOM 10.60)
A
  1. EICAS message - CHKL INCOMPLETE NORMAL, CHKL NON-NORMAL
  2. Normal, organized to 4 phases of flight: BEFORE TAXI (brakes released and thrust lever advanced), BEFORE TAKE OFF (aligned on runway (30 degrees/120’ from centerline)), APPROACH (descend below FMC transition alt and start extending flaps), LANDING (descending through 500’)
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4
Q
  1. WHAT FUEL IS PROHIBITED USE?
A

JET B, JP-4

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5
Q
  1. WHAT ITEMS DO YOU CHECK ON STATUS PAGE IN PRELIMINARY PREFLIGHT PROCEDURE? (AOM NP.31.1)
A
  1. Oxygen 860/1250 o Hydraulic - no RF
  2. Verify expected messages shown
  3. Oil quantity 16 minimum
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6
Q
  1. PLEASE TELL ME PERFORMANCE CHARACTERISTICS. (AOR PR.3.1)
A
  1. Take off:
     dry/wet defined by AFM. Accelerate to V1, 2 second delay. Dry with no reverse, wet with practical reverse.
     Slippery defined by ANA. Accelerate stop distance with 2 second delay, use practical reverse.
  2. Landing:
     Dry/wet AFM with speedbrake and no reverse.
     Slippery ANA, Vref+15 at 50 feet, 2000’ touchdown, 3 second transition while decelerating 2 knot/sec, stop with reverse, full reverse for most slippery section, idle for average slippery condition of runway.
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7
Q
  1. WINDSHEAR ESCAPE MANEUVER AFTER TAKE OFF? (QRH MAN.1.14)
A 
1. Manual flight:  
	 disengage AP 
	 push TO/GA 
	 apply max thrust 
	 disconnect auto throttle 
	 wings level pitch 15 degrees 
	 speedbrake down 
	 follow FD guidance 
2. Auto flight: 
	 push TO/GA 
	 verify FMA status 
	 verify GA thrust 
	 speedbrake down 
	 monitor system performance
  1. BOTH:
     do not change flap/gear configuration until windshear no longer a factor
     monitor vertical speed and altitude
     do not attempt to regain lost speed until windshear no factor
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8
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE TPR? (AOR 7.2.1)
A
  1. Turbofan Power Ratio. The ratio between the low pressure at the inlet and high pressure at the high-pressure compressor output. Highly accurate thrust indication.
  2. Also a great measure for wear and tear monitoring
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9
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE CHARACTERISTIC OF THE B787 ENGINE?
A
  1. RR Trent 1000 engine.
  2. Three shaft design (N1, N2, N3) prevents compressor stall and reduces over all engine length. Increase compressor efficiency leads to reduced fuel consumption with lower idle thrust.
  3. 1000K - 74,400lbs thrust, 1000C - 70,100lbs thrust.
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10
Q
  1. WHAT DO YOU DO WHEN WINDSHEAR IS EXPECTED? (AOM 6.16.17)
A
  1. Postpone takeoff or landing if severe windshear is evident
  2. Takeoff
     Less than maximum thrust not recommended (unless required by performance)
     Use most extended flaps
     Use longest runway
     Use FD after takeoff
     Consider increasing Vr to performance limited weight Vr, maximum of 20 knot increase
     If encountered carry out escape maneuver. Do not exceed PLI. Avoid using Stab Trim
  3. Landing
     Use most suitable, into wind runway
     Land with shallow flaps
     Stabilize approach as early as possible
     Use ILS g/s etc. to detect deviations
     Avoid large thrust reductions/trim changes
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11
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE OF ELECTRICAL SYSTEM BETWEEN B787 AND B767?
A
  1. 4 engine VFSG, 2 APU VFSG – 235VAC
  2. PECS – Power Electronics Cooling System for large motor power distribution system
  3. 3 PMG (permanent magnet generators)
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12
Q
  1. WHAT IS PECS? ICS? (AOM 9.20)
A
  1. PECS - power electronics cooling system is a liquid cooling system (60% alcohol, 40% water) for the large motor power distribution system (LMPS) located in the aft E/E bay. Also provides cooling for the supplemental cooling units and associated motor controllers of the ICS.
  2. ICS - integrate cooling system is a centralized refrigeration system that provides cooling to galley carts and assists with cooling the recirculated cabin air. ICS is integrated with the air conditioning system and the liquid cooling system.
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13
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE MERIT AND DEMERIT OF FLY BY WIRE? (AOM 9.20)
A
  1. Reduced weight (no cables), enhanced handling qualities and reduced pilot workload. Built in protections, highly redundant.
  2. No autopilot if not in NORMAL mode. Highly complex, receives input from multiple sources.
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14
Q
  1. WHAT PROTECTIONS DOES B787 HAVE? (AOM 9.20)
A
  1. Flight envelope protection (overspeed, bank, stall), tail strike protection, landing attitude modification.
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15
Q
  1. WHAT IF ALL ACE GO INOPERATIVE? (AOM 6.20.6, AOM 9.20.2)
A
  1. If there is a complete loss of signaling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and a spoiler pair allow pilot control of pitch using the alternate pitch trim system and roll using the control wheel.
  2. Actuator Control Electronics - 4 redundant systems, failure is very unlikely. 4 FCE cabinets (which house 4 ACE’s) are driven by three independent PMG’s and aircraft system power. The airplanes 28VDC and the main battery provide a secondary source for flight control power. In addition, a backup system is provided by dedicated batteries to assure positive flight control operation during temporary power interruptions.
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16
Q
  1. WHAT NEEDS HYDRAULIC SYSTEM? (AOM 13.20)
A
  1. Nose gear steering
  2. Flaps/Slats
  3. Landing gear
  4. Flight Controls
  5. Thrust Reversers
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17
Q
  1. TELL ME ABOUT IAN? CAN YOU AUTOLAND? (AOR 4.1.1)
A
  1. Integrated Approach Navigation is a system that implements approaches other than ILS approach by using a procedure like that of an ILS. Course (FAC) and Path (G/P) are based on the MAP and FAF information which is registered in the Nav database.
  2. Can use RNAV, LOC, LOC-BC, LDA, VOR, ADF.
  3. Dual engine or engine inoperative approaches are authorized.
  4. Recommended for straight-in approaches only.
  5. Cannot use RNAV(RNP) AR.
  6. Cannot Autoland.
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18
Q
  1. TELL ME ALL CONFIRMED ACTION? (QRH CI.2.12)
A
  1. Engine fire switch
  2. APU fire switch
  3. Generator Drive Disconnect switch
  4. Fuel Control Switch
  5. Thrust Lever
    6, Cargo Fire Arm Switch
  6. Autothrottle Arm Switch
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19
Q
  1. DIMENSIONS? (AOM 1.10.1)
A
  1. Wingspan: 60.1m.
  2. Length: -8 56.7m, -9 62.8m, -10 68.3m.
  3. Height: -8 16.9m, -9 and -10 17m.
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20
Q
  1. MINIMUM REQUIRED WIDTH FOR 180 DEGREE TURN? (AOR PT.1.2)
A
  1. 47.3m (-8), 52.6m (-9), 58.1m (-10) for normal 180-degree turn
  2. 42.4, 47.2 and 52.7m for minimum (AOR PT.1.9)
  3. 34.6, 37.7 and 40.7m for emergency pivot turn (AOR PT.1.12)
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21
Q
  1. POSSIBLE ON 45M RUNWAY?
A
  1. Yes, in emergency.
     -8 minimum turn
     -9/-10 emergency pivot turn
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22
Q
  1. HOW TO DO IT (MIN RADIUS TURN) ON 45M RUNWAY?
A
  1. Apply brakes to stop
  2. Turn tiller to maximum angle
  3. Release brakes
  4. Turn at 5-10 knots
  5. Apply engine thrust on outside engine
  6. After nose gear passes through maximum possible width position, smoothly return tiller to neutral and align aircraft with runway.
  7. If needing Pivot turn - lock inside brake (runway and tire inspection required…)
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23
Q
  1. WHAT ITEMS ARE IN ORIGINATING FLIGHT? (AOM NP.21.1)
A
  1. Flight Deck Access System test
  2. Evacuation signal / Interphone test
  3. Oxygen mask
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24
Q
  1. WHAT IS OPTIMUM V1? (AOR PR.1.2)
A
  1. Optimum V1 is used to increase obstacle clearance (obstacle limit weight) by increasing (unbalancing) V1, which reduces EOTD by reaching Vr earlier, but the ASD is increased.
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25
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE MAJOR POINT OF OPT V1?
A

Unbalancing V1 to increase obstacle clearance/limit weight.

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26
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE THREAT IN OPT V1 OPERATION?
A

Increases accelerate stop distance.

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27
Q
  1. WHAT IS UNBALANCED V1?
A

Where EOTD no longer equals ASD. ASD is greater.

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28
Q
  1. ARE THERE ANY CASES OF BALANCED V1?
A

Yes, if limited by field limit (runway length)

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29
Q
  1. WHAT IS IMPROVED CLIMB? (AOR PR.1.4)
A

Increases second segment climb capability by increasing takeoff speeds when surplus runway is available. Not effective if obstacles are present close to the runway.

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30
Q
  1. WHAT ARE DOCUMENTS TO BE CARRIED IN AIRPLANE? (OM S-2-2)
A 
1. Paper documents: (8) 
	 Registration certificate 
	 Airworthiness certificate 
	 Designation for operating limitations 
	 Radio station license 
	 Emergency documents 
	 QRH 
	 Journey & Radio Log, MEL/CDL Log 
	 Enroute Charts 
2. Electronic documents: (5) 
	 AOM 
	 Operations Policy Manual Vol 2 
	 MEL/CDL manual 
	 Operations Manual 
	 Route Manual
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31
Q
  1. IN WHAT CASE DOES IT (IMPROVED CLIMB?) HAVE ADVANTAGE?
A

Useful when takeoff weight is limited by obstacle limit. Also improves climb limit at high temperature/elevation/weight.

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32
Q
  1. HOW MANY EMERGENCY EQUIPMENTS ARE THERE IN THE COCKPIT? (QRH EQUIP)
A 
8 (7 on -8) 
	 Fire Extinguisher 
	 Fire Resistant Gloves 
	 Signal Kit 
	 Flashlights 
	 Crash Axe 
	 Smoke Hood 
	 Life Vests 
	 Megaphone (not on -8)
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33
Q
  1. SAY ALL PRELIMINARY PREFLIGHT PROCEDURES? (AOM NP.31.1)
A
  1. Flight Deck Access System test o Evacuation signal and Interphone test
  2. Log & Documents aboard o Emergency equipment
  3. Gear pins (5 stowed)
  4. Headsets (4 minimum)
  5. Flight Deck Overhead Door
  6. Emergency Descent Devices
  7. IRS Selectors - off for 30 seconds then on (ON BAT extinguished)
  8. Status Display
     Oxygen
     Hydraulic Quantity
     Oil Quantity
     Unexpected Messages
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34
Q
  1. TAKEOFF THRUST AND FLAP SELECTION? (INFO 153)
A

Optimum thrust and flap are calculated with OPT for B787. OPTIMUM FLAPS will calculate the flaps which provide the highest selectable assumed temperature. In case ATM cannot be used, it calculates the flaps which provide the largest allowable takeoff weight.

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35
Q
  1. ASSUMED TEMPERATURE = 1 DEGREE C MARGIN? (AOR PR.10.3)
A

1C = 3,000lbs = 100 feet

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36
Q
  1. IN WHAT CASE IS THE USE OF REDUCED TAKEOFF THRUST NOT AVAILABLE? (AOR PR.10.12)
A

Contaminated runways or MEL/CDL that affects takeoff performance

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37
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE COMPANY OPERATIONAL REQUIREMENTS FOR REDUCED TAKEOFF THRUST? (AOR PR.10.2)
A
  1. Thrust reduction must not exceed 25% of each rated takeoff thrust (OPT automatically limits)
  2. Assumed temperature higher than OAT
  3. Actual takeoff weight is within takeoff limit weight at assumed temp
  4. Runway conditions dry/damp/wet
  5. MEL/CDL which affects takeoff performance is not applied.
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38
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DEFAULT FOR ATM?
A

MAX

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39
Q
  1. WHY DO YOU INPUT ASSUMED TEMP -5 ON EFB?
A

More margin to allow for lineup alignment and rolling takeoff. 5C = 500 feet

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40
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE MERIT OF ALT CofG? (AOR PR.13.1)
A

Improves takeoff performance by moving forward limit of CofG aft. By moving from the most limiting position (fwd) to aft decreases takeoff speeds, especially Vr and V2 therefore improving takeoff performance.

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41
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE APPLICABLE FLIGHTS (REGARDING THE MERITS OF AN AFT CG in Q.40)? (AOR PR.13.3)
A
  1. B787-8-1000C/CE/L, B787-9 -1000D/K, B787-10-1000K
  2. Long range international flights departing Haneda, Dusseldorf, Mexico City and other flights as needed. (European and North American routes.
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42
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE ALTERNATE PROCEDURE IN CASE OF EFB INOPERATIVE?
A
  1. Use the other available EFB
  2. Refer to regulations on board (including those carried by the crew)
  3. Contact the situation to the ground and seek support (maintenance, MEL?)
  4. Can attempt restart 1. OPEN SYSTEM PAGE, 2. ACKNOWLEDGE NEW FAULTS, 3. RESTART. (takes about 4 minutes)
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43
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE SELECTION OF RTL ITEMS ON OPT? (INFO 92H)
A

F5 / A/I ON or OFF, F20 / A/I ON or OFF

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44
Q
  1. EXPLAIN ABOUT ENGINE START SYSTEMS? (AOM 7.20.11)
A

APU or external power provides power for 2 starter motors per engine which are mechanically connected to the N2 shaft via the accessory gearbox. Minimum external power is 2 FWD, AFT can be used to reduce load shedding and for right engine start only. Dual engine starts only available with APU power.

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45
Q
  1. CAN YOU DO A MANUAL START? (AOM 7.20.11)
A

No, the engines can only be started using the AutoStart system.

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46
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE AUTO START FUNCTION? (AOM 7.20.12)
A

AutoStart allows EEC to control fuel and ignition. Initiated by moving the start selector to start and fuel control switch to run. EEC monitors EGT, N2, N3 and other engine parameters until the engine reaches idle speed.

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47
Q
  1. WHAT CASE IS NO 2ND START ATTEMPT? (AOM 7.20.12)
A

No N1 rotation o Failure of both starters (no N2)

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48
Q
  1. WHAT KIND OF ENGINE START MALFUNCTIONS ARE THERE IN B787? o No N1 o No ignition o Hot start o Hung start o Compressor stall o Loss of one starter o Loss of both starters o Starter time exceeds start duty cycle
A
  1. No N1
  2. No ignition
  3. Hot start
  4. Hung start
  5. Compressor stall
  6. Loss of one starter
  7. Loss of both starters
  8. Starter time exceeds start duty cycle
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49
Q
  1. WHAT MESSAGE (ENGINE START MALFUNCTIONS) APPEARS? (AOM7.40.3)
A
  1. ENG AUTOSTART (L, R)
  2. ENG START CUTOUT (L, R)
  3. ENG STARTERS (L, R)
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50
Q
  1. HOW TO DEAL WITH (ENGINE START MALFUNCTION (Q.49) IT? (QRH)
A
  1. ENG AUTOSTART (or ABORTED ENGINE START (UNANNUNCIATED))
     FUEL CONTROL SWITCH - CUTOFF
     CHECKLIST
  2. OTHERS - checklist, no memory items.
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51
Q
  1. WHAT KIND OF IDLE THRUSTS IN B787? (AOM 7.20.10)
A
  1. Minimum Idle
     Lower than approach idle, selected for ground operation and most phases of flight.
  2. Approach Idle
     flaps 25 or greater, or landing gear is selected down, maintained until after touchdown. Reduces engine response time for a go-around.
  3. Icing Idle
     engine anti-ice on
  4. Ice Crystal Icing Idle
     OAT between ISA and ISA +29C and altitude between 35,000’ and 5,000’
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52
Q
  1. WHAT ARE UNIQUE LIMITATIONS OF B787?
A
  1. Take off thrust limit 10 minutes with engine out.

2. Rolling takeoff requirement when CofG in shaded aft area of envelope

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53
Q
  1. IN CASE OF ECL INOP, WHAT DO YOU DO? (MEL 2-31-17)
A
  1. Apply MEL (31-61-11)

2. Use paper checklists (rectangular icon that precedes some checklist items may not be displayed)

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54
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE FRONT COVER OF QRH? THE BACK COVER?
A
  1. Front cover is QUICK ACTION INDEX

2. Back cover is EVACUATION CHECKLIST

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55
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE QUICK ACTION INDEX?
A

Items that require quick action or memory items

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56
Q
  1. WHICH DO YOU USE FOR EVACUATION, ECL OR PAPER CHECKLIST?
A

Paper checklist

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57
Q
  1. HOW MANY UNNANUNCIATED CHECKLISTS ARE THERE AND WHAT ARE THEY ALL…
A 
24 Total 
	 ABORTED ENGINE START 
	 ALTIMETER ERROR 
	 CABIN TEMP COLD 
	 CABIN TEMP HOT 
	 DITCHING 
	 DUAL ENG FAIL/STALL 
	 ENG IN-FLIGHT START 
	 ENG SVR DAMAGE / SEPARATION 
	 EVACUATION 
	 FIRE ENGINE TAILPIPE 
	 FUEL JETTISON 
	 FUEL LEAK 
	 GEAR LEVER LOCKED DOWN 
	 ICE CRYSTAL ICING 
	 ISFD USE 
	 JAMMED FLIGHT CONTROLS 
	 LOSS OF ALL DISPLAYS 
	 OVERWEIGHT LANDING 
	 SMOKE OR FUMES REMOVAL 
	 SMOKE, FIRE OR FUMES 
	 TAIL STRIKE 
	 VOLCANIC ASH 
	 WINDOW DAMAGE FWD 
	 WINDOW DAMAGE SIDE
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58
Q
  1. MEMORY ITEMS?
A 
11 Total 
	 FD DOOR AUTOUNLOCK 
	 CABIN ALTITUDE 
	 ABORTED ENGINE START 
	 DUAL ENGINE FAIL/STALL 
	 ENG AUTOSTART 
	 ENG LIMIT EXCEED 
	 ENG SURGE 
	 ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEPARATION 
	 FIRE ENG 
	 STABILIZER 
	 AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE
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59
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE UNNANUNCIATED CHECKLISTS FOR ENGINES, APU?
A 
5 Total 
	 ABORTED ENGINE START 
	 DUAL ENGINE FAIL/STALL 
	 ENG IN-FLIGHT START 
	 ENG SVR DAMAGE/SEP 
	 FIRE ENG TAILPIPE
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60
Q
  1. HOW TO ACCESS THE UNANUNNCIATED CHECKLISTS ON ECL? (AOM 10.60.12)
A

Checklist - Select unannunciated checklist tab - select checklist

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61
Q
  1. EXPLAIN THE OUTLINES ABOUT BRAKE SYSTEM? (AOM 14.20.4)
A
  1. Each main gear has a multiple disc carbon brake.
  2. Brake system includes:
     anti-skid protection (includes touchdown and hydroplaning protection using inertial groundspeed. Locked wheel protection is provided using a comparison with other wheel speeds)
     autobrake system
     electric brake system
     parking brake o Powered by 4 electric brake power supply units
  3. Each brake assembly has 4 EBA’s (Electric Brake Actuators). The EBA’s are controlled by 4 EBAC’s (Electronic Brake Actuator Controller).
  4. Each EBAC controls a fore-aft wheel pair.
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62
Q
  1. WHAT DOES THE RTO AUTOBRAKE FUNCTION OPERATE? (AOM 14.20.5) o Airplane on the ground o groundspeed above 85 knots o both thrust levers retarded to idle
A
  1. Airplane on the ground
  2. groundspeed above 85 knots
  3. both thrust levers retarded to idle
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63
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE TAP? THE TAMS?
A
  1. TAP - Thrust Asymmetry Protection (AOM 7.20.9)
     Automatic feature that provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine.
     Enhances safety by:
     allowing a decrease in approach speed at lighter weights
     providing engine-out control capability for speeds above stick shaker
     allowing full rated thrust to be available for all-engine operation at all weights and airspeeds
     Reduces thrust on the operating engine to ensure there is sufficient rudder for directional control when airspeed decreases below approximately V2 on a takeoff or below Vref on a go-around.
     Only available when the flight controls are operating in normal mode and the EEC is in normal or alternate modes.
  2. TAMS - Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed (AOM 15.20.14)
     Displayed on the speed tape to provide pilots with situational awareness of the minimum control speed for operation with a large thrust asymmetry.
     TAMS varies with weight and CG but will always be at least 10 knots above the minimum control speed during takeoff or goaround.
     When airspeed decreases to TAMS, the AIRSPEED, AIRSPEED aural sounds and the Master WARNING light illuminates.
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64
Q
  1. DOES CLIMB PERFORMANCE GO DOWN BY TAP OPERATING? (AOM 7.20.9)
A

No. For airspeed where TAP does limit thrust, climb gradient is higher with TAP limiting thrust than it would be it TAP did not limit thrust. This occurs because additional thrust asymmetry creates more airplane drag than the thrust that was added.

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65
Q
  1. TURBULENCE PENETRATION SPEED? (AOM SP.16.20, AOR AW.10.1)
A
  1. 290 Knots below FL250.

2. 310 knots or Mach .84 at or above FL250.

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66
Q
  1. IF YOU WANT TO REDUCE AIRSPEED DUE TO TURBULENCE, HOW MUCH COULD WE REDUCE AIRSPEED? (AOM SP.16.20)
A
  1. Normally reduce to turbulence penetration speed only. Provides best margin between high and low speed buffet.
  2. Minimum if the airspeed is below Mach .84, fly at minimum maneuvering speed +15 knots or greater at any altitude.
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67
Q
  1. WHEN THE FMC IS INOPERATIVE, WHAT SPEED SHOULD BE USED? (AOM PP.30.6)
A
  1. Climb: 250/310/.84
  2. Cruise: 310/.84
  3. Descent: .83/290/250
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68
Q
  1. IS THE USAGE OF COST INDEX ONLY 80? (AOR PR.14-1.1, AOM pp.20.12)
A

NO
 80 - Domestic
 40 - International
 20 - Cargo

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69
Q
  1. IN CASE OF COST INDEX 40 SET, DO YOU CHANGE ANY SPEEDS? (AOR PR.14-1.6)
A
  1. If descent speed calculated by FMS based on changed CI at cruise is slower than .83/290/250, change to intended speed no later than 10Nm before TOD.
  2. If Descent speed calculated by FMS based on changed CI at cruise is faster than .83/290/250, change to intended speed no later than 50Nm before TOD
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70
Q
  1. CAN YOU CHANGE THE FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM TO THE SECONDARY MODE BY YOURSELF?
A

NO

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71
Q
  1. COMPONENTS OF THE FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM? (AOM 9.20.1)
A
  1. alternate flap switches
  2. alternate pitch trim switches
  3. Control wheel pitch trim switches
  4. Rudder trim selector
  5. stabilizer cutout switches
  6. flap lever
  7. Speedbrake lever
  8. two control columns two control wheels
  9. to pairs of rudder pedals
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72
Q
  1. THE WAY OF SIGNAL FROM THE CONTROL COLUMN TO FLIGHT CONTROL SURFACES? (AOM 9.20.6, 9.20.9, 9.20.10)
A
  1. In the NORMAL mode, four ACE’s receive pilot control inputs and send these signals to three PFC’s (Primary Flight Computers) which verify the signals and information from other airplane systems to compute enhanced control surface commands, these commands are then sent back to the ACE’s then to the flight control surface actuators.
  2. In SECONDARY mode, the ACE’s continue to receive simplified computations from the PFC to generate flight control surface commands. Autopilot not available (and other functions).
  3. In DIRECT mode (failure of all three PFC’s). Inputs received by the ACE’s are sent directly to the control surface actuators.
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73
Q
  1. EXPLAIN THE CHARACTERISTICS OF THE FLIGHT CONTROL? (AOM 9.20.1)
A
  1. The primary flight control system uses conventional control wheel, column and pedal inputs from the pilot to electronically command the flight control surfaces. Provides conventional control feel and pitch responses to speed and trim changes. The electronic components provide enhanced handling qualities and reduce pilot workload.
  2. Highly redundant, with three operating modes: normal, secondary and direct.
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74
Q
  1. WHAT EICAS MESSAGE CAN SHOW IN THE SECONDARY MODE OR THE DIRECT MODE? (AOM 9.20.9, 9.20.10)
A
  1. FLIGHT CONTROL MODE (secondary)

2. PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS (direct)

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75
Q
  1. WHEN DO YOU USE THE PFC DISCONNECT SWITCH?
A

When directed by the non-normal checklist

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76
Q
  1. WHAT SOURCE MOVES THE FLIGHT CONTROL SURFACES? (AOM 9.20.2)
A
  1. Hydraulic system normally
  2. Stabilizer electrically
  3. When all hydraulics lost, 2 spoiler pairs (4, 5 – 10, 11) are electrically operated and electrically actuated stabilizer using primary pitch trim switches.
  4. If there is a complete loss of signalling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and a spoiler pair allow control of pitch using alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.
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77
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCES OF STABILIZER SYSTEM BETWEEN ON THE GROUND AND IN THE AIR? (AOM 9.20.11)
A
  1. GROUND - stabilizer is directly positioned with the pitch trim switches.
  2. AIR - trims switches do not position stabilizer directly but make inputs to PFC to change trim reference speed.
78
Q
  1. TRM REF SPD CHANGED BY THE PILOT? (FCTM 7-2-31-(2))
A
  1. Speed change rate - 10kt/sec
  2. 5kt synchronize feature - One click of trim switch synchronizes the trim reference speed with the current speed when the trim reference speed is within 5kts of the current speed.
79
Q
  1. EXPLAIN ABOUT LAM? (AOM 9.20.23) o LAM - Landing Attitude Modifier o Automatic function used to increase pitch attitude and increase nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds o Increases pitch by partially raising selected lateral control surfaces (flaperons and spoilers)
A
  1. LAM - Landing Attitude Modifier
  2. Automatic function used to increase pitch attitude and increase nose gear height when landing flaps are selected at higher speeds o Increases pitch by partially raising selected lateral control surfaces (flaperons and spoilers)
80
Q
  1. HOW MANY PTT’S ARE THERE?
A 
10 
	 2- control wheel 
	 2 - glareshield 
	 3 - hand mic 
	 3 - ACP
81
Q
  1. WHAT SYSTEM USE PNEUMATIC? (AOM 2.40.1, 7.20.7)
A
  1. Engine Inlet and Core anti-icing
  2. Secondary Air System - provide cooling and sealing airflow to the intermediate pressure turbine. SASV (secondary air system valve) regulates IP 8th stage and HP 3rd stage bleed air. Monitored by EEC.
82
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE UNIQUE FAIL CONSIDERATIONS (FLIGHT CONTROLS)? (AOM 9.20.2)
A
  1. In the unlikely event of the loss of all hydraulic power, the electrically actuated stabilizer and two spoiler pairs allow pilot control of pitch and roll using the primary pitch trim switches, alternate pitch trim switches, and the control wheel
  2. If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, direct wiring from the flight deck to the stabilizer and a spoiler pair allow pilot control of pitch using the alternate pitch trim switches and roll using the control wheel.
83
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE UNIQUE INDICATIONS ON HUD BUT NOT ON PFD? (AOM 10/12.21)
A
  1. TOGA reference line (appears at 65 knots)
  2. HUD takeoff deviations
  3. FPV with guidance cue
  4. Speed error tape and flight path acceleration symbol
  5. Slip/skid indicator
  6. Windspeed, direction and digital heading
  7. Pitch scale chevrons and scale compression
  8. Unusual attitude
  9. Runway edge lines and glideslope reference line
  10. Ground acceleration scale
84
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE INDICATION ON HUD WHEN TCAS OPERATING? (AOM 15.10.20)
A
  1. Area inside lines indicate the pitch region to avoid in order to resolve the traffic conflict.
  2. A double-lined box indicates a corrective action is required – Fly-to box.
85
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE INDICATION ON HUD WHEN UNUSUAL ATTITUDE? (AOM 10.12.24)
A
  1. Unusual Attitude symbology is displayed.
  2. Zenith symbol at +90 degrees, Nadar symbol at -90 degrees
  3. Pitch scale chevrons with the tip at 20 degrees NU and ND. Pitch scale is compressed when the flight path vector symbol is parked at the limit.
86
Q
  1. IN WHAT CASE IS THE VSD NOT INDICATED? (AOM 10.10.32)
A
  1. Loss of all displays…
  2. VSD not selected on MFD MAP menu
  3. Plan mode
  4. When you are PM and, on the ground…
87
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DISPLAY RANGE OF VSD? (AOM10.40.4)
A
  1. The VSD is a function of the ND range.
  2. The range is from 10 to 2560NM (twice the MFD map selected range).
  3. No 5-mile indication, 10 mile minimum.
88
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN THE BALANCE SYSTEM AND CROSSFEED VALVE OPERATION? (AOM 12.20.4)
A
  1. Manual crossfeed requires monitoring of fuel imbalance and manipulation of fuel pumps.
  2. Crossfeed can be done in any phase of flight and allows the fuel tank to feed the engine on the apposite side.
  3. Fuel Balance System transfers fuel from one main tank to another and is automatic. System uses the defuel/jettison valve to the lower tank through its inboard refuel valve.
  4. Fuel Balance System is inhibited:
     Refueling
     Defueling
     Ground transfer of fuel (using refueling control panel)
     Prior to engine start and the APU is off
     The system is failed
     Center tank pump(s) is on
     On the ground and one or both engines running
     In flight and the fuel jettison system is active
     FUEL DISAGREE or FUEL QTY LOW message shows
89
Q
  1. ARE THERE ANY LIMITATIONS ABOUT CROSSFEED VALVE (AOM L.3.14)
A

Crossfeed valve is closed during normal operations, except for minimum fuel operation

90
Q
  1. WHEN DO YOU USE THE CROSSFEED VALVE? (AOM 12.20.4)
A

Fuel balance system fails or is inhibited

91
Q
  1. CAN YOU USE THE BALANCE SYSTEM ANY TIME? (AOM 12.20.3) o No o Fuel Balance System is inhibited:  Refueling  Defueling  Ground transfer of fuel (using refueling control panel)  Prior to engine start and the APU is off  The system is failed  Center tank pump(s) is on  On the ground and one or both engines running  In flight and the fuel jettison system is active  FUEL DISAGREE or FUEL QTY LOW message shows
A
  1. No
  2. Fuel Balance System is inhibited:
     Refueling
     Defueling
     Ground transfer of fuel (using refueling control panel)
     Prior to engine start and the APU is off
     The system is failed
     Center tank pump(s) is on
     On the ground and one or both engines running
     In flight and the fuel jettison system is active
     FUEL DISAGREE or FUEL QTY LOW message shows
92
Q
  1. WHERE IS THE FUELING PROCEDURE ON MANUAL?
A

AOR 12.2.1 (FUEL)

93
Q
  1. WHEN SHOULD EMERGENCY LANDING BE CONSIDERED? (QRH CI.2.3)
A

Emergency landing at the nearest suitable airport should be considered by the PIC when:
 the non-normal checklist contains the phrase “plan to land at the nearest suitable airport”.
 smoke/fumes or fire started in the cabin or crew rest compartment and its elimination is unable to be confirmed.
 there exists only 2 AC power sources remaining = 2 main engine generators only or 1 main engine generator and both APU generator.
 Altimeter malfunction occurs and the correct altitude cannot be confirmed.
 Any other situation where significant adverse effects on safety may be possible if flight is continued.

94
Q
  1. WHAT SYSTEMS OPERATE BY ELECTRICAL POWER, PREVIOUSLY BY HYDRAULIC POWER?
A

Brakes and stabilizer

95
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE LIMITATION FOR ALTIMETER DIFFERENCE? (OM S-4-15, AOM L.3.11)
A

On ground, 75 feet from field elevation

96
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE EFFECTIVE RANGE OF IAN? (AOM 4.1.1, MAKER FCTM 5.45)
A
  1. Lateral radius of 25NM from the MAP; 60 degrees on each side from the center line of the FAC.
  2. Vertical; from the runway to 6,000 feet
97
Q
  1. WHEN SHOULD THE APP SWITCH BE PUSHED? (AOR 4.1.1, MAKER FCTM 5.47)
A
  1. When on an intercept heading and cleared for the approach.
  2. APP mode should not be armed until:
     the guidance to be used for the final approach is tuned and identified as needed
     the airplane is on an inbound intercept heading
     both lateral and vertical deviation pointers appear on the attitude display in the proper position
     clearance for the approach has been received
98
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DEVIATION CALLS FOR IAN? (AOM NP.11.11)
A
  1. “glidepath”

2. “course”

99
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN USING VNAV AND IAN?
A
  1. IAN Approach:
     IAN - APP arms FAC and GP, in the same general way as an ILS is flown. Uses FMC computed glidepath for vertical navigation
     VNAV uses coded waypoints for navigation from the database (speed alt constraints etc.).
100
Q
  1. HOW TO TURN OFF THE G/P MODE BELOW 1,500 FEET? (AOR 4.1.2)
A

Set the autopilot OFF and both FD OFF

101
Q
  1. WHEN CONTINUING TO USE IAN BELOW DA, WHAT TAKE PLACE? (AOR 4.1.4, MAKER FCTM 5.48)
A
  1. NO AUTOLAND status annunciation on PFD and the HUD at 100 feet RA
  2. The FAC and G/P mode in the PFD will display amber fail indications (amber bar) at 50 feet RA
102
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE CAUTIONS WHEN CONDUCTING ILS DA LANDING? (AOM 4.20.22)
A
  1. Below 350 feet RA, the inboard spoilers are biased up incrementally. If the autopilot is subsequently disengaged, the spoiler bias is removed, and a slight forward column control force may be required to maintain trim.
  2. Runway alignment starts at 500 feet / 200 feet by establishing a sideslip of 5 degrees to reduce crab angle.
103
Q
  1. WHAT’S THE LIMITATIONS FOR IRS? (AOM 11.20.4, NP.21.1)
A
  1. If the IRS’s are switched off, they must complete a full realignment cycle before the airplane can be moved.
  2. For international flights, full alignment of IRU shall be performed. However, if the alignment time from the last full alignment to the estimated time of arrival at the destination does not exceed 18 hours, the full alignment does not need to be performed.
104
Q
  1. EXPLAIN ABOUT OUTLINE OF THE BATTERY SYSTEM? (AOM 6.20.4, INFO 67A)
A
  1. The airplane has one main and one APU battery, bot identical. The APU battery functions automatically and has no flight deck power switch. Operating indications for the main and APU batteries are provided on the electrical synoptic.
  2. Main battery is in forward E/E and APU is in aft E/E
  3. The main battery provides power for:
     airplane power-up
     APU start (assist APU battery)
     refueling operations
     electric braking power backup
     captain’s flight instruments (after a power failure, energizes essential instruments until RAT deployment)
  4. The APU battery provides power on the ground for:
     APU start
     Navigation lights when Towing Power mode is active
105
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE CHANGES AFTER BATTERY ACCIDENT? (INFO 67A)
A
  1. New batteries:
     eliminate possibility of short circuits and overheating
     improved thermal insulation between cells
     improved heat resistance
     elimination of the possibility of damage attributed to moisture
     improve manufacturing process and quality
  2. Battery also placed in enclosure made from stainless steel and titanium which is connected to a vent tube via a pressure burst disk.
  3. Batteries are physically isolated from the surrounding equipment and cabin air system.
106
Q
  1. HOW DO YOU JUDGE THE MAIN BATTERY HAS FAILED? (QRH ELECTRICAL, info 67A)
A
  1. Multiple EICAS status messages may be triggered; may be related to the battery or may indicate loss of one of the power sources for a redundant system.
  2. MAIN BATTERY: in-flight when main battery is discharging, main battery is failed. Hot battery bus is not energized. May still be able to supply power but the voltage may be decreased.
  3. APU BATTERY: indicates APU battery has failed.
107
Q
  1. WHERE IS THE BATTERY? (OM 6.20.5)
A
  1. MAIN BATTERY - Forward E/E

2. APU BATTERY - Aft E/E

108
Q
  1. IF THE MAIN BATTERY FAILS IN THE AIR, WILL IT AFFECT ANY SYSTEM? (QRH 6.12)
A

No, unless it is the only power source

109
Q
  1. ANY THREAT ON TCP PANEL? (INFO 125C)
A 
1. Uncommanded frequency change on TCP 
	 Crosscheck between two TCP's 
	 If a TCP disagree is encountered; 
	 Change all TCP's to VHF page 
	 Return radio frequency to desired 
	 Confirm proper tuning
  1. Received audio on ACP becomes all off
  2. ACP Unexpected restart
110
Q
  1. EXPLAIN ABOUT OUTLINE OF ELECTRICAL SYSTEM? (AOM 6.20.1)
A
  1. Primarily 115VAC and 28VDC with limited number of systems using 235VAC.
  2. Sources:
     4 Engine VFSG (235VAC, 250KVA and 360 to 800Hz, capable of 125%overload for 5 minutes and 175% for 5 seconds)
     2 APU VFSG
     3 External power receptacles (aft is for right engine start only)
     RAT
     Main Battery
     APU Battery
     3 Flight Control PMG’s (permanent magnet generators)
     2 Engine Electronic Control PMG’s
  3. 4 main 235VAC distribution buses (L1, L2, R1, R2); directly powers high voltage systems like wing anti-ice, main fuel pumps, spoilers, stabilizers. In addition, powers all other bus systems through power conversion devices, located in aft E/E bay.
  4. There are multiple 115VAC buses, primary buses are in the forward E/E and RPDU’s (Remote Power Distribution Unit) throughout the aircraft.
  5. Multiple 28VDC buses. Higher amperage loads are distributed directly from the buses, lower from RPDU’s.
6. Large Motor Power Distribution System: The airplane's use of variable frequency power requires large motor loads to be energized by motor controllers which condition the power for use, located in aft E/E. The main 235VAC system energizes the large motor power system through conversion devices. The PECS system dissipates heat created by these high voltage motor controllers. 
	 hydraulic pumps 
	 CAC's 
	 ram fans 
	 engine and APU start 
	 center tank fuel pumps 
	 NGS 
	 etc.
111
Q
  1. FOR WHAT IS THE AFT EXT POWER USED? (AOM 6.20.3)
A

RIGHT engine start only

112
Q
  1. WHAT SYSTEM WILL BE AFFECTED IF PECS FAIL? (QRH 2.30, 2.31)
A 
If one cooling loop fails,  
	 L(R) air conditioning pack 
	 L(R) center fuel pump 
	 C1(C2) electric hydraulic pump 
	 R(L) hydraulic demand pump
113
Q
  1. WHERE DOES THE LARGE MOTOR POWER SUPPLY ELECTRICITY? (AOM 6.20.7)
A
  1. hydraulic pumps
  2. CAC’s
  3. ram fans
  4. engine and APU start
  5. center tank fuel pumps
  6. NGS
  7. etc.
114
Q
  1. ARE THERE ANY LIMITATIONS THAT IS DIFFERENT FROM B6? CG? FUEL TEMP? MAX CROSSWIND? (AOM LIMITATIONS)
A
  1. Crosswind
     -8: 35 for takeoff / 33 for landing
     -9: 29/35
     -10: 30/26
  2. VMO/MMO
     360/.90
  3. Fuel Temperature
     Maximum 49C for takeoff, 65C inflight
     Minimum -42C, or 3 degrees above fuel freeze point, whichever is warmer.
     Minimum for dispatch-29C
115
Q
  1. ABOUT COLD WEATHER? WHAT DO YOU DO WHEN OAT IS -7C? (AOM L.3.3)
A
  1. Maximum engine capability 120 minutes.
  2. Must run up to 20TPR for at least 30 seconds within the first 60-minute interval, then takeoff must be achieved within the second 60minute interval. If the time since last ice shedding procedure exceeds 60 minutes, takeoff is not permitted.
  3. Taxi-in time must be counted towards the first 60-minute interval if the engine is not manually de-iced prior to engine starting.
  4. When OAT is at or below 3C, takeoff must be preceded by a static runup (50% N1 for 2 seconds)
116
Q
  1. WHEN EXCEED 60MIN, WHAT DO YOU DO? (AOM L.3.3)
A

Return to gate, engine must be manually de-iced.

117
Q
  1. WHAT DOES ARRIVING CREW DO? (INFO 34C)
A

Record taxi in time into Journey Log and request maintenance personnel to conduct engine inspection:
 “INFO/VM 3C, taxi-in time XX minutes”

118
Q
  1. WHAT RUNS ON ELECTRICITY? (AOM 6.20.1)
A 
In addition to normal systems: 
	 Engine start 
	 Pressurization 
	 Wing A/I 
	 Stabilizer trim ‘
	 Brakes
119
Q
  1. STABILIZER RUNS ON ELECTRICITY. ANY THREAT? (AOM 6.20.14, 9.20.11)
A

No redundancy in the event of total electrical failure. RAT does not power stabilizer trim (maintain current speed)

120
Q
  1. IF YOU FORGET TO SET HYD PUMPS ON, WHEN WILL YOU NOTICE IT?
A

When you start engines

121
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEM THAT IS DIFFERENT BETWEEN IN FLT AND ON GND? (AOM 8.20.6)
A

Cargo compartment fire extinguisher.
 Inflight - immediate discharge of 2 extinguishers, after 15 minutes, remaining 3 (4) discharge at a reduced rate.
 ground - 3 immediately, with 3rd at reduced rate.

122
Q
  1. ABOUT STALL PROTECTION? (AOM 9.20.12)
A

Stall protection system limits speed to which the airplane can be trimmed. Trim reference speed is limited by inhibiting trim in the nose up direction when the airplane slows to a speed where maneuver margin is limited. Pilot must continuously apply aft column pressure at higher than normal force to maintain airspeed below trim inhibit speed.

123
Q
  1. FLT INSTRUMENTS (ALT, SPD, ATT, HDG, POSITION). WHAT IS EACH DATA SOURCE? (AOM 10.20.17, 11.20.8)
A
  1. IRS (major components are IRU (internal position, combined with GPS for hybrid position) and AHRU (attitude and heading))
     attitude
     heading
     position (combined with GPS)
  2. ADRS (Receives data from L, C and R pitot static systems, two AOA sensors, airframe TAT probe and engine TAT sensors)
     altitude
     airspeed
124
Q
  1. NAV AIRDATA SYS? (AOM 11.20.9)
A

Loss of all voted ADRS data to displays. GPS ALT and AOA AIRSPEED will be displayed on PFD.

125
Q
  1. NAV AIRSPEED DATA? (AOM 11.20.10)
A

Loss of voted airspeed data to displays (loss of 2 or more pitot info). Only voted altitude sent to displays, AOA AIRSPEED will be displayed on PFD.

126
Q
  1. THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE AND NAV AIRSPEED DATA? (AOM 10.90.1, 11.20.9, 11.60.3)
A
  1. NAV AIRSPEED DATA
     error is detected in the airspeed data (loss of voted ADRS airspeed data), uses AOA speed
     Primary flight controls enter Secondary mode
     AFDS, autopilot, autothrottles inop
  2. AIRSPEED UNRELIABLE
     airspeed or Mach indications disagree with AOA calculated airspeed
     must select AIR DATA to ALTN (with checklist)
     Flaps extended - 10 degrees NU, 85% N1
     Flaps up - 4 degrees NU, 70% N1
127
Q
  1. CAUTIONS WHEN FLYING AROUND MAX ALT?
A
  1. Temperature variations above ISA could make buffet margin less than 1.3g. Avoid large bank angle and turbulence
  2. CofG variations
     cruise CofG is not varied, forward CofG may result in maximum altitude lower than calculated in FMS.
     FMC default is 28%
128
Q
  1. VNAV MODE CHANGES FROM TAKEOFF DESCENT? (TM 7.2.34-(1), AOM 4.20.10)
A

VNAV SPD -> VNAV ALT (constraints/level offs) -> VNAV PATH -> VNAV PATH/VNAV SPEED (if speed intervention used)

129
Q
  1. PLEASE EXPLAIN ANYTHING YOU KNOW ABOUT HUD? (AOM 10.22.1)
A
  1. 2 HUD’s operate independently from each other
  2. HUD and PFD receive flight data from the same sources, indications match, but symbology may be different
  3. 2 display modes - Full & Decluttered
  4. Unusual Attitude symbology when pitch is -20 or +35 degrees, roll exceeds 55 degrees
  5. HUD takeoff in low visibility (uses the ILS/GLS localizer)
130
Q
  1. WHAT DOES FLIGHT PATH VECTOR INDICATE? (AOM 10.22.5, 10.10.36)
A
  1. HUD
     the actual flight path of the airplane derived from inertial sources and provides an indication of where the airplane is going.
  2. VSD
     current flight path angle as a function of vertical speed and ground speed. Length of vector is 1/2 of the VSD range.
131
Q
  1. WHAT POINT WOULD PAY ATTENTION WHILE USING ECL?
A
  1. overriding items
  2. resetting checklist in the air (removes notes and deferred items)
  3. hidden checklists
132
Q
  1. DURING OPERATION, WHAT POINT WOULD YOU PAY ATTENTION USING ECL FROM A VIEWPOINT OF CRM?
A

Maintain fly first rule - PM completes checklist, while PF’s primary function is aircraft control while monitoring checklist completion.

133
Q
  1. PLEASE EXPLAIN THE OVERVIEW OF B787 ENGINE START WITH APU USED?.
A
  1. The two APU VFSG’s power the main 235VAC bus which in turn power the LMPS (Large Motor Power System) and EEC. The LMPS powers the engine starters and EEC monitors and controls the start.
  2. Dual engine start permitted
134
Q
  1. YOU HAVE ABORTED ENGINE START CHECKLIST IN UNANNUNCIATED CHECKLIST, WHAT KIND OF SITUATION WOULD YOU USE THIS CHECKLIST?
A

Action directed by ground crew or obvious need.

135
Q
  1. COMPARED TO B767, WHAT SYSTEM ASSISTS PILOTS IN CASE OF ENGINE FAILURE AFTER V1? (AOM 7.20.9, 9.20.19)
A
  1. TAP, TAMS

2. Rudder Asymmetry Compensation

136
Q
  1. IN ORDER TO SEE CROSS SECTION, WHAT MODE DO YOU NEED IN FMA? CAN YOU USE IT IN HDG SEL MODE? (AOM 10.10.33)
A
  1. In flight, any path-based mode such as LNAV, LOC/FAC, HDG and TRACK
  2. On the ground, active flight plan, departure selected and LNAV is armed
137
Q
  1. IN B787, WHAT KINDS OF SYSTEMS ARE THERE TO LET CREW KNOW ABOUT WINDSHEAR? (AOM 15.20.43)
A
  1. Predictive and Reactive o GPWS Mode 7, active below 1500’ RA o REACTIVE
     Caution - “WINDSHEAR” appears on PFD and HUD with Master Caution (verify condition / maneuver as required)
     Warning - “WINDSHEAR” aural 3 times with Master Warning and “WINDSHEAR” on PFD and HUD (windshear recovery)
  2. PREDICTIVE
     Caution - “MONITOR RADAR DISPLAY” aural with EICAS message. Amber WINDSHEAR on ND and mini map. Red, yellow, black windshear area symbol on the ND’s and mini map (verify condition / maneuver as required)
     Warning - “GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD” and “WINDSHEAR AHEAD” aural with Master Warning light. “WINDSHEAR” on PFD and HUD. Red WINDSHEAR on ND and mini map. Red, yellow and black windshear symbol on ND and mini map (windshear recovery)
138
Q
  1. WHEN PWS WINDSHEAR START FUNCTIONING? (AOM 15.20.45)
A
  1. Alerts enabled 12 seconds after radar starts scanning.
  2. On the ground, starts scanning for weather when the thrust of either engine is in takeoff range, regardless of weather radar selection (ON/OFF)
  3. In flight (WXR pushed or not), begins scanning for windshear below 2,300’ and PWS alerts enabled below 1,200’ RA.
139
Q
  1. YOU ARE IN CLIMB, WHEN YOU SEE EICAS MESSAGE “FLIGHT CONTROL MODE”? (AOM 9.20.9)
A

Flight controls are in secondary mode

 Inertial or air data is insufficient or when all slat and flap position data is unavailable

140
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE DIFFERENCES BETWEEN NORMAL AND SECONDARY MODE? WHAT WILL BECOME UNAVAILABLE? (AOM 9.20.9)
A
  1. In Secondary mode, the PFC’s use simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands
  2. Not available in secondary mode:
     autopilot
     auto speedbrakes
     envelope protection
     gust protection
     pitch compensation
     roll/yaw asymmetry compensation
     tailstrike protection
141
Q
  1. THERE ARE MANY ACTIVE VOLCANO’S IN JAPAN. IF YOU ENCOUNTER VOLCANIC ASH, WHAT WOULD YOU DO? (WHAT IS THE PROCEDURE)? (QRH 7.40)
A

Complete volcanic ash unannunciated checklist
 consider turn
 consider descending
 oxygen mask if required
 if able, reduce thrust to idle to reduce possibility of damage
 start APU

142
Q
  1. (CONTINUED FROM PREVIOUS QUESTION ON VOLCANIC ASH) WHAT’S THE PROCEDURE IF BOTH ENGINES STOPPED? (QRH 7.40)
A

Follow direction of checklist
 Fuel control switches cut-off then run
 deploy RAT
 speed greater than 250 knots

143
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE 787-8 TAKEOFF MAX WIND? WHAT ABOUT LANDING? WET GROOVE RUNWAY? TAILWIND? (AOM L.4.1, L.2.16)
A
  1. Maximum -8/-9/-10 - 35/29/30
  2. Wet grooved 25
  3. Wet non-grooved 20
  4. Tailwind 15
144
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE MAJOR DIFFERENCES BETWEEN B767 AND B787?
A
  1. Electrical - 6 variable frequency starter generators (2 per engine and APU) o PECS - liquid cooling system.
  2. Hydraulics - 5000psi (smaller lines), fewer items (flaps/slats, steering, gear, spoilers, thrust reversers.
  3. Air system - uses 4 CAC’s, no bleed air for air conditioning / pressurization. CAC’s driven electrically.
  4. Engine Bleed Air - only used for engine inlet and core anti-icing and SAS.
145
Q
  1. WHAT ARE THE SYSTEMS OPERATED ELECTRICALLY WHICH ARE PNEUMATIC AND HYDRAULICALLY OPERATED IN B767?
A
  1. Engine Start
  2. Wing A/I
  3. Brakes
  4. Pressurization
  5. Stabilizer
146
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE THREAT OF HAVING PRESSURIZATION ELECTRICALLY INSTEAD OF BY ENGINE BLEED AIR?
A
  1. Loss of all electrical power
  2. Fault in both PECS loops
  3. Load shedding
147
Q
  1. WHAT IS THE THREAT OF HAVING THE ENGINES START ELECTRICALLY?
A

No manual start

148
Q
  1. STAB TRIM ALSO ELECTRICALLY OPERATED. WHAT IS THE MISTAKE PILOT MIGHT MAKE DUE TO THIS?
A

Don’t need to set hydraulic panel before setting stabilizer trim

149
Q
  1. PLEASE EXPLAIN ABOUT LIMITATION REGARDING AUTOPILOT USAGE. IF YOU COMMENCE VISUAL APPROACH WITH AUTOPILOT, UNTIL WHAT ALTITUDE CAN YOU USE? (AOM L.3.4)
A
  1. Minimum after takeoff - 200 feet
  2. Autoland available at airports at or below 8,400 feet
  3. Without LAND 2 or LAND 3 annunciated, must be disconnected below:
     -8, -10: 100 feet AGL
     -9: 135 feet AGL
  4. With LAND 2 or LAND 3 and g/s angle greater than 3.25 degrees, autopilot must be disengaged no later than 100 feet AGL
  5. With g/s angle greater than 3.77 degrees, autopilot must be disengaged no later than 50 feet below DA(DH)/MDA
150
Q
  1. AOM CHAPTER 1 EXPLAINS ABOUT AIRPLANE GENERAL AND EXPLAINS THE UNIQUE CHARACTERISTICS OF B787 WING DESIGN (HIGH LIFT RATIO). WHAT KIND OF THREAT CAN BE INDUCED BY THIS DESIGN?
A
  1. Very large wingspan, use caution taxiing

2. Efficient wing creates high lift, easy to float and get high on profile

151
Q
  1. THE DESIGN OF TCP DIFFERS BETWEEN B767 AND B787. WHAT DO YOU THINK OF THE THREAT CAUSED BY THIS NEW DESIGN?
A
  1. Easy to input incorrect frequency

2. Need to select active line

152
Q
  1. YOU HAVE DELIVERY FREQUENCY AS ACTIVE THEN CHANGED TO RAMP CONTROL FREQUENCY FOR PUSHBACK. WHERE DOES DELIVERY FREQUENCY GO? WILL IT BE STORED SOMEWHERE?
A
  1. Goes to standby side

2. not stored unless manually selected

153
Q
  1. WHAT IS WIND LIMIT FOR ENGINE RUNNING ON GROUND? (AOM L.3.9)
A
  1. do not run engines with wind greater than 65 knots

2. for winds greater than 45 knots or tailwind greater than 42 knots limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi

154
Q
  1. IN WHAT KIND OF SITUATION DO YOU UTILIZE VSD?
A
  1. takeoff, approach, landing near terrain

2. path management

155
Q
  1. IN WHICH MODE DOES A/T DOES NOT WAKE UP? (AOM 4.20.3)
A
  1. In HOLD mode

2. Autothrottle arm switch is off

156
Q
  1. DO YOU KNOW THE ACCIDENT DUE TO NOT A/T WAKE UP?
A

Asiana 777 in SFO

157
Q
  1. IN A LOW SPEED CONDITION, WHAT KIND OF PROTECTION DO YOU HAVE FORE A/T? (AOM 4.20.14)
A

When Autothrottle is armed but not active, automatically activates in speed mode and will maintain minimum maneuver speed or the speed set in IAS/MACH window, whichever is greater.

158
Q
  1. WHAT KIND OF SITUATION WILL AUTOTHROTTLE PROTECTION SYSTEM NOT FUNCTION? IS THERE ANY TIMING THIS PROTECTION WON’T FUNCTION AT CERTAIN ALTITUDE? (AOM 4.20.13)
A
  1. (Placard in flight deck - FMF BPv4 INSTALLED, lower left MFD)
  2. FMF BPv4 not installed:
     If A/T in HOLD, FLCH SPD or TOGA mode, Autothrottle will not automatically activate and provide stall protection
     Will not function below 400 feet above airport during takeoff and below 100 feet RA on landing
159
Q
  1. THIS FUNCTION HAS RECENTLY IMPROVED. WHAT KIND OF IMPROVEMENT IS IT MADE? (AOM 4.20.14)
A
  1. Placard in flight deck - FMF BPv4 INSTALLED, lower left MFD
  2. If the Autothrottle is armed and not active, the A/T will engage in THR or SPD mode if the airspeed decreases to the amber band, will advance up to CLB thrust if speed reduces to stick shaker activation.
160
Q

160.WHAT THE THREATS CAN BE CAUSED BY HUD DESIGN?

A
  1. Too focused (tunnel vision) on HUD during flight, not maintaining effective scan of instruments, including engine instruments
  2. Focusing on HUD symbology if too bright, instead of outside environment during landing
  3. Monochromatic, there is no amber or red color to represent alerts
161
Q

161.WHAT THREAT WOULD BE INDUCED DUE TO THE DIFFERENCE BETWEEN HUD AND PFD?

A
  1. enlarged scale and sensitive FPV cue can lead to over controlling.
162
Q

162.WHAT IS THE WING ANTI-ICE POWER SOURCE? (AOM 6.20.7)

A

235VAC, aft E/E Bay

163
Q

163.WHAT SYSTEM DOES THE 787 HAVE FOR WINDSHEAR (AOM 15.20.43)

A

GPWS, Mode 7
 Reactive
 Predictive

164
Q

164.MAXIMUM CROSSWIND

A
  1. Takeoff – 35/29/30

2. Landing – 33/35/26

165
Q

165.WHAT HAPPENS IF YOU PUT IN COST INDEX 0? (AOR PR.14-1.2)

A

Cost index 0 is a setting based on Maximum Range Cruise Speed (MRC), full priority given to fuel consumption. Slightly slower than LRC (1% fuel).

166
Q

166.WHAT IS THE MAXIMUM COST INDEX YOU CAN PUT IN? (AOR PR.14-1.1)

A
  1. Maximum CDU will accept is 9,999

2. Maximum in ANA group 120 for the 787

167
Q

167.WHAT IS THE RECENT PROBLEM ABOUT AIR CONDITIONING? (INFO B787120B)

A
  1. CAC surge.

2. Constant number of passengers entered by CA (320 passengers) to continue higher CAC output.

168
Q

168.WHEN IS THE HUD GUIDANCE CUE SOLID? (AOM 10.22.5)

A

During a windshear alert condition

169
Q

169.WHAT IS TCMA? (INFO B787-141A)

A
  1. Thrust control malfunction accommodation
     Engine thrust increases excessively beyond command
     Engine thrust does not decrease despite a command for forward (or reverse) idle thrust
     Armed 1.7 seconds after sensors determine aircraft is on ground
     Shuts the engine down
  2. Caused by reverse moving quickly from idle to full and then back to reverse idle in a short period
170
Q

170.WHEN WILL RAT AUTO DEPLOY? (AOM 6.20.4)

A
  1. Both engines fail
  2. All three hydraulic system pressures low
  3. Loss of all electrical power to captain’s and first officers flight instruments
  4. Loss of all 4 EMP’s (electric motor- driven (hydraulic) pump) and faults in the flight control system occur on approach
  5. Loss of all 4 EMP’s and an engine fails on takeoff or landing
171
Q

171.WHEN DOES FLAP LOAD RELIEF WORK? (AOM 9.20.26)

A
  1. Active with flaps between 15 and 30
  2. LOAD RELIEF is displayed by flap indication, and flaps retract to a safe position appropriate to the airspeed, limited to minimum of 5
  3. Activates when flaps limit placard is exceeded
172
Q

172.FUEL USEAGE LIMITATIONS? (AOM L.3.14)

A
  1. With no centre tank fuel, all main tank boost pumps should be on and crossfeed closed (crossfeed is opened for minimum fuel operation)
  2. With greater than 16,000lbs in center tank, center boost pumps on until FUEL LOW CENTER advisory message is displayed
  3. If FUEL IN CENTER advisory message is displayed in cruise, use centre tank fuel with all boost pumps on
173
Q

173.HOW MANY OUTFLOW VALVES ARE THERE? (AOM 2.30.1)

A

Two outflow valves – on forward and one aft

174
Q

174.ON A VISUAL APPROACH, HOW LONG CAN AUTPILOT BE USED? (AOM L.3.4)

A
  1. -8/-10 100 feet AGL

2. -9 135 feet AGL

175
Q

175.IS THERE AN ALTITUDE THAT AFFECTS THE ATS?

A

50 knots to 400 feet

176
Q

176.WHAT ALITITUDE INFORMATION WOULD YOU HAVE IF YOU HAD THE ADS MESSAGE? (AOM 11.20.9)

A
  1. NAV AIR DATA SYS caution message

2. GPS ALT will be used

177
Q

177.WHAT HAPPENS IF YOU LOST THE ADS? (AOM 11.20.9)

A
  1. NAV AIR DATA SYS caution message, hybrid GPS – inertial position sent to FMC
  2. GPS ALT
  3. AOA Airspeed
178
Q

178.WHAT ARE THE CRITICAL WARNINGS?

A
  1. ENG FAIL
  2. PULL UP
  3. SPEEDBRAKE
  4. WINDSHEAR
  5. (STALL WARNING)
179
Q

179.WHAT KIND OF TIMING DOES THE TIME CRITICAL WARNING ALLOW FOR SPEEDBRAKE? (AOM 15.20.18)

A
  1. The airplane is on the ground
  2. Thrust levers not in takeoff position
  3. Groundspeed greater than 85 knots
  4. Speedbrake lever position is less than 35 degrees
  5. All of the above together for 1 second
180
Q

181.WHAT DO YOU CHECK AFTER EFB INITIALIZATION? (AOM NP.31.3)

A
  1. Verify correct documents are loaded
  2. Verify database are current on EFB IDENT page
  3. Review FAULTs, MEMOs, MSGs
181
Q

182.BRAKING SYSTEM DURING TAXI? (AOM 14.20.6)

A
  1. Taxi brake system
  2. During manual application below 30 knots, the brake control system applies ½ of the brakes (fore then aft) 3. All brakes activate during heavy braking
182
Q

180.IN CASE OF DISPLAYING EICAS STATUS MESSAGE AFTER BLOCKOUT PRIOR TO THE BEGINNING OF TAKEOFF? (QRH OI.1.5)

A
  1. The flight can be continued after completion of both engine start
  2. Prior to start, refer to EICAS message cross reference list
183
Q

183.PITCH OF TAIL CONTACT DKURING TAKEOFF? (MAKER FCTM 3.9)

A
  1. 11.2/9.7/9.7
  2. -10 and -9 are the same due to semi-levered gear on -10. Actuator locks during takeoff to restrict rotation of the main gear truck
184
Q

184.WHAT IS THE MAGENTA LINE IN VSD? (AOM 10.10.35)

A
  1. SOLID MAGENTA – active vertical path

2. DASHED MAGENTA – selected altitude line or MCP selected V/S or FPA

185
Q

185.WHEN DO THE IMMEDIATE WINDSHEAR AND PREDICTIVE WINDSHEAR SYSTEMS BECOME ACTIVE? (AOM 15.20.54, 15.20.45)

A
  1. WARNING
     during takeoff, from rotation to 1,500 feet
     during landing, from 1,500 to 10 feet
     during missed approach, until 1,500 feet
  2. CAUTION
     Same as warning
  3. PREDICTIVE
     Warning - inhibited 100knots to 50 feet RA
     Caution - inhibited 80 knots to 400 feet RA
     All are inhibited above 1,200 feet RA
     Alerts enabled 12 seconds after radar starts scanning (weather radar switch on or off for takeoff)
     Begins scanning at 2,300 feet RA and PWS alerts are enabled below 1,200 feet RA (weather radar switch on or off)
186
Q

186.WHAT CAN YOU USE THE VSD FOR AND WHAT MODES ARE AVAILABLE? (AOM 10.10.35)

A
  1. Terrain awareness
  2. Flight path monitoring
  3. 3-degree reference line for approach
  4. Decision gates (1,000 feet, 500 feet)
  5. Range to target speed
187
Q

187.WHAT FMA MODES AFFECT VSD PRESENTATION?

A

VNAV (active vertical path)

188
Q

188.WHAT IS THE PROCEDURE FOR UNRELLIABLE AIRSPEED? (QRH 10.1)

A
  1. Autopilot disconnect switch
  2. A/T arm switches (both)
  3. F/D switches (both) PUSH OFF OFF
  4. Set the following gear up pitch attitude and thrust:
     Flaps extended 10 deg/85% N1
     Flaps up 4 deg/70% N1
189
Q

189.FOLLOW ON FROM PREVIOUS QUESTION, WHY DO WE SET THE PITCH AND POWER WHERE WE DO? (INFO B787-103C (4/12))

A
  1. To maintain the aircraft’s safety by keeping it within the flight envelope. They are not intended to maintain specific climb rate or level flight.
  2. Ensures safety until the checklist can be accessed.
190
Q

190.WHAT IS THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE ENGINES?

A
  1. From inside of cowl to inside of cowl – 15m

2. Between center of engine – 19m

191
Q

191.WHAT IS THE DISTANCE BETWEEN THE NOSE LANDING GEAR AND MAIN LANDING GEAR? (AOM1.10.1, AOR PT.1.2)

A
  1. All types Pilot position 2.6m in front of nose gear
  2. 787-8 22.8m
  3. 787-9 25.8m
  4. 787-10 28.9m
192
Q

192.HOW LONG WILL THE BATTERY LAST IF THERE IS NO OTHER POWER SOURCE? (INFO B787-067A (1/4))

A

10 minutes

AJX: AW (22 decks)

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