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AJX: AW > B787 TECH EXAM > Flashcards

B787 TECH EXAM Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the state that green A is displayed on L1 door in the door synoptic?

① The door is open.
② The door is close, but slide is not armed.
③ The door is closed and the slide is armed.

A

③ The door is closed and the slide is armed.

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2
Q
  1. Which is correct about the fuselage mounted emergency locator?

① When the necessary fuselage power supply fails, it automatically sends a signal.
② When touching the water, it automatically transmits signal.
③ When strong shock is detected, the signal is automatically transmitted.

A

③ When strong shock is detected, the signal is automatically transmitted.

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3
Q
  1. Which is correct about the cargo compartment（if equipped） where the temperature can be controlled?

① AFT cargo and bulk cargo.
② Forward cargo and bulk cargo.
③ Forward cargo and AFT cargo.

A

② Forward cargo and bulk cargo.

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4
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the power electronics cooling system?

① It is Liquid Cooling System for Large Motor Power Distribution System.
② During normal operation, PECS maintains the Liquid Coolant supply temperature of each loop at -5 ° C.
③ Flight Deck cannot control Liquid Cooling System.

A

② During normal operation, PECS maintains the Liquid Coolant supply temperature of each loop at -5 ° C.

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5
Q
  1. Which is correct about B787’s alternate ventilation system?

① This system consists of Flight Deck Switch and Flush Inlet Valve and Duct dedicated to flow Outside Air to the downstream of the Left Pack Outlet.
② When the Alternate Ventilation System Switch is set to the ALTN position, the Alternate Ventilation System (AVS) works and the Fresh outside Air is sent to the Air Distribution System irrespective of the state of pressurization.
③ This System is an Alternate System which performs Ventilation of Cabin and Flight Deck when both packs stop working.

A

③ This System is an Alternate System which performs Ventilation of Cabin and Flight Deck when both packs stop working.

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6
Q
  1. Which is correct about PACK MODE (L, R) EICAS advisory message?

① PACK is in alternate mode.
② PACK is in direct Mode.
③ PACK is in standby cooling mode.

A

③ PACK is in standby cooling mode.

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7
Q
  1. Which is correct about engine bleed air?

① Engine bleed air is used for engine anti-ice and engine cross start in flight.
② Engine ｂleed air is used only for engine anti-ice.
③ Engine Bleed air is used for the heating of engine anti-ice and TAT probe.

A

② Engine ｂleed air is used only for engine anti-ice.

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8
Q
  1. What is correct about pack standby cooling mode?

① In standby cooling mode, pack cooling capacity may be more than in normal mode.
② If one pack is in standby cooling , the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at higher altitudes and higher outside air temperatures.
③ If one pack is in standby cooling , the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures.

A

③ If one pack is in standby cooling , the pack in standby cooling mode shuts down at lower altitudes and higher outside air temperatures.

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9
Q
  1. What is correct when ENGINE ANTI-ICE Selector is turned on?

① Engine Anti-ice operates on ground and in flight.
② In flight only, Engine Anti-ice operates.
③ On ground only, Engine Anti-ice operates.

A

① Engine Anti-ice operates on ground and in flight.

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10
Q
  1. What is correct about the wing anti-ice system?

① Perform the Ice Protection of the outermost SLAT.
② It operates as a front-back contrast to maintain aerodynamic stability.
③ When electric load is high, it is temporarily shedding.

A

③ When electric load is high, it is temporarily shedding.

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11
Q
  1. What is incorrect about clean up cycle?

① It is one of the automatic operations of Wing Anti-ice system.
② When the icing condition is not detected from the Icing condition, this system continues to provide electrical power to the heated slats to clear any residual ice that may have accumulated during icing conditions.
③ It is one of the automatic operations of Engine Anti-ice system.

A

③ It is one of the automatic operations of Engine Anti-ice system.

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12
Q
  1. What is correct when WING ANTI-ICE selector is turned ON?

① Wing anti-ice system always works with on ground and in flight.
② Wing anti-ice system operates only on ground.
③ Wing anti-ice system is inhibited on ground at less than 75 kt.

A

③ Wing anti-ice system is inhibited on ground at less than 75 kt.

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13
Q
  1. What is correct about the engine anti-ice system?

① When one of engine anti-ice system fails, the other system backs up..
② Perform the ice protection of inlet cowl of engine and engine core.
③ Perform the ice protection with electric power.

A

② Perform the ice protection of inlet cowl of engine and engine core.

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14
Q
  1. Which one is correct about the flight deck window heat?

① In the flight deck Window, both the forward window and the side window are heated by electrical and equipped with anti-Icing on the outer surface and antifogging protection on the inner surface.
② The two forward windows are equipped with anti-Icing on the outer surface and antifogging protection on the inner surface, and the four side windows are equipped only with antifogging protection on the inner surface.
③ If BACKUP L / R FWD switch is ON position and primary window heat system fails, the backup antifogging system of forward window automatically operates.

A

③ If BACKUP L / R FWD switch is ON position and primary window heat system fails, the backup antifogging system of forward window automatically operates.

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15
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Autopilot Flight Director System (AFDS)?

① It consists of three Autoflight Computing System and MFD.
② It consists of three Autoflight Computing System and MCP.
③ It consists of two Autoflight Computing System and MCP.

A

② It consists of three Autoflight Computing System and MCP.

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16
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Roll Modes?

① LNAV -On go-around, LNAV always active at 200 feet radio altitude.
② TO/GA -In flight, TO/GA is armed when flaps are out of up or glideslope is captured.
③ ROLLOUT -Displayed below 1500 feet radio altitude and activates at touchdown with weight on the wheels.

A

① LNAV -On go-around, LNAV always active at 200 feet radio altitude.

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17
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Autopilot Engage Switches?

① The color of Autopilot Engaged Light is Amber.
② Either Left or Right Switch can engage Autopilot.
③ Flight Director (F/D) will also be engaged when Push Autopilot Engage Switch.

A

② Either Left or Right Switch can engage Autopilot.

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18
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of TO / GA Switch and FMA?

① During takeoff prior to lift–off at 80 knots, autothrottle annunciation changes to HOLD
② During takeoff prior to lift–off with speed greater than 80 knots, pushing a TO/GA switch disarms LNAV and VNAV
③ During takeoff prior to lift–off with speed less than 80 knots, pushing a TO/GA switch activates the autothrottle in thrust reference (THR REF).

A

③ During takeoff prior to lift–off with speed less than 80 knots, pushing a TO/GA switch activates the autothrottle in thrust reference (THR REF).

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19
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Autothrottle automatically disconnect?

① Raised Speedbrake Lever.
② Either reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle.
③ Autobrake Disarmed.

A

② Either reverse thrust lever is raised to reverse idle.

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20
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of the flow of Autopilot Command Signal?

① AFDS → PFC → ACE → Flight Control Surface.
② From AFDS directly to Flight Control Surface.
③ AFDS → ACE → Flight Control Surface.

A

① AFDS → PFC → ACE → Flight Control Surface.

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21
Q
  1. What is correct about VHF page of TCP?

① Active frequency can be stored by frequency transfer switch.
② All of VHF Radio(L, R, C) can be used for Voice and Data Communication.
③ It is possible to tune all VHF Radio of L, R, C with one TCP.

A

③ It is possible to tune all VHF Radio of L, R, C with one TCP.

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22
Q
  1. Which is incorrect when Message is uplinked?

① When receiving ATC uplink message, aural chime will sound.
② When receiving company uplink message, aural chime will sound.
③ When receiving flight information uplink message, aural chime will sound.

A

② When receiving company uplink message, aural chime will sound.

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23
Q
  1. When the FLT Switch is selected, which of the following is displayed on the MIC (microphone) Indicator Display on the auxiliary display?

① VHF L
② CAB
③ FLT

A

③ FLT

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24
Q
  1. Which is correct about VHF page of TCP?

① Scratchpad’s frequency can only be entered into the standby window.
② The decimal point of frequency must be entered.
③ To display DATA on the standby window, repeat the list of standby (stored) frequency until DATA appears.

A

③ To display DATA on the standby window, repeat the list of standby (stored) frequency until DATA appears.

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25
Q
  1. Which is correct about the MFD communications functions (COMM key)?

① It is possible to receive the data link message related to FMC.
② It can be used for voice and data communication.
③ Datalink communications can be established with participating ATC and company locations.

A

③ Datalink communications can be established with participating ATC and company locations.

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26
Q
  1. Which is correct about the tuning and control panels (TCP)?

① The tuning and control panels are used to tune and control the VHF, HF, SATCOM and Cabin Interphone etc.
② The TCP dose not have a light sensor to automatically control display lighting.
③ In event of electrical power loss, the right TCP continue to operate on standby power.

A

① The tuning and control panels are used to tune and control the VHF, HF, SATCOM and Cabin Interphone etc.

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27
Q
  1. Which is correct about engine starter / generators?

① Each engine has two 235 Vac variable frequency start / generator.
② Drive disconnect mechanism exists only in L1 and R1 generator.
③ It also functions as starter for engine start by pneumatic power.

A

① Each engine has two 235 Vac variable frequency start / generator.

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28
Q
  1. Which engine starter generator is supplied by the AFT external power?

① Left engine
② Right engine.
③ Both engines

A

② Right engine.

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29
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the conditions RAT automatically deploys?

① When both engine fails.
② When all three hydraulic system pressures are low.
③ When three or more engine generators turn offline in flight.

A

③ When three or more engine generators turn offline in flight.

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30
Q
  1. Which is incorrect indication when electrical load shedding is occurring?

① In the ELEC synoptic, list of system affected by Load Shedding is displayed.
② EICAS memo message ELEC LOAD SHED is displayed.
③ In the corresponding SYS synoptic, LOAD SHED is displayed in shedding equipment.

A

② EICAS memo message ELEC LOAD SHED is displayed.

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31
Q
  1. Which is correct about the APU starter / generators?

① Two starter / generators are producing variable frequency power proportional to APU speed.
② Two APU starter / generator have drive disconnect mechanism.
③ When starting APU, the right APU starter / generator is always used.

A

① Two starter / generators are producing variable frequency power proportional to APU speed.

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32
Q
  1. Which is correct about the main AC bus?

① There are four main 235 Vac ｂuses, designated L1, L2, R1 and R2.
② There are four main 115 Vac ｂuses, designated L1, L2, R1 and R2.
③ There are four main 28 Vac ｂuses, designated L1, L2, R1 and R2.

A

① There are four main 235 Vac ｂuses, designated L1, L2, R1 and R2.

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33
Q
  1. What is incorrect about the generator that is equipped?

① There are four variable frequency engine starter / generators in total.
② There is one variable frequency engine starter / generators in total.
③ There are three flight control permanent magnet generator in total.

A

② There is one variable frequency engine starter / generators in total.

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34
Q
  1. Which is correct about Circuit Breaker Indication and Control (CBIC)?

① It provides indication and control for Electronic Circuit Breakers (ECB) and Thermal Circuit Breakers (TCB).
② It only provides indication and control for ECB.
③ It provides indication and control for ECB, and indication only for TCB.

A

③ It provides indication and control for ECB, and indication only for TCB.

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35
Q
  1. Which is the case that the second attempt is performed as a function of EEC engine autostart , when a problem occurs in ground engine start for the first time?

① No EGT Rise.
② Both Starter’s Loss.
③ No N1 Rotation.

A

① No EGT Rise.

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36
Q
  1. What is correct about the generator equipped on the engine and APU?

① Each engine and APU is equipped with two constant frequency starter / generators each.
② One for each engine and one variable frequency starter / generator for the APU are equipped.
③ Each engine and APU is equipped with two variable frequency starter / generators each.

A

③ Each engine and APU is equipped with two variable frequency starter / generators each.

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37
Q
  1. When EEC is normal mode, what is the control parameter of thrust setting?

① TPR.
② N1.
③ EPR

A

① TPR.

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38
Q
  1. When EEC enters alternate mode, what is correct about the operation of autothrottle?

① Autothrottle automatically disconnects from normal mode to soft alternate mode.
② Autosrottle automatically disconnects from soft alternate mode to hard alternate mode.
③ Even if mode changes to soft alternate and hard alternate, autothrottle does not automatically disconnect.

A

③ Even if mode changes to soft alternate and hard alternate, autothrottle does not automatically disconnect.

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39
Q
  1. What is correct about the condition that In-Flight Start Envelope is displayed in EICAS?

① If the fire switch of the corresponding engine is in the IN position and engine N2 RPM is lower than Idle.
② When the engine becomes fire regardless of the position of the fire switch of the relevant engine.
③ Whenever fuel control switch of the engine is in the CUTOFF position.

A

① If the fire switch of the corresponding engine is in the IN position and engine N2 RPM is lower than Idle.

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40
Q
  1. Which is correct about APU attended / unattended mode?

① When the cockpit door is closed on ground, it is the attended mode.
② When engine is starting on ground, it is the unattended mode, but when engine becomes idling state it becomes the attended mode.
③ When the aircraft is in Flight, it is the attended mode.

A

③ When the aircraft is in Flight, it is the attended mode.

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41
Q
  1. Which is correct about Electronic Engine Control (EEC)?

① In the normal mode, EEC controls TPR based on thrust lever position.
② The normal mode has the soft mode, and the alternate mode has the hard mode.
③ In the alternate mode, EEC controls N2 based on thrust lever position.

A

① In the normal mode, EEC controls TPR based on thrust lever position.

42
Q
  1. What is incorrect about Secondary Air System (SAS)?

① The engines are equipped with this system to provide cooling and sealing airflow to the intermediate pressure turbine.
② Should the SASV fail in the open position, the temperature in the SAS rises rapidly and could result in overheated engine bearings.
③ There is no EICAS message on SAS.

A

③ There is no EICAS message on SAS.

43
Q
  1. Which is correct about the engine fire and overheat detection system?

① When the detection system detects fire, EICAS message DET FIRE ENG (L or R) is displayed.
② Each element of the detection system is composed of dual channel, and if a fault occurs on one channel, it is necessary to switch to single channel operation manually.
③ The engine fire detection system also serves as the overheat detection system.

A

③ The engine fire detection system also serves as the overheat detection system.

44
Q
  1. Which is correct about Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP)?

① During takeoff or go-around, it works when large thrust asymmetry occurs at low speed.
② It operates when big thrust asymmetry occurs in all phases.
③ When big thrust asymmetry occurs, automatically activate the rudder.

A

① During takeoff or go-around, it works when large thrust asymmetry occurs at low speed.

45
Q
  1. Which is correct about the engine fire extinguisher bottle?

① Two engine fire extinguisher bottles are equipped, and the bottle 1 on the left is also the APU fire extinguisher bottle.
② When engine fire signal occurs, the extinguisher bottle will be automatically discharged to the relevant engine.
③ The engine fire extinguisher bottle is equipped with two, so you can make discharge on both the left and right engine.

A

③ The engine fire extinguisher bottle is equipped with two, so you can make discharge on both the left and right engine.

46
Q
  1. Which is correct about the cargo compartment fire extinguishing system?

① In flight, fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately causes the compartment to be total discharged from all extinguisher bottles.
② In flight, fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately arm all extinguisher bottles for that compartment.
③ In flight, the fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately causes the compartment to be total discharged from the two extinguisher bottles.

A

③ In flight, the fire warning from the cargo fire detection system immediately causes the compartment to be total discharged from the two extinguisher bottles.

47
Q
  1. Which is correct mode in Flight Control System?

① Primary, Secondary, Alternate
② Normal, Alternate, Direct
③ Normal, Secondary, Direct

A

③ Normal, Secondary, Direct

48
Q
  1. Which is correct about the APU fire protection?

① When APU fire signal is detected, the APU automatically shuts down and the extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged.
② APU has two fire extinguisher bottles, and rotating APU fire switch to the right or left can discharge the corresponding extinguisher bottle.
③ When APU fire signal is detected, APU automatically shuts down in flight, but does not automatically shut down on ground.

A

① When APU fire signal is detected, the APU automatically shuts down and the extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged.

49
Q
  1. What is incorrect about the fire protection system?

① Main and nose wheel well have fire / overheat detection.
② The engine has fire / overheat detection.
③ There is no overheat detection in APU.

A

① Main and nose wheel well have fire / overheat detection.

50
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Roll Envelope Bank Angle Protection?

① When Bank Angle goes beyond 35 ˚, Input is given to Roll Control Wheel and Control Wheel Force becomes large so that it returns to within 30 ゜ Bank.
② It is a function that works when AUTO is set in Bank Limit Selector of MCP, and adjusts Roll Control Wheel Force according to TAS.
③ When Bank Angle exceeds the value set by Bank Limit Selector of MCP, make Roll the aircraft so that it returns within the set value.

A

① When Bank Angle goes beyond 35 ˚, Input is given to Roll Control Wheel and Control Wheel Force becomes large so that it returns to within 30 ゜ Bank.

51
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Flap / Slat Operation Mode?

① Primary, Secondary, Alternate
② Normal, Secondary, Direct
③ Normal, Soft Alternate, Hard Alternate

A

① Primary, Secondary, Alternate

52
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Flight Controls’ Unique Failure Considerations?

① In the case of All Hydraulic Power Loss, the Stabilizer operates Electrically, two pairs of Spoiler Pair, and Pilot Control of Roll are enabled.
② If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, Pitch Control can be controlled using Alternate Pitch Trim Switch and Roll can be controlled using Control Wheel by Direct Wiring from Flight Deck to Stabilizer and a pair of Spoiler Pair.
③ If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, you can control Pitch and Roll using Control Wheel by Direct Cable from Flight Deck to Stabilizer and a pair of Spoiler Pair.

A

③ If there is a complete loss of flight control signaling, you can control Pitch and Roll using Control Wheel by Direct Cable from Flight Deck to Stabilizer and a pair of Spoiler Pair.

53
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Cruise Flaps?

① Cruise flaps is an automated function that improves the airplane’s cruise performance by symmetrically moving the flaps, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers based on airplane parameters such as weight, airspeed and altitude.
② Cruise flaps are available in the normal mode and the secondary mode.
③ Cruise flaps optimizes performance in cruise by varying the camber of the wing and reducing drag.

A

② Cruise flaps are available in the normal mode and the secondary mode.

54
Q
  1. What is correct when APU ｆire was detected in flight?

① APU performs auto shutdown, and the extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged after 15 second delay.
② APU will auto shutdown and the extinguisher bottle will be automatically discharged immediately.
③ APU does not perform auto shutdown.

A

① APU performs auto shutdown, and the extinguisher bottle is automatically discharged after 15 second delay.

55
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Stabilizer System?

① Stabilizer position commands are processed through 3 independent channels within the flight control system.
② Placing both switches in the CUTOUT position disables stabilizer operation and the EICAS advisory message STABILIZER is displayed.
③ The commands move the stabilizer using an electric control unit powered by the L2 and R2 AC buses.

A

③ The commands move the stabilizer using an electric control unit powered by the L2 and R2 AC buses.

56
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Automatic Speedbrake?

① In Reject Takeoff, if Thrust Lever is set to Idle Range and Speed Brake Lever is pulled to the front of Armed Position in Manual, Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position and Spoiler will automatically Extend.
② When VNAV is engaged and goes inside the White (Drag) Circle of Offpath Descent, Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position and Spoiler will automatically Extend.
③ In Armed Position, Main Gear Truck will Untilt in Landing, Spoiler automatically Extend and Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position unless both Thrust Lever are Takeoff Range.

A

③ In Armed Position, Main Gear Truck will Untilt in Landing, Spoiler automatically Extend and Speedbrake Lever will automatically move to Up Position unless both Thrust Lever are Takeoff Range.

57
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Slat Pregap function ?

① Only when Flap / Slat is in Secondary Mode.
② Only when Flap / Slat is Primary or Secondary Mode.
③ Only when Flap / Slat is Primary Mode.

A

① Only when Flap / Slat is in Secondary Mode.

58
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Slat Autogap function ?

① Slat Autogap function is only available in Secondary Mode.
② Slat Autogap function is only available in Primary Mode.
③ Slat Autogap function is only available in Primary or Secondary Mode.

A

② Slat Autogap function is only available in Primary Mode.

59
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about Closed Loop Line Item of the electronic checklist (ECL)?

① It is a Checklist Step that includes a continuously and automatically monitoring Switch, Lever and Selector Position.
② Although a rare case, some monitor actual System conditions such as the Flap and the Landing Gear Position.
③ When the Control is set to its Required Position, the Line Item font changes from Amber to Green, in addition, a Complete Indicator icon appears on the left side of the Line Item.

A

③ When the Control is set to its Required Position, the Line Item font changes from Amber to Green, in addition, a Complete Indicator icon appears on the left side of the Line Item.

60
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the head-up display (HUD)?

① The colors displayed on the HUD Combiner are Green and Amber.
② Symbology of the HUD is almost the same as PFD Symbology.
③ If it is not properly aligned with the projector, ALIGN HUD message is shown on the HUD.

A

① The colors displayed on the HUD Combiner are Green and Amber.

61
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about Installed Electronic Flight Bag (EFB)?

① The display units operate independently of each other, but cannot also display information from the off-side unit.
② It is an operating system with applications designed to assist the flight crew with routine tasks, enhance security, and reduce the reliance on paper documents.
③ It can exchange data with the FMC.

A

① The display units operate independently of each other, but cannot also display information from the off-side unit.

62
Q
  1. Which is correct about Checklist Alerting of Hidden Non-Normal Checklist?

① When there is a Non-Normal Checklist in the Queue and no related EICAS message is displayed, nor is ECL displayed, an EICAS advisory message CHKL INCOMPLETE NON-NORMAL appears.
② Hidden Checklist situations occurs when an Unannunciated Checklist is partially completed and disappears from the display.
③ The CHKL NON-NORMAL message disappears when ECL is completed.

A

② Hidden Checklist situations occurs when an Unannunciated Checklist is partially completed and disappears from the display.

63
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Global Positioning System (GPS)?

① Left and right GPS receivers are independent and supply very accurate position data to the IRS.
② The ND annunciates GPS when the FMC uses GPS position updates.
③ If the IRS becomes inoperative during flight, GPS Position Data can not be used either.

A

③ If the IRS becomes inoperative during flight, GPS Position Data can not be used either.

64
Q
  1. Which is correct about the condition that EICAS message “CHKL INCOMPLETE NORM” is displayed?

① When a LANDING checklist is not complete, and the aircraft has descended from the FMC landing runway to an altitude less than 500 ft
② When BEFORE START checklist is not complete, engine start selector becomes START position.
③ When BEFORE TAKEOFF checklist not complete, thrust lever is advanced to takeoff range

A

① When a LANDING checklist is not complete, and the aircraft has descended from the FMC landing runway to an altitude less than 500 ft

65
Q
  1. Which is correct about CHKL OVRD key in electronic checklist (ECL)?

① CHKL OVRD key is for override of unexecuted checklist, so if CHKL OVRD key is implemented with even one checklist item, CHKL OVRD key cannot be used.
② If CHKL OVRD key is selected, the operational note of the displayed checklist enters the NOTES page as reference information, but the color is displayed in cyan.
③ When CHKL OVRD key is selected, operational note of checklist displayed does not enter NOTES page.

A

③ When CHKL OVRD key is selected, operational note of checklist displayed does not enter NOTES page.

66
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the vertical situation display (VSD)?

① VSD presents a profile view of the airplane and its environment.
② The selected altitude shown on the VSD is the same as the selected altitude shown on the on-side PFD.
③ VSD is always displayed under PFD.

A

③ VSD is always displayed under PFD.

67
Q
  1. Which is correct about the checklist alerting of normal checklist?

① In case of an alert condition occurrence, the EICAS caution message CHKLNORM is displayed, and this message is displayed until a corresponding checklist is completed or overridden.
② Alert Logic is set up according to 4 Normal Checklists of Before Taxi、Before Takeoff 、 Approach and Landing
③ To indicate that one or more normal checklists are incomplete, the color of the normal checklist key located in the bottom left corner of the display changes to cyan:

A

② Alert Logic is set up according to 4 Normal Checklists of Before Taxi、Before Takeoff 、 Approach and Landing

68
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Integrated Standby Flight Display (ISFD)?

① GPS Altitude (GPS ALT) and ISFD Airspeed (ISFD SPD) are displayed on the PFD when both the selected Air Data and Back Up Air Data can not be used.
② ISFD, Altitude, Attitude, Airspeed are independent from IRU and AHRU.
③ ISFD acquires Data from Center Pitot Static System.

A

① GPS Altitude (GPS ALT) and ISFD Airspeed (ISFD SPD) are displayed on the PFD when both the selected Air Data and Back Up Air Data can not be used.

69
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Distance Measuring Equipment (DME)?

① DME is equipped with 2 System
② VOR / DME Update is usually more accurate than DME / DME Update.
③ FMC uses three nearest DMEs for Position Update

A

① DME is equipped with 2 System

70
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of FMS?

① Four independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor.
② Three independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor.
③ Two independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor.

A

② Three independent FMCs are equipped. At Power Up one FMC is designed to run the Flight Management Task and the other FMC to monitor.

71
Q
  1. Which is correct in the explanation when EICAS Message “NAV AIR DATA SYS” is displayed?

① Air Data Reference System (ADRS) is Lost, GPS ALT and AOA SPEED are displayed
② Only the Pitot Probe Data from the Air Data Reference System (ADRS) is lost, AOA SPEED is displayed.
③ Inertial Reference System is lost, GPS ALT and AOA SPEED are displayed.

A

① Air Data Reference System (ADRS) is Lost, GPS ALT and AOA SPEED are displayed

72
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the deferred line item of electronic checklist (ECL)?

① In flight, always, when all steps previous to deferred Item have been completed, the checklist is distinguished as completed, and in this case, a CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS indicator is displayed at the very bottom of page.
② A Deferred Line Item is part of a Non-Normal Checklist, but it is usually an Item that must be implemented during the latter part of the flight, such as during Approach.
③ When the Non-Normal Checklist including the Deferred Item is displayed, the Item automatically attaches to the appropriate Normal Checklist, and each Set in the Deferred Item is referenced in the Checklist that was used to Generate the Deferred Item.

A

① In flight, always, when all steps previous to deferred Item have been completed, the checklist is distinguished as completed, and in this case, a CHECKLIST COMPLETE EXCEPT DEFERRED ITEMS indicator is displayed at the very bottom of page.

73
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of the Air Data Reference System (ADRS)?

① Air Data Module converts Analog Pressure Sensed by Remote Sensor to Digital value and operates as Air Data Function in ADRS.
② ADRS is a system integrated with IRS.
③ ADRS has acquired Air Data from 4 Pitot Static System.

A

① Air Data Module converts Analog Pressure Sensed by Remote Sensor to Digital value and operates as Air Data Function in ADRS.

74
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of the Weather Radar (WXR )?

① WXR is always displayed on both ND and Mini-Map.
② There are two Mode of WX and WX + T.
③ WXR displays the same data on the left and right MFD.

A

② There are two Mode of WX and WX + T.

75
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Alternate Airports display on Alternate Airport Diversions’ Alternate Page 1/2?

① Four Alternate Airport Identifiers are displayed in ETA order for both In Flight and On Ground.
② Iidentifier of four Alternate Airports are displayed in order of ETA in In Flight and in distance order in On Ground.
③ Four Alternate Airport Identifiers are displayed in order of ETA in On Ground and distance by In Flight.

A

② Iidentifier of four Alternate Airports are displayed in order of ETA in In Flight and in distance order in On Ground.

76
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Inertial Reference System (IRS)?

① It consists of 2 IRU(Inertial Referencs Unit) and 2 AHRU (Attitude Heading Reference Unit).
② It consists of 2 IRU(Inertial Referencs Unit) and 4 AHRU (Attitude Heading Reference Unit).
③ It consists of 3 IRU(Inertial Referencs Unit) and 3 AHRU (Attitude Heading Reference Unit).

A

① It consists of 2 IRU(Inertial Referencs Unit) and 2 AHRU (Attitude Heading Reference Unit).

77
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Fuel Balance System operation ?

① Fuel Balance System and Fuel Crossfeed System can automatically Fuel Balancing.
② Fuel Balance is initiated by pushing the fuel balance switch ON.
③ Using Fuel Crossfeed system, manually Fuel Balance available.

A

① Fuel Balance System and Fuel Crossfeed System can automatically Fuel Balancing.

78
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Fuel System?

① Each fuel tank contains two AC–powered fuel pumps.
② The Right main tank contains a DC–powered fuel pump.
③ A single pump can supply sufficient fuel to operate one engine under all conditions.

A

② The Right main tank contains a DC–powered fuel pump.

79
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Fuel Balance System?

① If a problem occurs in the System during Fuel Balance, the EICAS Message is displayed, but the Balance System does not automatically shut down.
② Fuel Transfer is possible by turning on Fuel Balance Switch.
③ Transfer will automatically stop when Fuel enters the Balance state.

A

① If a problem occurs in the System during Fuel Balance, the EICAS Message is displayed, but the Balance System does not automatically shut down.

80
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Fuel Pumps?

① Right Main Tank is equipped with DC-powered Fuel Pump. This Pump ‘s Control and Indicator is only Fuel Synoptic Display.
② The two Center Tank Fuel Pumps are Override / Jettison Pump. These pumps have lower discharge pressure than Left and Right Main Tank Fuel Pump
③ Each Fuel Tank is equipped with two AC-powered Fuel Pumps. In all Conditions, one Pump can supply enough Fuel for one Engine to operate.

A

③ Each Fuel Tank is equipped with two AC-powered Fuel Pumps. In all Conditions, one Pump can supply enough Fuel for one Engine to operate.

81
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Fuel Jettison System?

① The Fuel to Remain Defaults to a fuel quantity that the airplane at Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) when jettison is complete.
② At least 24000 pounds of fuel remains in each main tank after jettison is complete.
③ Fuel Jettison was restricted by Setting Flaps due to implementation restrictions, but refurbished to New fuel jettison nozzle, there is no restriction on setting by Setting Flaps.

A

① The Fuel to Remain Defaults to a fuel quantity that the airplane at Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) when jettison is complete.

82
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Nitrogen Generation System (NGS)?

① Always supply nitrogen to Tank automatically to minimize flammability of Fuel.
② Only supply In-flight nitrogen to Tank to minimize flammability of Fuel.
③ It can be controlled by NGS Switch of Fuel Panel.

A

① Always supply nitrogen to Tank automatically to minimize flammability of Fuel.

83
Q
  1. Which is correct about the hydraulic systems?

① The airplane has three hydraulic systems(left, right, and center), and Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability.
② Hydraulic fluid is supplied smoothly to each hydraulic pump from the associated system reservoir, so the reservoirs are pressurized by engine bleed air.
③ The hydraulic systems power flight control, landing gear, nose gear steering and brake.

A

① The airplane has three hydraulic systems(left, right, and center), and Flight control system components are distributed so that any one hydraulic system can provide adequate airplane controllability.

84
Q
  1. In the non-normal operation, which is correct about the system affected by isolation function of the center hydraulic system?

① Brake
② Flap / Slat
③ Stabilizer

A

② Flap / Slat

85
Q
  1. Which is correct about the condition that RAT (Ram Air Turbine) automatically deploys?

① When a large capacity hydraulic power is required such as takeoff, approach, landing etc.
② When one engine fails at takeoff or landing.
③ When all three hydraulic system pressures are low.

A

③ When all three hydraulic system pressures are low.

86
Q
  1. Which is correct about the center hydraulic electric pump?

① Two electric motor driven pumps always have ELEC C1 as primary pump and C2 as demand pump.
② The two electric motor driven pump alternate as a primary pump and demand pump.
③ When two demand pump selectors are in the AUTO position, primary pump and demand pump always operate after second engine start.

A

② The two electric motor driven pump alternate as a primary pump and demand pump.

87
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about RAT (Ram air turbine)?

① The RAT can be deployed manually by pushing the RAM AIR TURBINE switch.
② In flight, when all the conditions are met, RAT automatically deploys, but until it deploys, main battery is back up the necessary part.
③ Ram air turbine (RAT) is used only for electrical power as emergency source.

A

③ Ram air turbine (RAT) is used only for electrical power as emergency source.

88
Q
  1. Which is the correct system to operate by the hydraulic power?

① Spoiler, Aileron, Flaperon, Thrust Reverser, Brake
② Slat / Flap, Landing Gear, Thrust Reverser, Nose Gear Steering
③ Stabilizer, Elevator, Rudder, Nose Gear Steering

A

② Slat / Flap, Landing Gear, Thrust Reverser, Nose Gear Steering

89
Q
  1. Which is correct about Landing Gear Early Doors Function in B787 -9?

① This function, to improve performance, automatically pre-opens the main landing gear doors one second after lift-off and prior to the pilot moving the gear lever to the UP position.
② The pre-opened main gear door returns to close position if the pilot does not upgrade gear lever within 10 seconds.
③ During a touch-and-go, the early door function is activated when 5 seconds after the ground contact.

A

① This function, to improve performance, automatically pre-opens the main landing gear doors one second after lift-off and prior to the pilot moving the gear lever to the UP position.

90
Q
  1. Which is correct about the brake system?

① It is powered by 4 electric brake actuators for each wheel,
② Nose gear wheel and main gear wheel has the brake.
③ It is powered by 2 hydraulic brake power supply units for each wheel,

A

① It is powered by 4 electric brake actuators for each wheel,

91
Q
  1. Which is incorrect about the condition that the autobrake is disarmed?

① Speedbrake lever is moved to the DOWN detent after the speedbrakes have deployed on the ground
② Pedal braking applied
③ After landing, the ground speed becomes 60 kt or less.

A

③ After landing, the ground speed becomes 60 kt or less.

92
Q
  1. Which is correct about the alternate landing gear extension system?

① All doors and gears uplocks are released using dedicated DC electric hydraulic pump and center hydraulic system fluid.
② When ALTERNATE GEAR Switch is selected at DOWN position, door and gear uplock are released only for main gear.
③ When alternate landing gear extension is set, door and gear uplock cannot be released unless gear lever is set to DOWN position.

A

① All doors and gears uplocks are released using dedicated DC electric hydraulic pump and center hydraulic system fluid.

93
Q
  1. Which is correct about the autobrake system?

① In the RTO position, when the retard thrust lever up to Idle before exceeding 85kt, the maximum brake pressure is automatically supplied.
② It provides automatic braking at preselected deceleration rates for landing and full pressure for rejected takeoff.
③ To maintain the selected airplane deceleration rate and contribute to total deceleration, the autobrake pressure is maintained using other controls, such as thrust reversers and spoilers.

A

② It provides automatic braking at preselected deceleration rates for landing and full pressure for rejected takeoff.

94
Q
  1. Which is correct about the taxi brake release system?

① With using manual brake, during taxi speed, brake of half of each main landing gear (front and rear pair) is activated.
② With using manual brake, during taxi speed, brake of half of each main landing gear (left and Right pair) is activated.
③ With using manual brake, during high speed taxi, this system operates when strong braking is done.

A

① With using manual brake, during taxi speed, brake of half of each main landing gear (front and rear pair) is activated.

95
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Engine Indication and Crew Alerting System (EICAS)?

① EICAS warning messages are displayed in red at the top of the message list.
② EICAS advisory messages are displayed in amber below the lowest caution message and are indented one character so they may be distinguished from EICAS caution messages.
③ EICAS caution messages are displayed in amber below the lowest warning message and are indented one character so they may be distinguished from EICAS warning messages.

A

③ EICAS caution messages are displayed in amber below the lowest warning message and are indented one character so they may be distinguished from EICAS warning messages.

96
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of GPWS Flap Override?

① TOO LOW FLAPS and TOO LOW TERRAIN alerts are inhibited when switching to OVRD.
② EICAS advisory message GPWS FLAP OVRD is displayed when switching to OVRD.
③ Automatically reset immediately after landing.

A

③ Automatically reset immediately after landing.

97
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Predictive Windshear System (PWS) ?

① Windshear alerts (PWS) are enabled during takeoff, approach, and landing when an excessive windshear condition is detected ahead of the airplane.
② As soon as Weather Radar starts Scanning, Alert is Enable.
③ On the ground with the WXR switch pushed or not pushed, weather radar begins scanning for windshear when the thrust of either engine is in the takeoff range and thrust reversers are not unlocked or deployed.

A

② As soon as Weather Radar starts Scanning, Alert is Enable.

98
Q
  1. Which is correct in the description of Thrust Asymmetry Minimum Speed (TAMS)?

① TAMS varies with weight and CG but will always be smaller than minimum control speed during takeoff or go-around.
② When airspeed decreases to TAMS, the PULL UP, PULL UP aural sounds and the Master WARNING light illuminates.
③ TAMS is displayed on the speed tape to provide pilots with situational awareness of the minimum control speed for operation with a large thrust asymmetry.

A

③ TAMS is displayed on the speed tape to provide pilots with situational awareness of the minimum control speed for operation with a large thrust asymmetry.

99
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of Thrust Asymmetry Protection (TAP)?

① TAP is an automatic feature that provides protection against asymmetric thrust during takeoff or go-around by limiting thrust on the higher thrust engine.
② TAP is only available when the flight controls are operating in normal mode, and the EEC is only in normal mode.
③ TAP reduces thrust when the airspeed decreases below approximately V2 on a takeoff or below approximately VREF on a go-around.

A

② TAP is only available when the flight controls are operating in normal mode, and the EEC is only in normal mode.

100
Q
  1. Which is incorrect in the description of GPWS Windshear Alert System

① The Windshear Warning Alert is activated, the Master Warning Light turns on, and the PFD Message show “WINDSHEAR”.
② Windshear Alert (Mode 7) is activated when there is an excessive Downdraft or Tailwind during Takeoff, Approach or Landing; then activates either the Windshear Caution Alert or the Winshear Warning Alert.
③ Mode 7 Windshear Alerting activates under the following conditions: • during Takeoff, from Rotation to achieving an altitude of 1,500 feet • during Approach, from 1,500 feet to 10 feet • during a Missed Approach, until achieving an altitude of 1,500 feet

A

① The Windshear Warning Alert is activated, the Master Warning Light turns on, and the PFD Message show “WINDSHEAR”.

AJX: AW (22 decks)

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