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Mark's PEARLS > Autonomic Drugs > Flashcards

Autonomic Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Sinus bradycardia

A

Atropine

Cholinergic Antagonists

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2
Q

Reversal of non-depolarizing neuromuscular block.

A

Neostigmine

Cholinergic Drug

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3
Q

What is the pharmacologic advantage of alpha-1 selectivity?

A

Reflex tachycardia is less common and less severe.

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4
Q 
Sjorgren Syndrome (Xerostomia, Xerophthalmia; Rheumatoid arthritis) 
(Direct M agonist: M1 M2 M3)
A

Pilocarpine

Cholinergic Drug

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5
Q

Tocolysis for preterm labor

A

Terbutaline
Isoxuprine
(Adrenergic Agonist)

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8
Q

Bronchial Asthma & COPD

A

Salbutamol

Adrenergic Agonist

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9
Q

Small cell cancer may present with myasthenia-like paraneoplastic syndrome. What is this condition called?

A

Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

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10
Q

Motion sickness & Sea sickness

A

Scopolamine

Cholinergic Antagonists

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11
Q

Bowel and bladder her atony (Direct acting M agonist, M2-M3)

A

Bethanecol

Cholinergic Drug

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13
Q

CHOLINERGIC INHIBITOR:

Metabolism

A

Neostigmine

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14
Q

Acute CHF & Shock (cardiogenic & septic)

A

Dopamine

Adrenergic Agonist

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15
Q

Treatment for organophosphate poisoning / nerve gas poisoning.

A

Atropine + Pralidoxime

Cholinergic Antagonists

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17
Q

SE: Hemolytic Anemia (positive Coombs test)

A

Methyldopa

Adrenergic Agonist

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18
Q

Treatment of Alzheimer’s disease. (Acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)

A

Donezepil
Rivastigmine
(Cholinergic Drug)

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20
Q

Diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis, differentiation of myasthenic & cholinergic crisis (Indirect acting cholinomimetic)

A

Edrophonium

Cholinergic Drug

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21
Q

Treatment of Glaucoma.

A

Physostigmine

Cholinergic Drug

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22
Q

CHOLINERGIC INHIBITOR:

Storage

A

Vesamicol

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23
Q

Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease

A

Ipratropium

Cholinergic Antagonists

24
Q

CHOLINERGIC INHIBITOR:

Synthesis?

A

Hemicholinium

25
Q

ADRENERGIC INHIBITOR:

Release

A

Guanethidine

26
Q

What drugs are used to control blood pressure in pheochromocytoma?

A

Phenoxybenzamine, Phentolamine, & Labetalol

Adrenergic Antagonist

27
Q

Nasal congestion & mydriasis without cyclopegia.

A

Phenylephrine

Adrenergic Agonist

29
Q

Treatment of Glaucoma

A

Timolol & Betaxolol

Adrenergic Antagonist

30
Q

Preoperative treatment of pheochromocytoma.

A

Phenoxybenzamine

Adrenergic Antagonist

31
Q

Angina prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism, & masks hypoglycemia in diabetics.
SE: Bronchospasm & Erectile dysfunction

A

Pindolol, Acetabulol, Carteolol, Labetalol

Adrenergic Antagonist

32
Q

Gastrointestinal spasm

A

Hyoscyamine

Cholinergic Antagonists

32
Q

Alpha > Beta receptor affinity

A

Norepinephrine

Adrenergic Agonist

32
Q

Benign Prostatic hyperplasia

SE: First dose orthostatic hypotension

A

Prazosin

Adrenergic Antagonist

32
Q

ADRENERGIC INHIBITOR:

Metabolism

A

MAOIs

COMTIs

34
Q

Treatment of Myasthenia gravis

A

Neostigmine

Cholinergic Drug

35
Q

SE: Rebound hypertension on discontinuation.

A

Clonidine

Adrenergic Agonist

36
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of organophosphate poisoning?

A

D-iarrhea, U-rination, M-iosis, B-ronchospasm & Bradycardia, E-xcitation & Emesis, L-acrimation, S-weating & salivation

37
Q

DOC for Anaphylactic shock, adjunct to local anesthesia, cardiac arrest, &Croup.

A

Epinephrine

Adrenergic Agonist

37
Q

Combined alpha & beta blockade.

A

Carvedilol and Labetalol

Adrenergic Antagonist

37
Q

ADRENERGIC INHIBITOR:

Synthesis

A

Metyrosine

37
Q

ADRENERGIC INHIBITOR:

Reuptake

A

Cocaine, TCAs

38
Q

CHOLINERGIC INHIBITOR:

Release

39
Q

ADRENERGIC INHIBITOR:

Storage

40
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

Biperiden

Cholinergic Antagonists

41
Q

Acute CHF & cardiac stress testing.

A

Dobutamine

Adrenergic Agonist

42
Q

Diagnosis of bronchial hyperreactivity (Direct acting M agonist, M3)

A

Methacoline

Cholinergic Drug

43
Q

Beta-1 selectivity

A

Nevibolol, Betaxolol, Esmolol, & Atenolol

Adrenergic Antagonist

44
Q

Induction of mydriasis and cyclopegia.

A

Tropicamide

Cholinergic Antagonists

44
Q

Treatment of rebound hypertension.

A

Phentolamine

Adrenergic Antagonist

Mark's PEARLS (24 decks)

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