Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Small Animal Internal Medicine > Antimicrobials > Flashcards

Antimicrobials Flashcards

1
Q

A bactericidal drug often interferes with ____ or ____ synthesis.

A
  1. Cell wall

2. Nucleic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A bacteriostatic drug often interferes with ____ and ____.

A
  1. Protein synthesis

2. Metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which drugs are bacteriostatic?

A

“SulfTetMacChlor”

  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Sulfanomides
  3. Trimethoprim
  4. Clindamycin
  5. Doxycycline
  6. Macrolides
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which drugs are bactericidal?

A

“BANF”

  1. Beta-lactams
  2. FQ
  3. Aminoglycosies
  4. TMS
  5. Vancomycin
  6. Metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are 2 conditions in which you would want to use a drug that is bactericidal over one that is bacteriostatic?

A
  1. Immunosuppressed patient

2. Life-threatening infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Lowest concentration of an AB that will inhibit growth of a microorganism after incubation with it.

A

MIC (minimum inhibitory concentration)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Residual effect of antibiotics after concentrations have gone below MIC.

A

Post-antibiotic effect (PAE)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which will have more of a post-antibiotic effect, time-dependent antibiotics or concentration-dependent antibiotics?

A

Concentration-dependent antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which is consistent with a time-dependent drug: (1) giving multiple doses daily or (2) giving a single high dose / day?

A

(1) giving multiple doses daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which is consistent with a concentration-dependent drug: (1) giving multiple doses daily or (2) giving a single high dose / day?

A

(2) giving a single high dose / day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which drugs are time-dependent?

A
  1. Penicillins
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Carbapenems
  4. Macrolides
  5. Lincosamides
  6. Tetracyclines
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which drugs are concentration-dependent?

A
  1. Aminoglycosides
  2. FQ
  3. Metronidazole
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Are beta-lactams bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

Bactericidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Are beta-lactams time-dependent or concentration-dependent?

A

Time-dependent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the MOA of beta-lactams?

A

Block cell wall synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Will concentration of a beta-lactam be higher in the urine or in the serum?

A

Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are beta-lactams excreted?

A

Via urinary system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Penicillins have excellent efficacy against gram ____ and ____.

A
  1. Gram (+)

2. Anaerobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What makes up Clavamox (2 components)?

A
  1. Amoxicillin

2. Clavulanic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What makes up Unasyn (2 components)?

A
  1. Ampicillin

2. Sulbactam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is Cefoxitin?

A

2nd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is Cefepime?

A

4th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is cephalexin?

A

1st

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Which generation of cephalosporin is cefpodoxime?

A

3rd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Which generation of cephalosporin is cefovecin (convenia)?
3rd
26
Going from 1st generation cephalosporins to 4th generation cephalosporins, there is increasing action against what type of bacteria?
Gram (-)
27
What are the ONLY beta-lactams that have post-antibiotic effects?
Carbapenems
28
True or False: Carbapenems can be administered orally, IV, and SC.
FALSE - Carbapenems cannot be administered orally.
29
What is most widely used Glycopeptide?
Vancomycin
30
Is vancomycin bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bactericidal
31
What is the MOA of vancomycin?
Inhibits cell wall synthesis
32
Is vancomycin time-dependent or concentration-dependent?
Time-dependent
33
Are FQ bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bactericidal
34
Are FQ time or concentration-dependent?
Concentration-dependent
35
What is the MOA of FQ?
Disruption of DNA synthesis
36
Are FQ most effective against gram (+) or gram (-) bacteria?
Gram (-)
37
True or False: FQs have good efficacy against anaerobes.
FALSE
38
FQs are highly lipophilic, allow for excellent penetration of ____ and ____ infections.
1. Prostatic | 2. Respiratory
39
In which 2 animals should the use of FQs be avoided?
1. Cats | 2. Young animals
40
Why should FQs be avoided in cats?
Retinal degeneration
41
Why should FQs be avoided in young animals (less than 7 months)?
Cartilage/joint toxicity
42
Which of the following interferes with cytochrome P450 activity, Cephalosporins, Beta-lactams, or FQs?
FQs
43
Sulfonamides and Trimethoprim both inhibit what?
Folate metabolism
44
Trimethoprim, unlike the sulfonamides, inhibits what?
Dihydrofolate reductase
45
The sulfonamides, unlike Trimethoprim, are competitive inhibitors of what?
Pteridin synthase
46
What are the adverse effects associated with Sulfonamides?
1. KCS 2. Hepatotoxicity 3. Bone marrow suppression 4. Polyarthritis 5. Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia
47
What 3 tests would you want to run to monitor side effects associated with sulfonamides?
1. CBC 2. Shirmer tear test 3. Liver panel
48
What is amikacin?
Aminoglycoside
49
Name 3 other aminoglycosides.
1. Gentamicin 2. Tobramycin 3. Neomycin
50
What are 2 adverse effects associated with aminoglycosides?
1. Nephrotoxicity | 2. Ototoxicity
51
What is the mechanism of chloramphenicol?
Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding to 50s
52
Is chloramphenicol bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Bacteriostatic
53
What adverse effects are associated with chloramphenicol use in cats and dogs?
Bone marrow suppression (REVERSIBLE)
54
What is the MOA of tetracyclines?
Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding 30s
55
What are the adverse effects of tetracyclines?
1. Vomiting 2. Esophageal strictures (cats) 3. Hepatopathy 4. Dental discoloration
56
True or False: Dental discoloration has been reported with all tetracyclines.
FALSE - dental discoloration is NOT well reported with Doxycycline.
57
What type of AB is Clindamycin?
Lincosamide
58
What is the MOA of Lincosamides?
Inhibition of protein synthesis by binding 50s
59
Lincosamides will achieve high concentrations in what?
Leukocytes
60
What is the spectrum of Lincosamides like Clindamycin?
Gram (+) Anaerobes Protozoans (Toxoplasma, Neospora)
61
What is azithromycin?
Macrolide
62
Name 2 other Macrolides.
1. Clarithromycin | 2. Tylosin
63
What is the MOA of the Macrolides?
Inhibit protein synthesis by binding 50s
64
The Macrolides achieve high concentration in what?
Tissues
65
What is the spectrum of the Macrolides?
Gram (+) / some gram (-) Mycobacterium

Small Animal Internal Medicine (36 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions