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Anatomy > Anatomy and Physiology Yr2 exam > Flashcards

Anatomy and Physiology Yr2 exam Flashcards

1
Q

The telencephalon and the diencephalon form the…..

A

forebrain

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2
Q

the telencephalon and diencephalon start off as the….

A

prosencephalon

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3
Q

the diencephalon consists mainly of the….

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

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4
Q

endocrine cells secrete their hormones directly…..

A

into the blood

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5
Q

where does the cerebellum send the signals that representation the difference of intent?

A

Purkinje cells send signal from cerebellum to deep nuclei - dentate.

Deep nuclei - relayed to thalamus

thalamus to pre-motor cortex

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6
Q

where do upper motor neurone cell bodies lie?

A

In a nucleus of the brain stem, or the spinal cord

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7
Q

What is the name of upper neurone tracts that synapse on motor nuclei in the brainstem?

A

Corticobulbar tracts

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8
Q

What is the lateral corticospinal tract responsible for?

A

Fractionation of movement (independent movemnt of individual muscles)

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9
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

In the brainstem (medullary pyramids) to synapse directly on LMN throughout the spinal cord

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10
Q

That three tracts compose the corticospinal pathway?

A

Corticobulbar tract

Lateral corticospinal tract

Anterior corticospinal tract

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11
Q

what are basal nuclei?

A

masses of grey matter lying within each hemisphere

thalamus, caudate nucleus, putamen, globus pallidus, hypothalamus, substantia nigra, subthalamic nucleus

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12
Q

what does the basal nuclei do?

A

control and adjust muscle tone.

Eg. subconsiously the shoulder and arm is stablised to voluntarily pick up a pencil.

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13
Q

What can cause an increase in muscle tone characteristic of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Damage to the substantia nigra, or a reduction in secretion of dopamine. This causes the basal nuclei to become more active.

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14
Q

Parkinson’s is a hypokinetic disorder othe basal nuclei, name two hyperkinetic disorders

A
  1. Huntington’s disease - genetic disorder, degeneration of basal ganglia and thus dis-inhibition and excessive output from motor cortex
  2. Dystonia
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15
Q

Two primary functions of the cerebellum

A
  1. Adjusting the postural muscles
  2. Programming and fine-tuning movements controlled at the conscious and subconsious levels. Refines learned movement patterns.
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16
Q

What is ataxia?

A

Voluntary, normal strenth jerky and inaccurate movements that are not associated with hyper-stiffness.

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17
Q

What is Dysarthria?

A

Slurred poorly articulated speech

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18
Q

What is different about the ANS compared to the SMS regarding the motor anatomical system?

A

The ANS has TWO lower moto neurones in its pathway

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19
Q

What does the sympathetic nervous system demonstrate before reaching its target effector? And WHY?

A

Convergence

Allows the SNS to respond in a more generalised way.

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20
Q

The SNS exhibits convergence, the PNS exhibits….

A

Divergence.

Thus the effects are more localised and specific, the PNS is designed to respond in a specific way

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21
Q

What is the Corticospinal pathway composed of?

A

The corticobulbar tracts

The lateral corticospinal tracts

The anterior corticospinal tracts

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22
Q

Where does the lateral corticospinal tract decussate?

A

In the brainstem (medullary pyramids)

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23
Q

What inhibits the basal nuclei?

A

Neurons in the substantia nigra (via dopamine)

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24
Q

Huntington’s disease is an example of a……?

A

Hyperkinetic disorder

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25
Q

What are the signs of Huntington’s disease?

A

Involuntary jerky rapid body movements and dementia.

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26
Q

How does the cerebellum adjust movement?

A

It compares the intended motor command with the proprioceptive sensory feedback, and makes any adjustments needed to make the movement smooth.

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27
Q

What do the semicircular ducts detect?

A

Motion in one of three rotational planes

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28
Q

What is the name of the calcium carbonate crystals found within maculae of the utricle and saccules?

A

Statoconia

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29
Q

The statoconia on top of the macula detect what?

A

Changes in head position

Perception of linear acceleration

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30
Q

With hearing, what’s the name of the membrane that the hair cells vibrate against?

A

Tectorial membrane

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31
Q

Where do neurons from the cochlear nerve go to?

A

The cochlear nuclei in the medulla.

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32
Q

Where do neurons from the cochlear nuclei (of the medulla) go?

A

To the inferior colliculus

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33
Q

Which part of the brain processes information to determine auditory reflexes?

A

Inferior colliculus

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34
Q

Where do ascending auditory sensations synapse before reaching the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe?

A

Medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

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35
Q

The auditory cortex contains a map of the….

A

Organ of Corti

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36
Q

What are the two ganglion for parasympathetic nerve supply to the salivary glands?

A

Submandibular

Otic

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37
Q

Where does the vestibular nerve go?

A

To the vestibular nuclei at the boundary of the pons and the medulla

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38
Q

What are the four functions of the vestibular nuclei?

A

Integrating sensory information about balance and equilibrium

Relaying information to the cerebellum

Relaying information to the cerebral cortex – conscious sense of head position and movement

Sending commands to motor nuclei in the brain stem and spinal cord

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39
Q

What is the main neurotransmitter in the autonomic nervous system?

A

Acetylcholine

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40
Q

The main neurotransmitter in the ANS is acetylcholine, except for the ……. Sympathetic synapse, which is often ……

A

Postganglionic

Adrenaline

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41
Q

Where are the cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

In the lateral gray horns

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42
Q

What does thyroid hormone do?

A

Stimulates ATP synthesis and energy metabolism

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43
Q

Where are thyroid hormones held in storage?

A

In the cytoplasmic receptors in almost every cell of the body.

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44
Q

What is the name of the disease associated with too much thyroid hormone? And a unique symptom

A

Graves’ disease (autoimmune disease)

Exophthalmos

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45
Q

What is the name of the disease associated with iodine deficiency , and the symptoms?

A

Myxedema

Oedematous, puffy appearance due to accumulation of water-holding carbohydrates in the skin

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46
Q

What does the adrenal cortex produce?

A

Corticosteroids

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47
Q

What are the caudate and putamen collectively known as?

A

Corpus striatum

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48
Q

Which transport protein binds to corticosteroids in the blood?

A

Transcortins

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49
Q

What does aldosterone do?

A

Causes the retention of Na+ ions (sodium), and prevents Na+ loss.

Secondary function … the reabsorption of Na+ enhances the osmotic reabsorption of water.

Also… increases the sensitivity of salt receptors in the tongue taste buds.

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50
Q

What does cortisol (glucocorticoids) promote?

A

Gluconeogenesis (glucose synthesis)

Glycogenesis (glycogen formation)

Lipolysis (breaking down of fatty acids)

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51
Q

What effect to glucocorticoids have on the immune system?

A

Slows the migration of phagocytic cells

Mast cells are less likely to release histamine

< swelling and irritation

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52
Q

How are secretory activities of the suprarenal medulla controlled? And what does it produce?

A

Sympathetic n.s.

Epinephrine (adrenaline)

Norepinephrine (noradrenaline)

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53
Q

What does gross sympathetic activation cause?

A

stimulation of reticular activating system ‘on edge’
> energy feeling
cv and res centre activity in brainstem… leading to?….
muscle tone (via medial and lateral pathways)
mobilization of energy stores

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54
Q

Gap junctions are a form of ….. communication. What are the requirements for this type of communication?

A

Direct

Two cells of the same type

Cells must be in physical contact

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55
Q

What is paracrine communication?

A

Use of chemical messengers to transfer information from cell to cell within a single tissue. Chemical also known as local hormones, eg. Prostaglandins.

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56
Q

The activity of hormones in coordinating cellular activities in tissues in distant portions of the body is called….

A

Endocrine communication

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57
Q

What do cells needs to respond to endocrine communication?

A

Receptors

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58
Q

Name the three section of an embryonic neural tube

A

Prosencephalon (forebrain)

Mesencephalon (midbrain)

Rhomboencephalon (hindbrain)

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59
Q

What is the main function of the hypothalamus?

A

Integration of the nervous and endocrine systems

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60
Q

How can endocrine reflexes be triggered?

A

Humoral stimuli (changes in composition of extracellular fluid)

Hormonal stimuli

Neural stimuli

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61
Q

What does the hypothalamus secrete?

A

Regulatory hormones

(hormones that control endocrine cells in the pituitary gland)

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62
Q

How does the hypothalamus implement control?

A

By releasing regulatory hormones

By synthesising hormones itself

By neural control via the sympathetic NS

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63
Q

What is the nerve relationship between the hypothalamus and the suprarenal medullae?

A

Hypothalamus contains autonomic centres (sympathetic control) that cause the suprarenal medullae to release hormones in the bloodstream.

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64
Q

What is another name for the posterior pituitary?

A

Neurohypophysis

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65
Q

Another name for the anterior pituitary?

A

Adenohypophysis

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66
Q

What hormones does the hypothalamus produce?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

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67
Q

What hormones are released by the posterior / neurohypophysis pituitary gland?

A

ADH and Oxytocin

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68
Q

How are hormones from the anterior pituitary gland regulated?

A

By specific regulatory hormones secreted by the hypothalamus.

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69
Q

What are the 7 hormones from the adenohypophysis? (posterior pituitary)

A

Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) Two gonadotropins;

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

luteinizing hormone (LH)

Prolactin

Growth hormone

Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH)

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70
Q

What does TSM (thyroid-stimulating hormone - thyrotropin) do?

A

From the anterior pituitary it targets the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormone

Released in reponse to thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH) from the hypothalamus

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71
Q

What does ACTH do? (adrenocorticotropic hormone), corticotropin?

A

Stimulates the release of steroid hormones (glucocorticoids) by the suprarenal cortex.

Released via stimulation of cortico-releasing hormone (CRH) from hypothalamus

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72
Q

What do the gonadotropins do (follicle stimulating hormone and luteinizing hormone?

A

Regulate the gonads.

Stimulated by gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) from the hypothalamus.

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73
Q

What does prolactin do?

A

Stimulates development of the mammary gland

Also stimulates milk production during pregnancy.

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74
Q

What inhibits prolactin?

A

Dopamine, which is also known as prolactin-inhibiting hormone (PIH)

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75
Q

What does GH do (somatotropin)?

A

Stimulates cell growth and replication by accelerating the rate of protein synthesis and cell division

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76
Q

Which nuclei contain the neurones that manufacture ADH and oxytocin?

A

Supraoptic nuclei – ADH

Paraventricular nuclei – oxytocin

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77
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Decrease amount of water lost at kidneys.

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78
Q

What does high concentrations of ADH do?

A

Vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels – elevates BP

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79
Q

What happens to ADH when you drink alcohol?

A

ADH release is inhibited – thus increased fluid excretion

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80
Q

What does oxytocin do?

A

Stimulates smooth muscle contractions and milk let down

Promotoes labor and delivery

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81
Q

Where is oxytocin secreted?

A

Mainly uterus and fetus, not the hypothalamus

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82
Q

Functions of Oxytocin

A

the expression of love and human morality…
peaks at orgasms, and rises during sexual arousal.

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83
Q

whats another name for the Telencephalon?

A

Cerebrum

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84
Q

Prosencephalon divides into …

A

telencephalon

dicencephalon

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85
Q

another name for the medulla oblongata

A

Myelencephalon

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86
Q

another name for the cerebellum and pons

A

metencephalon

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87
Q

the rhomboencephalon divides into …

A

Metencephalon

Myelencephalon

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88
Q

another name for columns (in the spinal tract)?

A

funiculi

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89
Q

Examples of neuroglia in the cns (4)

A

Astrocytes

Oligodentrocytes

Microglia

Ependymal cells

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90
Q

What do ependymal cells do (cns)?

A

Line ventricles and central canal. Assist in producing, circulating and monitoring csf

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91
Q

What do microglia do (cns)?

A

Remove cell debris, wastes, and pathogens by phagocytosis

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92
Q

What do astrocytes do (cns)?

A

maintain blood-brain barrier

provide structural support

regulate ions, nutrients, dissolved gas concentrations

absorb and recycle neurotransmitters

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93
Q

what do oligodentrocytes (cns) do?

A

myelinate cns axons

provide structural framework

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94
Q

What are the three broad categories of receptors?

A

Interoceptors

Exteroceptors

Propioceptors

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95
Q

what are the characteristics of free nerve endings?

A

stimulated by many different stimuli, and thus exhibit little receptor specificity

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96
Q

what’s another name for the dorsal column pathway?

A

medial lemniscus pathway

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97
Q

what and where is the solitary nucleus?

A

A large nucleus in the medulla.

It’s a major processing and sorting centre for visceral sensory info (VII, IX, X)

Also for dorsal roots of spinal nerves T1-S4 carrying visceral sensory info

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98
Q

What does a nephron consist of?

A

a renal Tubule (long tube) and a renal Corpuscle (contains filtrate from arterioles)

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99
Q

What does the filtration membrane consist of?

A

Fenestratad endothelium (allows all components of blood plasma to pass through, except blood cells)

Basal lamina (prevents filtration of larger proteins)

Filtration slits (slit membrane between pedicles prevents filtration of medium-sized proteins)

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100
Q

What passes from the glomerulus into the filtrate (via Bowman’s capsule)?

A

Water and small solutes

Also; glucose, free fatty acids, amino acids, vitamins, another other solutes

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101
Q

What is the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)

A

volume of fluid filtered from the renal glomerular capillaries into the Bowman’s capsule per unit time

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102
Q

How is GFR measured?

A

creatinine clearance test

* creatinine is from the breakdown of creatine phosphate in muscle tissue, and it eliminated in urine.

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103
Q

What is glomerulonephritis?

A

Inflammation of the glomeruli that affects the filtration mechanism of the kidneys

Often immune complex disorder (>>> antigen-antibody complexes) following strephococcus bacterial infection.

These complexes clog up the filtration slits

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104
Q

Three control mechanisms of GFR

A

Autoregulation - local level

Hormonal regulation - initiated by kidneys

Automonic regulation - sympathetic n.s. primarily.

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105
Q

What is myogenic auto regulation?

A

arteriole contraction or relaxation by automatic reflexes due to pressure changes

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106
Q

What is the juxtaglomerular complex?

A

a region between afferent and efferent arterioles.

An endocrine structure that secretes erthropoietin (a hormone) and the enzyme renin.

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107
Q

What stimulates renin from juxtaglomerular complex? (3)

A
  1. drop in blood pressure
  2. stimulation of juxtaglomerular cells by sympathetic inn.
  3. decline in osmotic conc. of tubular fluid at the macula densa.
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108
Q

Why and where is renin released?

A

By the juxtaglomerular cells.

In respond to a reduction in GFR and a number of other factors.

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109
Q

What does Renin do?

A

It converts inactive protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I in the blood

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110
Q

What happens to angiotensin I (which is also inactive)?

A

Converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE), primarily in the lung capillaries.

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111
Q

Angiotensin II is an active hormone. What does it do?

A

At nephron - Constricts the efferent arteriole (>> GFR and glomerular pressure)

At suprarenal glands - Stimulates secretion of aldosterone (cortex).

At cns - causes thirst sensation, triggers ADH release, increases sympathetic motor tone

At peripheral capillary bed - brief but powerful vasoconstriction of arterioles >> arterial pressure

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112
Q

Aldosterone… in the DCT and cortical portion of the collecting system

A

accelerates Sodium reabsorption

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113
Q

How does the sympathetic n.s. affect the GFR?

A

Powerful decrease - vasoconstriction of afferent and efferent arterioles.

  • used for acute fall in BP or heart attack
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114
Q

What can cause proteinuria?

A

Endurance training because glomerular cells have been injured by prolonged hypoxia

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115
Q

Dorsal columns – gracilis and cuneate

Fine touch, conscious proprioception

Stays on ipsilateral side until the medulla. Decussates at medulla. Synapse to thalamus. Synpases to

A
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116
Q

What is the inn. for the ciliary muscle of the eye?

A

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibres from the Ciliary ganglion

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117
Q

what do photoreceptors detect?

A

photons (unit of light). Our eyes are sensitive to 700-400nm

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118
Q

what happens to visual nerve collaterals that don’t go to the lateral geniculate of the thalamus?

A

they synapse in the superior colliculi or the hypothalamus

119
Q

what does the superior colliculi of the mesencephalon do with visual input?

A

issue commands that control unconsious eye, head, or neck movements in response to visual stimuli

120
Q

what do visual inputs to the pineal gland do?

A

establish a daily pattern of visceral activity in the hypothalamus related to day-night cycle

121
Q

what’s the difference between facilitated transport and co-transport?

A

Facilitated transport - passive transport across a membrane by carrier proteins. There is no continuous channel, just a temporary change in protein structure.

Co-transport - carrier protein transports two substances in the same direction simultaneously.

122
Q

What happens if the Transport Maximum of glucose out of the lumen is exceeded?

A

hyperglycaemia

123
Q

permeability characteristics of the descending limb of the nephron loop?

A

Permeable to water but relatively impermeable to solutes.

124
Q

Permeability characteristics of the ascending loop of the nephron

A

relatively impermeable to both water and solutes.

Contains active transport mechanisms that pump Na+ and Cl- ions from the tubular fluid to the peritubular fluid of medulla.

125
Q

What controls the permeability of the DCT and CCD (cortical collecting duct)

A

Aldosterone from the adrenal gland and ADH from the pituitary

126
Q

What does aldosterone do in the nephron?

A

It controls sodium (Na+) ion pumps along most of the DCT and the proximal portion of the collecting system. (Cl- ions follow Na+ because positive attracts negative).

127
Q

one line summary of pathology of Parkinson’s disease

A

‘progressive degeneration of cells within the pars compacta of the substantia nigra iin the midbrain’

128
Q

How is the hypothalamus stimulated? (3)

A
  1. Sensory info from the cerebrum, brain stem, spinal cord
  2. Changes in the composition of csf and interstitial fluid
  3. chemical stimuli in the circulating blood that enters the hypothalamus
129
Q

Damage to the lateral geniculate nuclei of the thalamus would affect what?

A

vision

130
Q

what is the releasing hormone for TSH (from hypothalamus?

A

TRH (thyrotropin-releasing hormone)

131
Q

what stimulates the release of ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)

A

hypothalamus - cortico-releasing hormone

132
Q

what is special about the spinothalamic tract?

A

Decusses at same segment, or one close by

133
Q

where is ADH made, and where is ADH stored?

A

made in hypothalamus, stored in posterior pituitary gland

134
Q

how to hormones get from the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary gland?

A

portal blood system

135
Q

Monoaminergic neurons have which neurotransmitters? (3)

A

Dopamine

Noradrenaline

Serotonin

136
Q

What is the crus cerebri?

A

A continuum with the internal capsule witihin the brainstem. Primarily motor; corticospinal and corticobulbar tracts.

137
Q

where do the first order neurones of the dorsal columns terminate?

A

at the mid-medulla, namely the gracile and cuneate nuclei, they then decuss.

138
Q

What is the name of the fibres in the medulla that the 2nd order neurones become?

A

internal arcuate fibres

139
Q

What is the name of the tract that the dorsal column neurons follow after decussing in the mid-medulla?

A

medial lemniscus (runs through rostral medulla, pons and midbrain). Terminates at 3rd order neurons at the thalamus

140
Q

Where are the superior and inferior colliculus found?

A

In the midbrain

141
Q

The ascending auditory projection goes to the….

A

lateral lemiscus and then the inferior colliculus.

142
Q

After the interior colliculus, where do the auditory fibres go?

A

medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus, and afterwards to the auditory cortex of the temporal lobe.

143
Q

The superior colliculus of the rostal midbrain is part of the…..

A

visual system (more specifically eye movements with smooth pursuit or saccadic eye movements)

144
Q

What is a crossed extensor reflex?

A

Association neurones connecting to motor neurones that innervate the extensor muscles in the opposite leg. These muscles contract and extend the opposite leg, preventing the animal from collapsing when it lifts its other leg off the sharp object.

145
Q

What happens in the PCT? (4)

A

Reabsorption. 99 percent of the glucose, amino acids, and other organic nutrients in the fluid. A combination of facilitated transport and co-transport.

  1. Active/Passive Reabsorption of Ions. The PCT actively transports several ions, including sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate ions The ion pumps may be influenced by circulating ion or hormone levels.
  2. The PCT indirectly recaptures roughly 90 percent of the bicarbonate ions from tubular fluid. Bicarbonate is important in stabilizing blood pH.

Reabsorption of Water. Osmosis pulls water out of the tubular fluid and into the peritubular fluid. Along the PCT, this mechanism results in the reabsorption of roughly 108 litres of water each day.

Secretion. Active secretion also occurs along the PCT.

146
Q

What happens with diabetes?

A

High levels of glucose in the filtrate exceeds the Tm (transport out of the lumen) of the carrier proteins so sugar is excreted in the urine (hyperglycaemia)

147
Q

What is reabsorbed in the nephron loop?

A

Roughly half of the water, and2/3 of the Na+ and Cl- ions, remaining in the tubular fluid

148
Q

What is the chacteristic of the descending limb?

A

Permeable to water but relatively impermeable to solutes

149
Q

What are the characteristics of the thick ascending limb?

A

Relatively impermeable to both water and solutes, contains active transport mechanisms that pump Na+ and Cl- ions from the tubular fluid into the peritubular fluid of the medulla.

150
Q

what happens down the descending loop?

A

water diffuses out and the filtrate concentration of NaCl builds up.

It is highest at the bottom of the loop

151
Q

What happens in the ascending loop?

A

Water is retained in the filtrate and NaCl is actively pumped out

152
Q

Ionic exchange - study this diagram

A
153
Q

The cells of the DCT and cortical collecting duct regulate water and ion permeability under the control of ……

A

Aldosterone (from adrenal cortex) &

ADH (from pituitary gland)

154
Q

What does Aldosterone do?

A

Controls Na+ pumps along most of the DCT and the proximal portion of the collecting system

155
Q

What does ADH do?

A

Inserts water channels into the cells of the DCT and CCD. Water is therefore absorbed down the concentration gradient created by aldosterone

156
Q

Age-related changes affect kidney function (2) and the micturition reflex (3)

A

A Reduction in the GFR.This reduction results from fewer glomeruli, cumulative damage to the filtration apparatus in the remaining glomeruli, and diminished renal blood flow.

A Reduced Sensitivity to ADH. Reabsorption of water and sodium ions occurs at a reduced rate, and more sodium ions are lost in urine.

Problems with the Micturition Reflex.Three factors are involved in such problems: (1) The sphincter muscles lose muscle tone and become less effective at voluntarily retaining urine.

(2) The ability to control micturition can be lost after a stroke, Alzheimer disease, or other CNS problems affecting the cerebral cortex or hypothalamus.
(3) In males, urinary retention may develop if enlargement of the prostate gland compresses the urethra and restricts the flow of urine.

157
Q

what’s another name for the dorsal column pathway?

A

medial lemniscus pathway

158
Q

what does the medial lemniscus pathway (dorsal columns) detect?

A

discriminative touch, conscious proprioception, vibration

159
Q

where do the 1st order neurons of the lemniscus tract decussate?

A

dorsal medulla - gracilis and cuneate nuclei

160
Q

what is the crus cerebri?

A

The anterior portion of the cerebral peduncle which contains the motor tracts

161
Q

what are the names of the two speech areas in the brain?

A

Broca

Wernicke

162
Q

whats the triad of clinical symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Tremor - resting/ pin-rolling

Rigidity - ‘lead-pipe’

Bradykinesia (also affects the face)

IMP: signs are strikingly asymmetric

Other signs; stooped posture, shuffling, asymmetric arm swing, micrographia

163
Q

What is chorea?

A

Rapid, irregular, unpredictable, ‘fidgety’ like movements.

Long term complication of Parkinson’s treatment with L-Dopa

164
Q

Function of oligodendrocytes

A

Production of myelin sheath in cns axons

165
Q

where is the dentate nucleus?

A

in the cerebellum. Largest nuclei in cerebellum.

166
Q

what is the ophthalmic artery a branch of ?

A

internal carotid artery

167
Q

name the four arteries in the diagram

A

anterior inferior cerebellar artery

vertebral artery

anterior spinal artery

posterior inferior cerebellar artery

168
Q

primary motor cortex is also known as the….

A

precentral gyrus

169
Q

structures in the pyramidal tract (corticospinal) - 6

A

motor cortex

corona radiata

internal capsule

crus cerebri (in midbrain)

pons

medulla - pyrimidal decussation

170
Q

label structures

A

caudate nucleus

putamen

globus pallidus

thalamus

171
Q

Diagram of embryological development of neural tube

A
172
Q

what is the diencephalon composed of?

A

thalamus

hypothalamus

173
Q

what nuclei is the neurohypophysis produce ADH and oxytocin?

A

supraoptic nuclei - ADH

paraventricular nuclei - oxytocin

174
Q

Four main characteristics of insulin

A
  • stimulates glucose utilization
  • enhances ATP prduction
  • Stimulates carbodydrates storage (glycogen)
  • Stimulates lipid (triglyceride) storage in adipose tissue
175
Q

Four important facts about glucagon

A
  • reduces glucose consumption
  • stimulates breakdown of glycogen stores (carbodydrates)
  • stimulates breakdown of triglycerides
  • stimulates glyconeogeneis (a.a. > glucose in Liver)
176
Q

How are insulin and glucagon levels controlled?

A

They respond to change in glucose levels. Indirectly by hormones that affect glucose levels.

Insulin is stimulated by parasympathetic, inhibited by sympathetic

177
Q

The suprarenal medulla has four main actions that supplement the sympathetic n.s. via the action of noradrenaline and adrenaline, what are they?

A
  1. Mobilization of glycogen stores in skeletal muscle and acceleration of glucose breakdown to provide ATP. Increases musclar strength and endurance.
  2. Adipose tissue - fats - fatty acids - into bloodstream for ATP production
  3. Liver - glycogen - glucose for neural tissues
  4. Heart - increase in rate and strength of cardiac muscle contractions
178
Q

Name some complications of diabetes mellitus (6)

A
  • diabetic retinopathy
  • diabetic neuropathy
  • diabetic nephropathy
  • degenerative cardiac changes
  • problems with blood flow to feet
  • cataracts
179
Q

What do Delta and F cells do in the pancreas?

A

Produce inhibiting hormones that reduce gut absorption and gallbladder contraction

180
Q

How is the cerebellum connected to the brainstem?

A

Via the interior, middle and superior cerebellar peduncles.

181
Q

The functions of the cerebellum are entirely….. and it functions at an …… level

A

motor

unconscious

182
Q

In a sentence, what does the cerebellum do?

A

Controls maintenance of equilibrium (balance), influences posture, and muscle tone and coordinates movement.

183
Q

Gross external anatomy of the cerebellum

A

two laterally located hemispheres joined in the midline by the vermis.

Divided into three lobes; anterior, posterior and flocculonodular lobes

184
Q

There are four nuclei in the cerebellum, what is the name of the one that is most visible?

A

dentate nucleus

185
Q

The grey matter of the cerebellar cortex is divided into three layers

A

outer fibre rich - molecular layer

intermediate - Purkinje cell layer

inner - granular layer

186
Q

Where do afferent fibres to the cerebellum come from ? (4)

A

spinal cord (spinocerebellar fibres)

inferior olivary nucleus (olivocerebellar fibres)

vestibular nuclei (vestibulocerebellar fibres)

pons (pontocerebellar fibres)

187
Q

What are the functional subdivisions of the cerebellum?

A

Archicerebellum. The oldest and associated with the flocculonodular lobe

Paleocerebellum

Neocerebellum; the majority of the cerebellum

188
Q

What is the function of the archicerebellum?

A

Maintenance of balance

Extensive connections with vestibular and reticular nuclei. Vestibulospinal and reticulospinal connections.

189
Q

What is the function of the neocerebellum?

A

muscular coordination, including trajectory, speed and force of movement.

mainly connected with pontine nuclei.

190
Q

What happens with a midline lesion of the cerebellum?

A

Loss of postural control

Symptoms usually ipsilateral.

intention tremor

nystagmus

if bilateral (alcohol); dysarthria, cerebellar ataxia

191
Q

What is Charcot’s triad?

A

nystagmus

dysarthria

intention tremor

  • triad of symptoms commonly associated with m.s.
192
Q

What is the central sulcus?

A

The boundary between the frontal and parietal lobes

193
Q

What type of hormone is aldosterone and where is it produced?

A

Steroid (mineralocorticoid)

Adrenal cortex

194
Q

What stimulates the secretion of aldosterone?

A

Main one – rise in K+ levels

Also; drop in Na+ content, blood volume, or blood pressure (monitored by stretch receptors in atrium), or a rise in K+ concentration.

Also – released in response to angiotensin II

195
Q

why get you get raising of the eyebrow in UMN lesion, and not with Bell’s Palsy?

A
196
Q

what does the brainstem consist of?

A
197
Q

The amygdala is part of the …..

A

limbic system

198
Q

Something important about the basal ganglia and the limbic system….

A

They interface with the limbic system, this confering a role in the physical expression of behaviour driven by affective and motivational states

199
Q

What is the lentiform nucleus?

A

Putamen and Globus Pallidus grouped together

200
Q

what is another name for the caudate nucleus and putamen?

A

Striatum

201
Q

the nucleus accumbens is part of the …..

A

caudate nucleus (basal ganglia)

202
Q

diagram of the basal ganglia

A
203
Q

What are the current concepts of the role of the basal ganglia?

A

Their function is to facilitate behaviour and movements that are required and appropriate in any particular context and to inhibit unwanted or inappropriate movements.

204
Q

Cellular organisation of the retina - diagram

A
205
Q

What is the choroid of the eye?

A

Dark pigmented cells that line the inner surface of the sclera and reduce reflection by absorbing light.

206
Q

What is the Meyer’s loop?

A

Part of temporal lobe that represents the upper part of the visual field

207
Q

What does the kinetic labyrinth consist of?

A

semi-circular canals and ampullary organs

208
Q

How do vestibular hair cells function?

A

mechano-sensitive stereocilia which respond to directional bending by opening K+ channels to cause depolarisation and release of neurotransmitter onto sensory axons of the VIIIth cranial nerve at the cell base.

209
Q

How is tilt detected in the macula?

A

Stereocilia are orientated in opposite directions. Deflection stimulates, opposite direction inhibits.

210
Q

Networks from Vestibular apparatus

(reflex pathways - 3)

A

steady gaze during head movement

spinal output to extensors - help maintain upright posture

visceral control - including vomiting centres of brainstem

211
Q

How does the cerebellum help the vestibular apparatus?

A

It fine tunes vestibular reflexes

212
Q

Vestibular reflexes (3)

A

Postural

Increase tonus in extensor muscles via the lateral vestibulo-spinal tract. Vestibular nuclei - medial longitudinal fasciculus - neck muscles, keep the head upright.

Vestibulo-ocular

coordinates head and eye movements to keep gaze centred on visual objects.

Visceral

Mismatch between the vestibular and other sensory inputs can cause vertigo, nausea and vomitting, etc. This can also occur in hyperactivity of the labyrinth (labyrinthitis, Meniere’s disease) and brainstem lesions.

213
Q

What is oogenesis and when does it occur?

A

Ovum production

Begins before a woman’s birth

Accelerates at puberty

Ends at menopause

214
Q

What is in suspended development before birth?

A

primary oocytes

215
Q

Primordial follicles are activated by?

A

rising levels of FSH

216
Q

At puberty, primordial follicles degenerate via a process called?

A

atresia

217
Q

What are the cells called around a growing primary oocyte?

A

Granulosa cells

218
Q

granulosa cells and ……. cells produce …….

A

thecal

oestrogens

219
Q

Step one of ovarian cycle is….

A

activation of primordial follicles into primary follicles.

Also… growth of granulosa cells (oestrogen production)

220
Q

Ovarian cycle step two is…..

A

primary follicles developing into secondary follicles

221
Q

what develops in stage two of ovarian cycle?

A

mainly the follicle due to secretion of liquor folliculi. Not much primary oocyte development

222
Q

ovarian cycle - day 10 to 14. Step three.

What has happened?

A

follicles become tertiary follicles or mature graafian follicles.

Bulging on surface of ovary ready for ovulation

223
Q

What hormone stimulates the primary oocyte to complete meiosis I? (stage three)

A

LH

224
Q

What happens on day 14

A

Secondary oocyte released

225
Q

Ovulation marks the end of the ….. phase

A

follicular

226
Q

ovulation - the ….. follicle releases the …… oocyte

A

tertiary

secondary

227
Q

remaining granulosa cells of follicle (after ovulation) forms the …..

A

corpus luteum

228
Q

what does the corpus luteum do?

A

secretes progesterone

229
Q

What does progesterone do?

A

maturation of uterine lining

secretion of uterine glands

230
Q

Step six - what happens if ovulation doesn’t occur?

A

corpus luteum dies

Drop in levels of progesterone and oestrogen

231
Q

definition of upper motor neurone

A

cell body lies in cns processing centre

232
Q

definition of lower motor neurone

A

cell body lies in a nucleus of the brainstem or spinal cord

233
Q

The motor area devoted to a specific region of the cortex is proportional to ………

A

the number of motor units involved in the region’s control

234
Q

What does the internal capsule do?

A

It links the cerebral cortex to the diencephalon, brain stem, cerebellum, and spinal cord

235
Q

As you begin a voluntary movement, the basal nuclei ……

A

control and adjust muscle tone.

236
Q

If the substantia nigra is damaged or the neurons secrete less ……., basal nuclei become more ……..

A

dopamine

active

237
Q

Chorea consisting of ……. ………. rapid movements and …….. are signs of Huntingtons disease.

This genetic disorder causes degeneration of the basal ganglia resulting in …………. and excessive output from the motor cortex.

A

involuntary jerky

dementia

dis-inhibition

238
Q

What is the movement disorder common to all lesions of the cerebellum?

A

Ataxia

Ataxia describes voluntary, normal strength jerky and inaccurate movements that are not associated with hyper-stiffness

239
Q

Cerebellum symptoms (4)

A

Ataxia

Nystagmus

Dysequilibrium

Dysarthria

240
Q

What are the GENERALIZED actions of the sympathetic nervous system (4)

A

Increased alertness via stimulation of the reticular activating system, causing the individual to feel “on edge.”

Increased activity in the cardiovascular and respiratory centres of the pons and medulla oblongata, leading to elevations in blood pressure, heart rate, breathing rate, and depth of respiration.

A general elevation in muscle tone through stimulation of the medial and lateral pathways, so the person looks tense and may begin to shiver.

The mobilization of energy reserves, through the accelerated breakdown of glycogen in muscle and liver cells and the release of lipids by adipose tissues.

241
Q

Three divisions of neural tube

A
242
Q

The Prosencephalon divides into the…..

A
243
Q

The rhomboencephalon divides into the….

A
244
Q

The diencephalon is composed of the ….

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

245
Q

What does the suprachiasmatic nucleus of the hypothalamus do?

A

It receives input from the retina to control the diurnal (of the day) rhythms and the sleep/ waking cycle.

246
Q

What do the autonomic centres of the hypothalamus do?

A

control medullary nuclei that regulate heart rate and blood pressure

247
Q

Locations of the lateral and medial geniculate and the inferior and superior colliculus

A
248
Q

There are some important nuclei in the midbrain - mesencephalon, what do they do?

A

Process visual and auditory information and control reflexes triggered by these stimuli

(superior and inferior colliculi)

249
Q

Remember that the medulla oblongata also contains major centers that regulate autonomic function: (3)

A

Heart rate

Blood pressure

Digestion

250
Q

What do association fibres do? (in neural cortex)

A

They interconnect areas of neural cortex within a single cerebral hemisphere.

251
Q

What do anaxonic neurones do?

A

They form the interneurons of the CNS, and, outnumber all other types of neurones combined.

eg. purkineje cells, pyramidal cells, globus pallidus cells

252
Q

What are interneurons involved with? (anaxonic cells)

A

All higher functions, such as memory, planning, and learning.

253
Q

In terms of the nervous system, what is adaptation?

A

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.

Tonic receptors adapt slowly.

Phasic receptors adapt fast

254
Q

What is it called, the link between peripheral receptor and cortical neurone?

A

Labeled line

255
Q

What are the three major somatic sensory pathways? (3)

A
  • Posterior column pathway
  • Spinothalamic pathway
  • Spinocerebellar pathway
256
Q

What sensation does the dorsal column/ medial lemniscus pathway carry?

A

fine touch,

pressure,

vibration,

& proprioception

257
Q

Dorsal column pathway is broken down into… (2)

A

gracilis fasciculus

cuneatus fasciculus

258
Q

What sensation does the spinothalamic tract carry?

A

poorly localized (“crude”) touch,

pressure,

pain,

and temperature

259
Q

Further differentiate the spinothalamic tracts (anterior and lateral). What sensations are involved with each?

A

Anterior spinothalamic tract ; crude touch and pressure

Lateral spinothalamic tract; pain and temperature

260
Q

Give some examples of interoceptors

A

nociceptors,
thermoreceptors,

tactile receptors,

baroreceptors,
chemoreceptors,

261
Q

Which cranial nerves carry visceral sensory information mostly from organs above the diaphragm ?

A

VII - facial

IX - glossophargyneal

X - vagus

262
Q

Where does visceral sensory information go?

A

To the solitary nucleus, a large nucleus in the medulla oblongata.

263
Q

What is the solitary nucleus?

A

It is a major processing and sorting centre for visceral sensory information

264
Q

What’s the relationship between T1-S4 dorsal roots and visceral sensory information?

A

They also carry visceral sensory information to the solitary nucleus and the thalamus

Therefore; overlap of somatic and visceral input at the spinal segment (spinothalamic tract)

265
Q

What is referred pain?

A

Strong visceral pain sensations arriving at a segment of the spinal cord can stimulate interneurons that are part of the spinothalamic pathway.

Activity in these interneurons leads to the stimulation of the primary sensory cortex, so the individual feels pain in a specific part of the body surface unrelated to the visceral stimulus

266
Q

Liver and GB referred pain

A
267
Q

Heart referred pain

A
268
Q

Referred pain - ureters

A
269
Q

The basal ganglia are important in the facilitation of appropriate motor behaviour and the ……. of unwanted movements.

A

inhibition

270
Q

Each side of the cerebellum coordinates movements of the ….. side of the body.

A

Ipsilateral

(spinocerebellar tract)

271
Q

Remember the symptoms of

cerebellar syndrome (4)

A

nystagmus

dysarthria

ataxia

intention tremor

symptoms on ipsilateral side

NO weakness or loss of sensation

272
Q

Nuclei of the hypothalamus (7)

A

paraventricular - oxytoxin

supraoptic - ADH

suprachiasmatic - coordinates day/ night cycles of activity

autonomic centres - control medullary nuclei that regulate HR and BP

Tuberal - releases hormones that control endocrine cells of adenohypothesis

mamillary - controls feeding reflexes (licking, swallowing, etc)

preoptic - regulates BT

273
Q

What do the mesencephalic nuclei do?

(inferior and superior colliculus)

A

The nuclei process visual and auditory information and control reflexes triggered by these stimuli

ALSO - contains centres that help maintain consciousness

274
Q

What is adaptation (in context of sensory receptors)?

A

A reduction in sensitivity in the presence of a constant stimulus.

Tonic receptors adapt slowly.

Phasic receptors adapt fast

275
Q

thalamus - labelled lines - what is the relationship?

A

Processing in the thalamus determines the specificity of the sensation according to the appropriate labelled line.

276
Q

The anterior spinothalamic tracts carry….

A

crude touch and pressure sensations

277
Q

The lateral spinothalamic tracts carry ….

A

pain and temperature sensations

278
Q

Conductive deafness is caused by….

A

Earwax, damage to ear-drum,

otosclerosis of the middle ear, trauma,

middle ear infections - travelling from the nasopharynx, genetic defects

279
Q

Sensorineural deafness is caused by…..

A

Cochlea – infection, trauma, noise, age, ototoxic drugs, genetic defects (myosins, gap junction mutations etc), tumours.

280
Q

Central deafness is caused by…..

A

Vascular accident, trauma, MS,

infection, tumour, neonatal distress

281
Q

What are the four systems that control excretory exchange?

A

urinary system

respiratory system

digestive system

integumentary system

282
Q

What are the three functions of the urinary system?

A

regulates volume and solute concentration of blood plasma

excretion of nitrogenous waste

elimination of waste products into the environmnt

283
Q

ammonium ion (from breakdown of nitrogen) is combined with …… to produce …..

A

CO2

urea

284
Q

Which level are the kidneys located ?

A

between T12 and L3

285
Q

What holds the kidneys in position?

A

The fibrous capsule, a layer of collagen fibers that covers the outer surface of the entire organ.

The perinephric fat capsule, a thick layer of adipose tissue that surrounds the fibrous capsule.

The renal fascia, a dense, fibrous outer layer that anchors the kidney to surrounding structures.

286
Q

The vestibular and reticular nuclei form tracts, what are they called? And function?

A

Vestibulospinal

and reticulospinal

  • muscle tone & posture
287
Q

What are the two groups of basal ganglia pathways?

A

direct - initiates/facilitates movement

indirect - stops/inhibits movement

288
Q

Globus pallidus consists of two….

A

segments - medial and lateral

289
Q

Why are the caudate nucleus and putamen important?

A

They receive afferent fibres from the cerebral cortex, the thalamus, and the pars compacta of the substantia nigra

290
Q

Disorders of movement and the basal ganglia - General features (a list)

A

No paralysis,sensory loss or ataxia

Abnormal motor control,alterations in muscle tone

Abnormal involuntary movements

Slowness - bradykinesia

Loss or absence - hypokinesia, akinesia

Problems of stopping and starting

Abnormal postures, arm swinging in walking can be absent

Rigidity to passive movement is constant as opposed to spasticity

Cog-wheel v continuous

Tremor at rest

Chorea - fragmented purposeful components of a real movement

Dystonia - sustained contractions producing abnormal postures

Athetosis - slow sinuous writhing movements of axis

Myoclonus - short sharp movements

Tics

291
Q

Simple overview of cerebellar function

A

Motor cortex sends command to lower motor neurons in spinal cord

Simultaneously the command is recorded in cerebellum

Cerebellum receives information via spino-cerebellar tracts

This is information of what has actually happened

Cerebellum compares “intention” & “achieved”- computes difference

Purkinje cells send output from cerebellum to deep nuclei - dentate

Deep nuclei relay to thalamus to pre-motor cortex

Pre-motor cortex corrects motor cortex with difference

Error is corrected

292
Q

Basal ganglia lesions - signs

A

Contralateral signs

No paralysis or sensory loss

Abnormal control of posture & movement Parkinsons - tremor at rest

Slowness starting,carrying out movement - hypo/brady/akinesia

Abnormal involuntary movements

Rigidity to passive movement

293
Q

Cerebellar lesions (5 signs)

A

Ipsilateral signs

Nystagmus

Intention tremor

Dysarthria

Ataxia

Anatomy (33 decks)

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