⭐️ ANATOMY Flashcards
(202 cards)
1
Q
Layers of the scalp
A
SCALPskin, connective tissue of superficial fascia, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, periosteum
2
Q
Danger zone of the scalp
A
4th layer loose connective tissueD for danger - 4th letter of the alphabetContains potential space that may distend with injury or infection
3
Q
8 bones of the cranium
A
Frontal, parietal (2), occipital, temporal (2), sphenoid, ethmoid
4
Q
Immovable fibrous joints that connect skull bones
A
Sutures
5
Q
Thinnest part of the calvariumwhich is superficial to the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery
A
Pterion
6
Q
Type of injury that arises when rupture of the middle meningela artery happens (pterion)
A
Epidural hematoma
7
Q
Junction of frontal and sagittal sutures
A
Bregma
8
Q
Junction of sagittal and lambdoidal sutures
A
Lambda
9
Q
Separation of external and internal compact bones in the calvarium primarily made of spongy bone
A
Diploe
10
Q
The cranial base is divided into three compartments namely:
A
Anterior, middle, and posterior cranial fossa
11
Q
Bones of the cranial base
A
Mnemonic: STEP OFf my skullSphenoid, temporal, ethmoid, parietal, occipital, frontal
12
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Cribriform plate
A
AnteriorEthmoidCN 1
13
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Optic canal
A
MiddleLesser wing of sphenoidCN II and Ophthalmic Artery
14
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Superior orbital fissure
A
MiddleBetween lesser and greater wingCN III IV VI V1 and Superior ophthalmic vein
15
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen rotundum
A
MiddleGreater wing of sphenoidCN V2
16
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen spinosum
A
MiddleGreater wing of sphenoid
CN V3 mandibular branch, lesser petrosal nerve, accessory meningeal artery
17
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen lacerum
A
MiddlePetrous, temporal, and sphenoidInternal carotid artery
18
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen magnum
A
PosteriorOccipitalSpinal accessory, medulla, vertebral arteries
19
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Hypoglossal canal
A
PosteriorHypoglossal nerve
20
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Jugular foramen
A
PosteriorTemporal and occipitalCN IX X XI, internal jugular vein
21
Q
Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Internal acoustic meatus
A
PosteriorTemporalCN VII VIII
22
Q
Exits of the branches of the trigeminal nerve
A
Mnemonic: 1, 2, 3 and FRO1 s o F2 f R3 f O
23
Q
Most common facial fracture
A
Nasal fracture
24
Q
Most common fossa fractured in basilar skull fracture
A
Middle cranial fossa
25
2 signs in basilar skull fracture
Raccoon eyes- periorbital ecchymosesBattle sign - mastoid ecchymoses
26
Mastoid processes are absent at birth. When do they develop?
First 2 years of life
27
Closure of anterior fontanelle
9-18mos
28
Closure of posterior fontanelle
3-4 mos
29
Meningeal layers from outside to inside
Dura - arachnoid - pia
30
Vessels traversing epidural versus subdural spaces
Epidural - meningeal artery
| Subdural - cerebral bridging veins
31
Space where csf circulates
Subarachnoid space
32
Dura matter layers
Outer periosteal layer - closely applied to inner surface of skull and firmly attached to sutures
Inner meningeal layer - continuous with dura of vertebrl canal
Meningeal dural septae - falx, tentorium, diaphragma sellae
33
Innervation of dura matter
Meningeal branches of CN V, C1-C3, vagus nerve (latter 2 innervate posterior cranial fossa dura)
34
Neuroanatomic area: postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory area)
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 3, 1, 2
Sensory area for pain, temperaturem, touch, and pressure from the contralateral side of the body
35
Neuroanatomic area: precentral gyrus or primary motor area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 4
Voluntary movements on contralateral side
36
Neuroanatomic area: secondary motor area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 6
Supplements motor area
37
Neuroanatomic area: Secondary somatosensory area
Name the Brodman area and function.
5, 7
Supplements somatosensory area
38
Neuroanatomic area: primary visual area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 17
Receives visual impressions
39
Neuroanatomic area: visual association area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 18, 19
Supplements primary visual area
40
Neuroanatomic area: superior tempory gyrus of Heschl or Primary auditory area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 41, 42
Reception and interpretation of sound
41
Neuroanatomic area: broca's speech area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 44, 45
Controls faculties needed to produce speech
42
Neuroanatomic area: wernicke's area
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 22
Understanding of written and spoken language
43
Neuroanatomic area: angular gyrus
Name the Brodman area and function.
Brodman 39
Involved in language, spatial cognition, calculation, memory retrieval and attention
44
The motor homonculus is a representation of the body wherein the nerves that control the feet are located in the UPPER part and the movements of the face and hands are in the LOWER part.
True or False.
True.
45
The thalamus is a relay station of afferent sensory pathway to the cerebral cortex except the
Olfactory nerve
46
What is the function of the hypothalamus?
Controls endocrine stimulation of the pituitary gland (temperature, thirst, hunger, water balance, sexual function)
47
What structures comprise the limbic system?
```
Hippocampus
Amygdala
Mamillary bodies
Anterior thalamic nucleus
Sucallosal, cingulate, and parahippocampal gyri
```
48
What is the function of the basal ganglia?
Controls voluntary movements at subconscious levels
49
What are the parts of the basal ganglia?
Caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus
50
What are the functions of the limbic system?
Mnemonic: 5Fs
Feeding, flight, fight, feelings, fucking (sexual function)
51
Pigmented band of gray matter in the midbrain
Substantia nigra
52
Lateral halves of the midbrain
Cerebral peduncles
53
Anterior part of the midbrain
Crus cerebri
54
Posterior part of the midbrain
Tectum and tegmentum
55
Which part of the brainstem contains the connecting fibers of the two halves of the cerebellum?
Pons
56
Place where the decussation of the corticospinal tracts occur
Medullary pyramids
57
Functions of the medulla oblongata
Controls heart rate, respiration, blood vessel compliance, and swallowing
58
Cerebrum:corpus callosum
Cerebellum:?
Cerebellar vermis
59
Part of the cerebellum that connects with the midbrain
Superior cerebellar peduncle
60
Part of the cerebellum that connects with the pons
Middle cerebellar peduncle
61
Part of the cerebellum that connects with the medulla
Inferior cereballar peduncle
62
Flow of csf
Choroid plexus - lateral ventricles - foramen of monro - 3rd ventricle - aqueduct of sylvius - 4th ventricle - foramina of Luschka (lateral) and Magendie (medial) - subarachnoid space - reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations
63
2 types of hydrocephalus
Communicating and non-communicating
C- concerned with overproduction or defective reabsorption of csf
NC - obstruction
64
Draw the circle of willis
On paper
65
The union of the 2 vertebral arteries form the
Basilar artery
66
The labyrinthine artery is a branch of the
Basilar
67
Draw and enumerate the dural venous sinuses
Use paper
68
What infection is termed as the danger triangle of the face?
Cavernous sinus thrombosis
69
What are the contents of the cavernous sinus
Mnemonic: OTOM CAt
Oculomotor nerve, trochler, ophthalmic nerve, maxilarry nerve, carotid artery, abducens nerve
70
The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint divides it into 2 cavities namely
Superior and inferior part
71
Movements of the superior part of the TMJ
Protrusion and retrusion
72
Movement of the inferior part of the TMJ
Elevation, depression
73
2 muscle groups of the face
Muscles of mastication and muscles of facial expressions
74
All muscles of mastication are found within the infratemporsl fossa except the
Masseter
75
Main branches of the maxillary artery
Middle meningeal
Inferior alveolar
Deep temporal
76
The taste fibers of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by the
Chorda tympani of CN VII
77
C2 innervtes the angle of the mandible. True or false.
True
78
2 ganglia from the facial nerve
Geniculate - taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Pterygopalatine - parasympathetic fibers to submandibular and sublingul glands via the chorda tympani
79
Differentiate the 3 types of le fort fractures
Le Fort I fractures (horizontal) may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim in a downward direction. It is also known as a Guérin fracture or 'floating palate', and usually involves the inferior nasal aperture. The fracture extends from the nasal septum to the lateral pyriform rims, travels horizontally above the teeth apices, crosses below the zygomaticomaxillary junction, and traverses the pterygomaxillary junction to interrupt the pterygoid plates.
LeFort II fracture
Le Fort II fractures (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxilla and usually involve the inferior orbital rim. Such a fracture has a pyramidal shape and extends from the nasal bridge at or below the nasofrontal suture through the frontal processes of the maxilla, inferolaterally through the lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor and rim through or near the inferior orbital foramen, and inferiorly through the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus; it then travels under the zygoma, across the pterygomaxillary fissure, and through the pterygoid plates.
LeFort III fracture
Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation and involve the zygomatic arch. These may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures start at the nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and ethmoid bones. The thicker sphenoid bone posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the fracture into the optic canal. Instead, the fracture continues along the floor of the orbit along the inferior orbital fissure and continues superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall, through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the zygomatic arch. Intranasally, a branch of the fracture extends through the base of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid, through the vomer, and through the interface of the pterygoid plates to the base of the sphenoid. This type of fracture predisposes the patient to CSF rhinorrhea more commonly than the other types.
80
Aperture exits of the facial nerve
1. Hiatus of facial canal
2. Petrotympanic fissure
3. Stylomastoid foramen
81
The corneal reflex is a function of which nerve?
CN VII
82
Movements of the superior part of the TMJ
Protrusion and retrusion
83
Movement of the inferior part of the TMJ
Elevation, depression
84
2 muscle groups of the face
Muscles of mastication and muscles of facial expressions
85
All muscles of mastication are found within the infratemporsl fossa except the
Masseter
86
Main branches of the maxillary artery
Middle meningeal
Inferior alveolar
Deep temporal
87
The taste fibers of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by the
Chorda tympani of CN VII
88
C2 innervtes the angle of the mandible. True or false.
True
89
2 ganglia from the facial nerve
Geniculate - taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Pterygopalatine - parasympathetic fibers to submandibular and sublingul glands via the chorda tympani
90
Differentiate the 3 types of le fort fractures
Le Fort I fractures (horizontal) may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim in a downward direction. It is also known as a Guérin fracture or 'floating palate', and usually involves the inferior nasal aperture. The fracture extends from the nasal septum to the lateral pyriform rims, travels horizontally above the teeth apices, crosses below the zygomaticomaxillary junction, and traverses the pterygomaxillary junction to interrupt the pterygoid plates.
LeFort II fracture
Le Fort II fractures (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxilla and usually involve the inferior orbital rim. Such a fracture has a pyramidal shape and extends from the nasal bridge at or below the nasofrontal suture through the frontal processes of the maxilla, inferolaterally through the lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor and rim through or near the inferior orbital foramen, and inferiorly through the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus; it then travels under the zygoma, across the pterygomaxillary fissure, and through the pterygoid plates.
LeFort III fracture
Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation and involve the zygomatic arch. These may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures start at the nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and ethmoid bones. The thicker sphenoid bone posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the fracture into the optic canal. Instead, the fracture continues along the floor of the orbit along the inferior orbital fissure and continues superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall, through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the zygomatic arch. Intranasally, a branch of the fracture extends through the base of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid, through the vomer, and through the interface of the pterygoid plates to the base of the sphenoid. This type of fracture predisposes the patient to CSF rhinorrhea more commonly than the other types.
91
Aperture exits of the facial nerve
1. Hiatus of facial canal
2. Petrotympanic fissure
3. Stylomastoid foramen
92
The corneal reflex is a function of which nerve?
CN VII
93
Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by the
Chorda tympani
| Facial nerve
94
Central facial palsy means that the patient cannot wrinkle the forehead. T or F
False. Can still wrinkle forehead despite the rest of the side bing paralyzed.
95
Orbital roof bones
Frontal, lesser wing of the sphenoid
96
Floor of the orbit
Maxilla, zygomatic, palatine
97
Medial wall of the orbit
Ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal, sphenoid
98
Lateral wall of the orbit
Zygomatic, greater wing of the sphenoid
99
All extraocular muscles originate from the annulus of zinn except the ...? Give origin site.
SO - roof
| IO - floor
100
Which ocular smooth muscle elevates the upper eyelid
Superior tarsal
101
Processes in accommodation
Pupillary constriction
Lens accommodation
Convergence
102
In pupillary light testing, absence of consensual reflex means that ... while absence of direct reflex is ...
Consensual- motor connection problem
| Direct - sensory input problem
103
Which part of the eye is most responsible for the refraction of light
Cornea - 2/3
| Lens 1/3
104
The cornea has no vessels, lymphatics, or nerves. T or F.
True
105
Maintains the shape of the globe and provides attachment for extraocular muscles
Sclera
106
Parts of the uveal tract
Choroid, ciliary body, iris
107
Layers of the retina
Inner limiting membrane, nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform, inner nuclear, outer plexiform, outer nuclear, exteral limiting, photorceptor layer, RPE
108
The sternum is made up of 3 bones namely:
Manubrium, body, xiphoid process
109
The manubrium articulates with the costal cartilages of ___ ribs.
First 2
110
The manubrium overall has how many joints?
7
111
The body of the sternum articulates with _____ ribs
Ribs 3-7
112
True ribs (vertebrocostal)
Ribs 1-7
113
False ribs (vertebrochondral)
8-10
114
False floating ribs
11-12
115
Part of the rib where most fractures tend to occur
Anterior to the angle
116
Broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved rib
Rib 1
117
Grooves of rib 1
Groove for subclavian vessels and scalene tubercle
118
Which rib contains the tuberosity for serratus anterior?
Rib 2
119
Which ribs has only 1 facet and articulate with a single vertebrae?
10-12
120
Which ribs have no tubercle and neck?
11-12
121
Ribs with 2 facets and attaches below to numerically corresponding vertebra and vertebra above
2-9
122
Intercostal spaces are named according to...
Rib forming the SUPERIOR BORDER OF THE SPACE
123
Syndrome due to the compression of the subclavian artery and or brachial plexus
Thoracic outlet syndrome
124
Bone compression causing thoracic outlet syndrome is due to a...
Cervical rib from c7
125
Excessive muscle growth of the scalene can cause
Scalenus anticus syndrome (thoracic outlet)
126
Thoracic outlet syndrome due to narrowing of the 1st ICS is called
Costoclavicular syndrome
127
The apex of the axillary fossa is found in which axillary line?
Mid
128
The inferolateral border of the pectoralis major is found in which axillary line?
Anterior axillary line
129
The latissimus dorsi and teres major is found in which axillary line?
Posterior
130
Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by the
Chorda tympani
| Facial nerve
131
Central facial palsy means that the patient cannot wrinkle the forehead. T or F
False. Can still wrinkle forehead despite the rest of the side bing paralyzed.
132
Orbital roof bones
Frontal, lesser wing of the sphenoid
133
Floor of the orbit
Maxilla, zygomatic, palatine
134
Medial wall of the orbit
Ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal, sphenoid
135
Lateral wall of the orbit
Zygomatic, greater wing of the sphenoid
136
All extraocular muscles originate from the annulus of zinn except the ...? Give origin site.
SO - roof
| IO - floor
137
Which ocular smooth muscle elevates the upper eyelid
Superior tarsal
138
Processes in accommodation
Pupillary constriction
Lens accommodation
Convergence
139
In pupillary light testing, absence of consensual reflex means that ... while absence of direct reflex is ...
Consensual- motor connection problem
| Direct - sensory input problem
140
Which part of the eye is most responsible for the refraction of light
Cornea - 2/3
| Lens 1/3
141
The cornea has no vessels, lymphatics, or nerves. T or F.
True
142
Maintains the shape of the globe and provides attachment for extraocular muscles
Sclera
143
Parts of the uveal tract
Choroid, ciliary body, iris
144
Layers of the retina
Inner limiting membrane, nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform, inner nuclear, outer plexiform, outer nuclear, exteral limiting, photorceptor layer, RPE
145
The sternum is made up of 3 bones namely:
Manubrium, body, xiphoid process
146
The manubrium articulates with the costal cartilages of ___ ribs.
First 2
147
The manubrium overall has how many joints?
7
148
The body of the sternum articulates with _____ ribs
Ribs 3-7
149
True ribs (vertebrocostal)
Ribs 1-7
150
False ribs (vertebrochondral)
8-10
151
False floating ribs
11-12
152
Part of the rib where most fractures tend to occur
Anterior to the angle
153
Broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved rib
Rib 1
154
Grooves of rib 1
Groove for subclavian vessels and scalene tubercle
155
Which rib contains the tuberosity for serratus anterior?
Rib 2
156
Which ribs has only 1 facet and articulate with a single vertebrae?
10-12
157
Which ribs have no tubercle and neck?
11-12
158
Ribs with 2 facets and attaches below to numerically corresponding vertebra and vertebra above
2-9
159
Intercostal spaces are named according to...
Rib forming the SUPERIOR BORDER OF THE SPACE
160
Syndrome due to the compression of the subclavian artery and or brachial plexus
Thoracic outlet syndrome
161
Bone compression causing thoracic outlet syndrome is due to a...
Cervical rib from c7
162
Excessive muscle growth of the scalene can cause
Scalenus anticus syndrome (thoracic outlet)
163
Thoracic outlet syndrome due to narrowing of the 1st ICS is called
Costoclavicular syndrome
164
The apex of the axillary fossa is found in which axillary line?
Mid
165
The inferolateral border of the pectoralis major is found in which axillary line?
Anterior axillary line
166
The latissimus dorsi and teres major is found in which axillary line?
Posterior
167
Needle thoracostomy is usually done in the
2nd ICS MCL or AAL
168
Chest tube thoracostomy is usually done on the
5th ICS ANterior axillary line, superior border of lower rib
169
Thoracentesis is done at the
9th ICS, midaxillary line during expiration
170
Structures the needle/tube passes through during thoracostomy
Skin - superficial fascia - serratus anterior - external intercostals - internal intercostals - innermost intercostals - endothoracic fascia - parietal pleura
171
Most important muscle of inspiration
Diaphragm
172
Level of the diaphragm (R and L) on expiration
R 4th ICS
| L 5th ICS
173
Origin and insertion of the diaphragm
ORIGIN
Sternal part: posterior surface of the xiphoid
Costal part: posterior surface of lower 6 ribs
Vertebral part: vertebral columns
INSERTION
Central tendon
174
A classic diaphragmatic hernia is called what and where is its usual location?
bochdalek
Left posterolateral area
(Defect in pleuroperitoneal membrane) in developing embryonic diaphragm
175
An anteromedial hernial defect in the diaphragm is called
Morgagni
176
Diaphragm
Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Septum transversum
Central tendon
177
Diaphragm
Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Pleuroperitoneal membrane
Bulk of muscular part of the diaphragm
178
Diaphragm
Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Body wall mesenchyme
Peripheral muscular part
179
Diaphragm
Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus
Diaphragmatic crura
180
Apertures of the diaphragm
Caval, esophageal, aortic
181
Level of the different apertures if the diaphragm
Caval T8
Esophageal T10
Aortic T12
182
Contents of the caval aperture of the diaphragm
IVC, Phrenic nerve
183
Contents of the esophageal aperture of the diaphragm
Esophagus, r vagus, l gastric vessels, lymphatics from lower 3rd of esophagus
184
Contents of the aortic aperture of the diaphragm
Aorta, thoracic duct, azygos vein
185
Motor and sensory nerve supply of the diaphragm
Motor: Phrenic nerve
Sensory: Central - phrenic nerve, Peripheral - T7-T11, subcostal nerve
186
Blood supply of the diaphragm
Superior surface:
1. Pericardiphrenic, musculophrenic (internal thoracic artery (first branch of subclavian)
2. Superior phrenic arteries (thoracic aorta)
Inferior surface:
Inferior phrenic artery (abdominal aorta)
187
Difference in nucleus of prokaryotic cells vs eukaryotic cells
Prokaryotic- nucleoid with nonclear nuclear membrane
| Eukaryotic- true nucleus with nuclear membrane
188
Difference in DNA and RNA of prokaryotic vs eukaryotic cells
Prokaryotic - circular DNA and RNA
| Eukaryotic - linear DNA and RNA
189
Replication differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
Pro- continuous replication, asexual reproduction (binary fission)
Euk- G and S phase, cytokinesis with mitosis/meiosis
190
Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes (ribosomes)
Pro- 70s ribosomes (50s and 30s)
| Euk- 80s ribosomes (60s and 40s)
191
All prokaryotes have no sterol in their membranes except
Mycoplasma
192
What antibiotics target the 50s and 30s of bacteria?
Mnemonic: buy AT 30, CELLS at 50
30s
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline
```
50s
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Lincosamides (Clindamycin)
Linezolid
Streptogramins
```
193
The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with what structure in the cell?
ER
194
This form of chromatin is most abundant.
Euchromatin
195
Site of DNA transcription
Nucleus
196
Responible for ribosomal synthesis
Nucleolus
197
This is a complex of DNA, histone and non-histone proteins
Chromatin
198
Site of DNA replication
Nucleus
199
Where can you find Barr bodies?
Heterochromatin
200
Allows passage of nucleus to nucleus
Nuclear pore
201
Structure of the nuclear envelope
Double membrane and continuous with the ER
202
3 zones of the nucleolus (ribosomal production)
Granular zone- maturing ribosomes
Dense fibrillar zone - active zone
Fibrillar center - inactive DNA
