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ANA, BCHM, PHY > ⭐️ ANATOMY > Flashcards

⭐️ ANATOMY Flashcards

1
Q

Layers of the scalp

A

SCALPskin, connective tissue of superficial fascia, aponeurosis, loose connective tissue, periosteum

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2
Q

Danger zone of the scalp

A

4th layer loose connective tissueD for danger - 4th letter of the alphabetContains potential space that may distend with injury or infection

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3
Q

8 bones of the cranium

A

Frontal, parietal (2), occipital, temporal (2), sphenoid, ethmoid

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4
Q

Immovable fibrous joints that connect skull bones

A

Sutures

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5
Q

Thinnest part of the calvariumwhich is superficial to the anterior branch of the middle meningeal artery

A

Pterion

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6
Q

Type of injury that arises when rupture of the middle meningela artery happens (pterion)

A

Epidural hematoma

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7
Q

Junction of frontal and sagittal sutures

A

Bregma

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8
Q

Junction of sagittal and lambdoidal sutures

A

Lambda

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9
Q

Separation of external and internal compact bones in the calvarium primarily made of spongy bone

A

Diploe

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10
Q

The cranial base is divided into three compartments namely:

A

Anterior, middle, and posterior cranial fossa

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11
Q

Bones of the cranial base

A

Mnemonic: STEP OFf my skullSphenoid, temporal, ethmoid, parietal, occipital, frontal

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12
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Cribriform plate

A

AnteriorEthmoidCN 1

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13
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Optic canal

A

MiddleLesser wing of sphenoidCN II and Ophthalmic Artery

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14
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Superior orbital fissure

A

MiddleBetween lesser and greater wingCN III IV VI V1 and Superior ophthalmic vein

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15
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen rotundum

A

MiddleGreater wing of sphenoidCN V2

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16
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen spinosum

A

MiddleGreater wing of sphenoid

CN V3 mandibular branch, lesser petrosal nerve, accessory meningeal artery

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17
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen lacerum

A

MiddlePetrous, temporal, and sphenoidInternal carotid artery

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18
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Foramen magnum

A

PosteriorOccipitalSpinal accessory, medulla, vertebral arteries

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19
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Hypoglossal canal

A

PosteriorHypoglossal nerve

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20
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Jugular foramen

A

PosteriorTemporal and occipitalCN IX X XI, internal jugular vein

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21
Q

Cranial fossa challenge. Name the fossa, bone in which the aperture is located, and contents: Internal acoustic meatus

A

PosteriorTemporalCN VII VIII

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22
Q

Exits of the branches of the trigeminal nerve

A

Mnemonic: 1, 2, 3 and FRO1 s o F2 f R3 f O

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23
Q

Most common facial fracture

A

Nasal fracture

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24
Q

Most common fossa fractured in basilar skull fracture

A

Middle cranial fossa

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25
Q

2 signs in basilar skull fracture

A

Raccoon eyes- periorbital ecchymosesBattle sign - mastoid ecchymoses

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26
Q

Mastoid processes are absent at birth. When do they develop?

A

First 2 years of life

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27
Q

Closure of anterior fontanelle

A

9-18mos

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28
Q

Closure of posterior fontanelle

A

3-4 mos

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29
Q

Meningeal layers from outside to inside

A

Dura - arachnoid - pia

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30
Q

Vessels traversing epidural versus subdural spaces

A

Epidural - meningeal artery

Subdural - cerebral bridging veins

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31
Q

Space where csf circulates

A

Subarachnoid space

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32
Q

Dura matter layers

A

Outer periosteal layer - closely applied to inner surface of skull and firmly attached to sutures

Inner meningeal layer - continuous with dura of vertebrl canal

Meningeal dural septae - falx, tentorium, diaphragma sellae

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33
Q

Innervation of dura matter

A

Meningeal branches of CN V, C1-C3, vagus nerve (latter 2 innervate posterior cranial fossa dura)

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34
Q

Neuroanatomic area: postcentral gyrus (primary somatosensory area)

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 3, 1, 2

Sensory area for pain, temperaturem, touch, and pressure from the contralateral side of the body

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35
Q

Neuroanatomic area: precentral gyrus or primary motor area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 4

Voluntary movements on contralateral side

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36
Q

Neuroanatomic area: secondary motor area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 6

Supplements motor area

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37
Q

Neuroanatomic area: Secondary somatosensory area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

5, 7

Supplements somatosensory area

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38
Q

Neuroanatomic area: primary visual area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 17

Receives visual impressions

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39
Q

Neuroanatomic area: visual association area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 18, 19

Supplements primary visual area

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40
Q

Neuroanatomic area: superior tempory gyrus of Heschl or Primary auditory area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 41, 42

Reception and interpretation of sound

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41
Q

Neuroanatomic area: broca’s speech area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 44, 45

Controls faculties needed to produce speech

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42
Q

Neuroanatomic area: wernicke’s area

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 22

Understanding of written and spoken language

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43
Q

Neuroanatomic area: angular gyrus

Name the Brodman area and function.

A

Brodman 39

Involved in language, spatial cognition, calculation, memory retrieval and attention

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44
Q

The motor homonculus is a representation of the body wherein the nerves that control the feet are located in the UPPER part and the movements of the face and hands are in the LOWER part.

True or False.

A

True.

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45
Q

The thalamus is a relay station of afferent sensory pathway to the cerebral cortex except the

A

Olfactory nerve

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46
Q

What is the function of the hypothalamus?

A

Controls endocrine stimulation of the pituitary gland (temperature, thirst, hunger, water balance, sexual function)

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47
Q

What structures comprise the limbic system?

A 
Hippocampus
Amygdala
Mamillary bodies
Anterior thalamic nucleus
Sucallosal, cingulate, and parahippocampal gyri
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48
Q

What is the function of the basal ganglia?

A

Controls voluntary movements at subconscious levels

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49
Q

What are the parts of the basal ganglia?

A

Caudate nucleus
putamen
globus pallidus

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50
Q

What are the functions of the limbic system?

A

Mnemonic: 5Fs

Feeding, flight, fight, feelings, fucking (sexual function)

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51
Q

Pigmented band of gray matter in the midbrain

A

Substantia nigra

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52
Q

Lateral halves of the midbrain

A

Cerebral peduncles

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53
Q

Anterior part of the midbrain

A

Crus cerebri

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54
Q

Posterior part of the midbrain

A

Tectum and tegmentum

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55
Q

Which part of the brainstem contains the connecting fibers of the two halves of the cerebellum?

A

Pons

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56
Q

Place where the decussation of the corticospinal tracts occur

A

Medullary pyramids

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57
Q

Functions of the medulla oblongata

A

Controls heart rate, respiration, blood vessel compliance, and swallowing

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58
Q

Cerebrum:corpus callosum
Cerebellum:?

A

Cerebellar vermis

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59
Q

Part of the cerebellum that connects with the midbrain

A

Superior cerebellar peduncle

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60
Q

Part of the cerebellum that connects with the pons

A

Middle cerebellar peduncle

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61
Q

Part of the cerebellum that connects with the medulla

A

Inferior cereballar peduncle

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62
Q

Flow of csf

A

Choroid plexus - lateral ventricles - foramen of monro - 3rd ventricle - aqueduct of sylvius - 4th ventricle - foramina of Luschka (lateral) and Magendie (medial) - subarachnoid space - reabsorbed by arachnoid granulations

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63
Q

2 types of hydrocephalus

A

Communicating and non-communicating

C- concerned with overproduction or defective reabsorption of csf
NC - obstruction

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64
Q

Draw the circle of willis

A

On paper

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65
Q

The union of the 2 vertebral arteries form the

A

Basilar artery

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66
Q

The labyrinthine artery is a branch of the

A

Basilar

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67
Q

Draw and enumerate the dural venous sinuses

A

Use paper

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68
Q

What infection is termed as the danger triangle of the face?

A

Cavernous sinus thrombosis

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69
Q

What are the contents of the cavernous sinus

A

Mnemonic: OTOM CAt

Oculomotor nerve, trochler, ophthalmic nerve, maxilarry nerve, carotid artery, abducens nerve

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70
Q

The articular disc of the temporomandibular joint divides it into 2 cavities namely

A

Superior and inferior part

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71
Q

Movements of the superior part of the TMJ

A

Protrusion and retrusion

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72
Q

Movement of the inferior part of the TMJ

A

Elevation, depression

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73
Q

2 muscle groups of the face

A

Muscles of mastication and muscles of facial expressions

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74
Q

All muscles of mastication are found within the infratemporsl fossa except the

A

Masseter

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75
Q

Main branches of the maxillary artery

A

Middle meningeal
Inferior alveolar
Deep temporal

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76
Q

The taste fibers of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by the

A

Chorda tympani of CN VII

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77
Q

C2 innervtes the angle of the mandible. True or false.

A

True

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78
Q

2 ganglia from the facial nerve

A

Geniculate - taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Pterygopalatine - parasympathetic fibers to submandibular and sublingul glands via the chorda tympani

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79
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of le fort fractures

A

Le Fort I fractures (horizontal) may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim in a downward direction. It is also known as a Guérin fracture or ‘floating palate’, and usually involves the inferior nasal aperture. The fracture extends from the nasal septum to the lateral pyriform rims, travels horizontally above the teeth apices, crosses below the zygomaticomaxillary junction, and traverses the pterygomaxillary junction to interrupt the pterygoid plates.

LeFort II fracture
Le Fort II fractures (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxilla and usually involve the inferior orbital rim. Such a fracture has a pyramidal shape and extends from the nasal bridge at or below the nasofrontal suture through the frontal processes of the maxilla, inferolaterally through the lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor and rim through or near the inferior orbital foramen, and inferiorly through the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus; it then travels under the zygoma, across the pterygomaxillary fissure, and through the pterygoid plates.

LeFort III fracture
Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation and involve the zygomatic arch. These may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures start at the nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and ethmoid bones. The thicker sphenoid bone posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the fracture into the optic canal. Instead, the fracture continues along the floor of the orbit along the inferior orbital fissure and continues superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall, through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the zygomatic arch. Intranasally, a branch of the fracture extends through the base of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid, through the vomer, and through the interface of the pterygoid plates to the base of the sphenoid. This type of fracture predisposes the patient to CSF rhinorrhea more commonly than the other types.

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80
Q

Aperture exits of the facial nerve

A
  1. Hiatus of facial canal
  2. Petrotympanic fissure
  3. Stylomastoid foramen
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81
Q

The corneal reflex is a function of which nerve?

82
Q

Movements of the superior part of the TMJ

A

Protrusion and retrusion

83
Q

Movement of the inferior part of the TMJ

A

Elevation, depression

84
Q

2 muscle groups of the face

A

Muscles of mastication and muscles of facial expressions

85
Q

All muscles of mastication are found within the infratemporsl fossa except the

86
Q

Main branches of the maxillary artery

A

Middle meningeal
Inferior alveolar
Deep temporal

87
Q

The taste fibers of the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is supplied by the

A

Chorda tympani of CN VII

88
Q

C2 innervtes the angle of the mandible. True or false.

89
Q

2 ganglia from the facial nerve

A

Geniculate - taste fibers from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

Pterygopalatine - parasympathetic fibers to submandibular and sublingul glands via the chorda tympani

90
Q

Differentiate the 3 types of le fort fractures

A

Le Fort I fractures (horizontal) may result from a force of injury directed low on the maxillary alveolar rim in a downward direction. It is also known as a Guérin fracture or ‘floating palate’, and usually involves the inferior nasal aperture. The fracture extends from the nasal septum to the lateral pyriform rims, travels horizontally above the teeth apices, crosses below the zygomaticomaxillary junction, and traverses the pterygomaxillary junction to interrupt the pterygoid plates.

LeFort II fracture
Le Fort II fractures (pyramidal) may result from a blow to the lower or mid maxilla and usually involve the inferior orbital rim. Such a fracture has a pyramidal shape and extends from the nasal bridge at or below the nasofrontal suture through the frontal processes of the maxilla, inferolaterally through the lacrimal bones and inferior orbital floor and rim through or near the inferior orbital foramen, and inferiorly through the anterior wall of the maxillary sinus; it then travels under the zygoma, across the pterygomaxillary fissure, and through the pterygoid plates.

LeFort III fracture
Le Fort III fractures (transverse) are otherwise known as craniofacial dissociation and involve the zygomatic arch. These may follow impact to the nasal bridge or upper maxilla. These fractures start at the nasofrontal and frontomaxillary sutures and extend posteriorly along the medial wall of the orbit through the nasolacrimal groove and ethmoid bones. The thicker sphenoid bone posteriorly usually prevents continuation of the fracture into the optic canal. Instead, the fracture continues along the floor of the orbit along the inferior orbital fissure and continues superolaterally through the lateral orbital wall, through the zygomaticofrontal junction and the zygomatic arch. Intranasally, a branch of the fracture extends through the base of the perpendicular plate of the ethmoid, through the vomer, and through the interface of the pterygoid plates to the base of the sphenoid. This type of fracture predisposes the patient to CSF rhinorrhea more commonly than the other types.

91
Q

Aperture exits of the facial nerve

A
  1. Hiatus of facial canal
  2. Petrotympanic fissure
  3. Stylomastoid foramen
92
Q

The corneal reflex is a function of which nerve?

93
Q

Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by the

A

Chorda tympani

Facial nerve

94
Q

Central facial palsy means that the patient cannot wrinkle the forehead. T or F

A

False. Can still wrinkle forehead despite the rest of the side bing paralyzed.

95
Q

Orbital roof bones

A

Frontal, lesser wing of the sphenoid

96
Q

Floor of the orbit

A

Maxilla, zygomatic, palatine

97
Q

Medial wall of the orbit

A

Ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal, sphenoid

98
Q

Lateral wall of the orbit

A

Zygomatic, greater wing of the sphenoid

99
Q

All extraocular muscles originate from the annulus of zinn except the …? Give origin site.

A

SO - roof

IO - floor

100
Q

Which ocular smooth muscle elevates the upper eyelid

A

Superior tarsal

101
Q

Processes in accommodation

A

Pupillary constriction
Lens accommodation
Convergence

102
Q

In pupillary light testing, absence of consensual reflex means that … while absence of direct reflex is …

A

Consensual- motor connection problem

Direct - sensory input problem

103
Q

Which part of the eye is most responsible for the refraction of light

A

Cornea - 2/3

Lens 1/3

104
Q

The cornea has no vessels, lymphatics, or nerves. T or F.

105
Q

Maintains the shape of the globe and provides attachment for extraocular muscles

106
Q

Parts of the uveal tract

A

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

107
Q

Layers of the retina

A

Inner limiting membrane, nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform, inner nuclear, outer plexiform, outer nuclear, exteral limiting, photorceptor layer, RPE

108
Q

The sternum is made up of 3 bones namely:

A

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

109
Q

The manubrium articulates with the costal cartilages of ___ ribs.

110
Q

The manubrium overall has how many joints?

111
Q

The body of the sternum articulates with _____ ribs

112
Q

True ribs (vertebrocostal)

113
Q

False ribs (vertebrochondral)

114
Q

False floating ribs

115
Q

Part of the rib where most fractures tend to occur

A

Anterior to the angle

116
Q

Broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved rib

117
Q

Grooves of rib 1

A

Groove for subclavian vessels and scalene tubercle

118
Q

Which rib contains the tuberosity for serratus anterior?

119
Q

Which ribs has only 1 facet and articulate with a single vertebrae?

120
Q

Which ribs have no tubercle and neck?

121
Q

Ribs with 2 facets and attaches below to numerically corresponding vertebra and vertebra above

122
Q

Intercostal spaces are named according to…

A

Rib forming the SUPERIOR BORDER OF THE SPACE

123
Q

Syndrome due to the compression of the subclavian artery and or brachial plexus

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

124
Q

Bone compression causing thoracic outlet syndrome is due to a…

A

Cervical rib from c7

125
Q

Excessive muscle growth of the scalene can cause

A

Scalenus anticus syndrome (thoracic outlet)

126
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome due to narrowing of the 1st ICS is called

A

Costoclavicular syndrome

127
Q

The apex of the axillary fossa is found in which axillary line?

128
Q

The inferolateral border of the pectoralis major is found in which axillary line?

A

Anterior axillary line

129
Q

The latissimus dorsi and teres major is found in which axillary line?

130
Q

Taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is innervated by the

A

Chorda tympani

Facial nerve

131
Q

Central facial palsy means that the patient cannot wrinkle the forehead. T or F

A

False. Can still wrinkle forehead despite the rest of the side bing paralyzed.

132
Q

Orbital roof bones

A

Frontal, lesser wing of the sphenoid

133
Q

Floor of the orbit

A

Maxilla, zygomatic, palatine

134
Q

Medial wall of the orbit

A

Ethmoid, maxilla, lacrimal, sphenoid

135
Q

Lateral wall of the orbit

A

Zygomatic, greater wing of the sphenoid

136
Q

All extraocular muscles originate from the annulus of zinn except the …? Give origin site.

A

SO - roof

IO - floor

137
Q

Which ocular smooth muscle elevates the upper eyelid

A

Superior tarsal

138
Q

Processes in accommodation

A

Pupillary constriction
Lens accommodation
Convergence

139
Q

In pupillary light testing, absence of consensual reflex means that … while absence of direct reflex is …

A

Consensual- motor connection problem

Direct - sensory input problem

140
Q

Which part of the eye is most responsible for the refraction of light

A

Cornea - 2/3

Lens 1/3

141
Q

The cornea has no vessels, lymphatics, or nerves. T or F.

142
Q

Maintains the shape of the globe and provides attachment for extraocular muscles

143
Q

Parts of the uveal tract

A

Choroid, ciliary body, iris

144
Q

Layers of the retina

A

Inner limiting membrane, nerve fiber layer, ganglion cell layer, inner plexiform, inner nuclear, outer plexiform, outer nuclear, exteral limiting, photorceptor layer, RPE

145
Q

The sternum is made up of 3 bones namely:

A

Manubrium, body, xiphoid process

146
Q

The manubrium articulates with the costal cartilages of ___ ribs.

147
Q

The manubrium overall has how many joints?

148
Q

The body of the sternum articulates with _____ ribs

149
Q

True ribs (vertebrocostal)

150
Q

False ribs (vertebrochondral)

151
Q

False floating ribs

152
Q

Part of the rib where most fractures tend to occur

A

Anterior to the angle

153
Q

Broadest, shortest, and most sharply curved rib

154
Q

Grooves of rib 1

A

Groove for subclavian vessels and scalene tubercle

155
Q

Which rib contains the tuberosity for serratus anterior?

156
Q

Which ribs has only 1 facet and articulate with a single vertebrae?

157
Q

Which ribs have no tubercle and neck?

158
Q

Ribs with 2 facets and attaches below to numerically corresponding vertebra and vertebra above

159
Q

Intercostal spaces are named according to…

A

Rib forming the SUPERIOR BORDER OF THE SPACE

160
Q

Syndrome due to the compression of the subclavian artery and or brachial plexus

A

Thoracic outlet syndrome

161
Q

Bone compression causing thoracic outlet syndrome is due to a…

A

Cervical rib from c7

162
Q

Excessive muscle growth of the scalene can cause

A

Scalenus anticus syndrome (thoracic outlet)

163
Q

Thoracic outlet syndrome due to narrowing of the 1st ICS is called

A

Costoclavicular syndrome

164
Q

The apex of the axillary fossa is found in which axillary line?

165
Q

The inferolateral border of the pectoralis major is found in which axillary line?

A

Anterior axillary line

166
Q

The latissimus dorsi and teres major is found in which axillary line?

167
Q

Needle thoracostomy is usually done in the

A

2nd ICS MCL or AAL

168
Q

Chest tube thoracostomy is usually done on the

A

5th ICS ANterior axillary line, superior border of lower rib

169
Q

Thoracentesis is done at the

A

9th ICS, midaxillary line during expiration

170
Q

Structures the needle/tube passes through during thoracostomy

A

Skin - superficial fascia - serratus anterior - external intercostals - internal intercostals - innermost intercostals - endothoracic fascia - parietal pleura

171
Q

Most important muscle of inspiration

172
Q

Level of the diaphragm (R and L) on expiration

A

R 4th ICS

L 5th ICS

173
Q

Origin and insertion of the diaphragm

A

ORIGIN
Sternal part: posterior surface of the xiphoid
Costal part: posterior surface of lower 6 ribs
Vertebral part: vertebral columns

INSERTION
Central tendon

174
Q

A classic diaphragmatic hernia is called what and where is its usual location?

A

bochdalek

Left posterolateral area

(Defect in pleuroperitoneal membrane) in developing embryonic diaphragm

175
Q

An anteromedial hernial defect in the diaphragm is called

176
Q

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Septum transversum

A

Central tendon

177
Q

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Pleuroperitoneal membrane

A

Bulk of muscular part of the diaphragm

178
Q

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Body wall mesenchyme

A

Peripheral muscular part

179
Q

Diaphragm

Identify which adult structure this embryonic structures develop into:
Dorsal mesentery of the esophagus

A

Diaphragmatic crura

180
Q

Apertures of the diaphragm

A

Caval, esophageal, aortic

181
Q

Level of the different apertures if the diaphragm

A

Caval T8
Esophageal T10
Aortic T12

182
Q

Contents of the caval aperture of the diaphragm

A

IVC, Phrenic nerve

183
Q

Contents of the esophageal aperture of the diaphragm

A

Esophagus, r vagus, l gastric vessels, lymphatics from lower 3rd of esophagus

184
Q

Contents of the aortic aperture of the diaphragm

A

Aorta, thoracic duct, azygos vein

185
Q

Motor and sensory nerve supply of the diaphragm

A

Motor: Phrenic nerve
Sensory: Central - phrenic nerve, Peripheral - T7-T11, subcostal nerve

186
Q

Blood supply of the diaphragm

A

Superior surface:

  1. Pericardiphrenic, musculophrenic (internal thoracic artery (first branch of subclavian)
  2. Superior phrenic arteries (thoracic aorta)

Inferior surface:
Inferior phrenic artery (abdominal aorta)

187
Q

Difference in nucleus of prokaryotic cells vs eukaryotic cells

A

Prokaryotic- nucleoid with nonclear nuclear membrane

Eukaryotic- true nucleus with nuclear membrane

188
Q

Difference in DNA and RNA of prokaryotic vs eukaryotic cells

A

Prokaryotic - circular DNA and RNA

Eukaryotic - linear DNA and RNA

189
Q

Replication differences between prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

Pro- continuous replication, asexual reproduction (binary fission)
Euk- G and S phase, cytokinesis with mitosis/meiosis

190
Q

Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes (ribosomes)

A

Pro- 70s ribosomes (50s and 30s)

Euk- 80s ribosomes (60s and 40s)

191
Q

All prokaryotes have no sterol in their membranes except

A

Mycoplasma

192
Q

What antibiotics target the 50s and 30s of bacteria?

A

Mnemonic: buy AT 30, CELLS at 50

30s
Aminoglycosides
Tetracycline

50s
Chloramphenicol
Erythromycin (Macrolides)
Lincosamides (Clindamycin)
Linezolid
Streptogramins
193
Q

The outer nuclear membrane is continuous with what structure in the cell?

194
Q

This form of chromatin is most abundant.

A

Euchromatin

195
Q

Site of DNA transcription

196
Q

Responible for ribosomal synthesis

197
Q

This is a complex of DNA, histone and non-histone proteins

198
Q

Site of DNA replication

199
Q

Where can you find Barr bodies?

A

Heterochromatin

200
Q

Allows passage of nucleus to nucleus

A

Nuclear pore

201
Q

Structure of the nuclear envelope

A

Double membrane and continuous with the ER

202
Q

3 zones of the nucleolus (ribosomal production)

A

Granular zone- maturing ribosomes
Dense fibrillar zone - active zone
Fibrillar center - inactive DNA

ANA, BCHM, PHY (23 decks)

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