✅1.6 PHYSIOLOGY - Hema Flashcards

0
Q

Examples of alpha globulins

A

Proteases, antiproteases, transport proteins

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1
Q

3 types of globulins

A

Alpha
Beta
Gamma

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2
Q

Examples of beta globulins

A

Transferrin and other transport proteins

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3
Q

Examples of gamma globulins

A

Immunoglobulins

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4
Q

Process of forming blood cells in the bone marrow

A

Haemopoeisis

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5
Q

Site of blood cell formation beginning 3rd week AOG

A

Yolk sac/ Aortic Gonad Mesonephros (AGM) Region

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6
Q

Site of blood cell formation from the 3rd month AOG to birth

A

Liver with minor contributions from the spleen, LN

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7
Q

Only source of blood cells postnatally

A

Bone marrow

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8
Q

Age group where all bone marrow are active

A

Birth to puberty

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9
Q

Age group where only bone marrow of vertebra, ribs, sternum, skull, and pelvis, proximal epiphyseal region of the humerus are active

A

Age 20 (remaining bone marrow, fatty, yellow, inactive)

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10
Q

Post embryonic extramedullary hematopoeisis in full term infant is always

A

Abnormal

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11
Q

Most abundant of blood cells

A

RBCs

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12
Q

How does RBC act as an acid base buffer?

A

It contains carbonic anhydrase, an enzyme that catalyzes the reaction between CO2 and water to form carbonic acid or H2CO3

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13
Q

The carbonic anydrase buffer system is important because

A
  1. It allows about 70% of CO2 to be transported in blood plasma from tissue cells to the lungs in the form of HCO3

2 Serves as an important buffer in extracellular fluid

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14
Q

The normal biconcave disc shape of RBC is due to

A

Spectrin

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15
Q

Composition of hemoglobin

A

4 polypeptide subunits (2 alpha and 2 beta)

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16
Q

Composition of fetal hemoglobin

A

2 alpha and 2 gamma

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17
Q

How many oxygen molecules can 1 hemoglobin molecule bind?

A

4

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18
Q

How many O2 molecules can myoglobin molecules bind?

A

1

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19
Q

Most common hemoglobin in adults

A

Hemoglobin A

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20
Q

Essential metalic component of heme

A

Iron

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21
Q

Total iron in the body

A

4-5g

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22
Q

Vitamin required for the absorption of iron

A

Vitamin C

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23
Q

Iron and vitamin c are absorbed in the

A

Duodenum

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24
Q

1 storage protein for iron in the liver

A

ferritin

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25
Q

Supplemental storage for iron

A

Hemosiderin

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26
Q

Other name for hemosiderin laden macrophages

A

Heart failure cells

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27
Q

Last nucleated stage of RBC

A

Orthochromatic erythroblast

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28
Q

First non-nucleated RBCs

A

Reticulocytes

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29
Q

Reticulocytes take how many days to mature

A

1-2 days

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30
Q

How many liters of water is absorbed in the large intestine?

A

1.5 L

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31
Q

Substances exclusively absorbed in the ileum

A

Vit ADEK, IF, B12, Bile salts

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32
Q

Substances absorbed in the jejunum

A

CArbs, fat, CHON, H20

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33
Q

Only valid indication for stem cell therapy

A

Leukemia and lymphoma

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34
Q

Main stimulus for EPO production

A

Hypoxia

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35
Q

Effect of EPO will manifest after how many days?

A

5 days

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36
Q

Characteristics of mature RBCs

A

No nucleus, no mitochondria, no ER

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37
Q

Lifespan of adult RBCs

A

120 days

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38
Q

Life span of fetal RBCs

A

90 days

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39
Q

Intravascular destruction of RBCs happen here

A

Spleen

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40
Q

Extravascular destruction of RBC is due to

A

Macrophages

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41
Q

Fate of heme in destroyed RBC

A

Bilirubin

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42
Q

Nutrients essential in DNA synthesis

A

Folic acid, vit B12

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43
Q

Megaloblastic anemia + neural deficits

A

Vit B12 deficiency

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44
Q

Megaloblastic anemia + neural tube disorders

A

Folic acid deficiency

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45
Q

Needed to absorb vitamin B12

A

Intrinsic factor

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46
Q

Granulocytes/PML/Myeloid cells

A

Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

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47
Q

Agranulocytes

A

Monocytes, lymphocytes

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48
Q

Site of production of granulocytes and monocytes

A

Bone marrow

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49
Q

Site of production of lymphocytes and plasma cells

A

LN, spleen, thymus, tonsils, peyer’s patches

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50
Q

Lifespan of granulocytes

A

4-8 hrs in blood, 4-5 days in tissues (shortened in infection)

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51
Q

Lifespan of monocytes

A

10-20 hrs in blood

For several months in tissues

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52
Q

Lifespan of lymphocytes

A

Weeks to months

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53
Q

Most common WBC

A

Neutrophils

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54
Q

Prominent feature of neutrophils

A

Highly lobulated nucleus

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55
Q

Involved in parasitic infections and allergic reactions

A

Eosinophils

56
Q

Stains bright red with eosin dye

A

Eosinophils

57
Q

WBCs with bilobed nucleus

A

Eosinophils and basophils

58
Q

Least common type of WBC

A

Basophils

59
Q

Tissue “basophils”

A

Mast cells

60
Q

Basophils produce

A

Histamine, heparin, bradykinin, serotonin

61
Q

Largest WBC

A

Monocytes

62
Q

Monocytes in the tissue are called

A

Macrophages

63
Q

Prominent feature of monocytes

A

Eccentrically placed nucleus

64
Q

Platelets are from

A

Megakaryocytes

65
Q

Life span of platelets

A

7-10 days

66
Q

2nd most common type WBC

A

Lymphocytes

67
Q

Cells of adaptive immunity

A

Lymphocytes

68
Q

Smallest of WBC

A

Lymphocytes

69
Q

What does “CD” mean?

A

Cluster of differentiation

70
Q

Prominent feature of lymphocytes

A

Round, densely stained nucleus with a pale basophilic, non-granular cytoplasm

71
Q

Which can pahgocytize more bacteria? Neutrophils or macrophages?

A

Macrophages - up to 100 bacteria

Neutrophils - 3-20 bacteria

72
Q

Movement of neutrophils and macrophages towards a chemical signal

A

Chemotaxis

73
Q

Criteria for diapedesis

A

Invasion of the basement membrane

74
Q

Movement out of the circulatory system and into the site of injury

A

Diapedesis

75
Q

In tissue injury, ____ cells will release histamin causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

A

Mast cells

76
Q

1st line of defense in injury

A

Tissue macrophages

77
Q

2nd line of defense

A

Neutrophils

78
Q

3rd line of defense

A

Monocytes

Can be converted to tissue macrophage

79
Q

Monocyte activation can take up to

A

8 hours

80
Q

4th line of defense

A

Increase monocyte and granulocyte production by the BM

Mediated by: TNF, Il-1, GM-CSF, M-CSF

81
Q

The 4th line of defense take up to

A

3-4 days

82
Q

Antibodies constitute how many percent of plasma proteins?

A

20%

83
Q

2 parts of an antibody

A

Variable portion

Constant portion

84
Q

Most abundant antibody (75%)

A

IgG

85
Q

Smallest antibody, only one able to cross the placenta

A

IgG

86
Q

Antibody in secondary response

A

IgG

87
Q

Antibody in primary response

A

IgM

88
Q

Largest antibody

A

IgM

89
Q

Main immunoglobulin in secretions

A

IgA

90
Q

Mechanism of action of antibodies

A

Direct and indirect

91
Q

Direct mechanism of action of antibodies include

A

Agglutination
Precipitation
Neutralization
Lysis

92
Q

The complement system is responsible for 3 things

A

Opsonization
MAC
Stimulate inflammation

93
Q

Most numerous of Tcells

A

Helper T cell

94
Q

T helper cells

CD and MHC?

A

CD4 MHCII

95
Q

Cytotoxic T cell

CD and MHC?

A

CD8 and MHC I

96
Q

Cytotoxic T cells create holes through

A

Perforins

97
Q

Targets of CD8 cells

A

Virally infected cells, cancer cells, transplanted cells

98
Q

Macrophages present antigens to Helper T cells with what interleukin?

A

Il-1

99
Q

T helper cells call B cells by which interleukins?

A

IL 4, 5, 6

100
Q

t helper cells call CD8, supressor Tc, and memory t cells by which IL?

A

Il-2

101
Q

Plays an important role in limiting the ability of the immune system to attack a person’s own body tissue.

A

Suppressor T cells

102
Q

Rhesus antigen

A

Antigen D

103
Q

Blood type A antigen

A

n acetyl galactosamine

104
Q

Type B antigen

A

Galactose

105
Q

Determined by genotype from mom and dad

A

Agglutinogen

106
Q

Spontaneously acquired from food, bacteria

A

Agglutinins

107
Q

Agglutinin production start at

A

2-8 months of age

108
Q

Self organ transplantation

A

Autograft

109
Q

Same species transplantation

A

Allograft

110
Q

Twin transplantation

A

Isograft/syngeic graft

111
Q

Transplant from other species

A

Xenograft

112
Q

Isograft rejection percentage?

A

0%

113
Q

Events in hemostasis

A

Vascular constriction
Platelet plug formation
Blood coagulation
Resolution

114
Q

Vasoconstricting agent in injury

A

Endothelin 1

115
Q

Mediators of platelet adhesion

A

VWF

gp1b

116
Q

Mediators of platelet aggregation

A

Fibrinogen

GpIIb-IIIa

117
Q

Pathway activated due to trauma to the vascular walls and is faster and more explosive

A

Extrinsic pathway

118
Q

Pathway activated due to trauma of the blood cells or exposure of blood to collagen from traumatized vessel walls

A

Intrinsic

119
Q

Extrinsic pathway is initiated by

A

Tissue factor

120
Q

Thrombin causes positive feedback via the activation of

A

Factor V

121
Q

The intrinsic pathway is initiated by

A

Factor XII and platelets

122
Q

Which clotting factors are common to both intrinsic and extrinsic pathways?

A

V and X

123
Q

Factor I

A

Fibrinogen

124
Q

Factor II

A

Prothrombin

125
Q

Factor III

A

Tissue factor, tissue thromboplastin

126
Q

Factor IV

A

Calcium

127
Q

Factor V

A

Proaccelerin, labile factor, Ac globulin

128
Q

Factor VII

A

Serum prothrombin conversion accelerator, proconvertin, stable factor

129
Q

Factor VIII

A

Antihemophilic factor, antihemophilic factor A

130
Q

Factor IX

A

Plasma thromboplastin component
Christmas factor
Anyihemophilic factor B

131
Q

Factor X

A

Stuart factor

Stuart prower factor

132
Q

Factor XI

A

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

Antihemophilc factor C

133
Q

Factor XII

A

Hageman factor

134
Q

Factor XIII

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor

135
Q

Prekallikrein

A

Fletcher factor

136
Q

HMW kininogen

A

Fritzgerald factor

137
Q

Other name for plasmin

A

Fibrinolysin

138
Q

Most crucial event in wound healing

A

Hemostasis