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A&P 1 Summer 2023 > A&P Chapter 12 > Flashcards

A&P Chapter 12 Flashcards

1
Q

Adult brains have how many regions?

A

Four

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2
Q

What are the four regions of the adult brain?

A
  1. Cerebral hemispheres
  2. Diencephalon
  3. Brainstem (Midbrain, pons, medulla)
  4. Cerebellum
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3
Q

What are ventricles?

A

Fluid-filled chambers that are continuous to one another and to the central canal of the spinal cord

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4
Q

What are ventricles filled with?

A

Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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5
Q

What does gray matter contain?

A

Neuron cell bodies and short nonmyelinated neurons

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6
Q

What does white matter contain?

A

Mostly myelinated axons and some nonmyelinated axons

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7
Q

What are ventricles lined by?

A

Ependymal cells (neuroglial cells)

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8
Q

Paired lateral ventricles are what?

A

Large, C-shaped chambers located deep in each hemisphere

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9
Q

What are the lateral ventricles separated by?

A

Septum pellucidum

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10
Q

The third ventricle is connected by what?

A

Interventricular foramen

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11
Q

The fourth ventricle is connected by what?

A

Cerebral aqueduct

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12
Q

The meninges cover and protect what?

A

CNS

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13
Q

What are the three layers of meninges (external to internal)?

A

Dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater

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14
Q

What is the subdural space?

A

In between the dura and arachnoid mater

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15
Q

What is the subarachnoid space?

A

In between the arachnoid and pia mater

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16
Q

What does the subarachnoid space contain?

A

CSF and the largest blood vessels of the brain

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17
Q

What is meningitis?

A

Inflammation of the meninges primarily due to bacterial or viral infection

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18
Q

If meningitis spreads to the CNS, what could happen?

A

Inflammation of the brain, referred to as encephalitis

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19
Q

How is meningitis usually diagnosed?

A

By observing microbes in a sample of CSF obtained via lumbar puncture

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20
Q

What are the symptoms of meningitis?

A

Fever, headache, vomiting, and stiff neck (more severe with bacterial infection)

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21
Q

Meningitis can result in what if untreated?

A

Brain damage and death

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22
Q

How can meningitis be prevented?

A

Vaccine for most common bacterial strains causing meningitis

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23
Q

What does the CSF form?

A

A liquid cushion of constant volume around the brain

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24
Q

What are the functions of CSF?

A
  1. Gives buoyancy to CNS structures (reduces weight of brain by 97% by floating it so it is not crushed under its own weight)
  2. Protects CNS from blows and other trauma
  3. Nourishes brain and carries chemical signals
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25
Q

What is the CSF composed of?

A

Watery solution formed from blood plasma, but with less protein and different ion concentrations from plasma

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26
Q

What is the choroid plexus?

A

Cluster of capillaries that hangs from roof of each ventricle, enclosed by the pia mater and surrounding layer of ependymal cells

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27
Q

CSF is filtered from the plexus at a ______ rate

A

Constant

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28
Q

Ependymal cells use ____ -___ to control the composition of CSF and helps cleanse the CSF by removing wastes

A

Ion pumps

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29
Q

What keeps CSF in motion?

A

Cilia of ependymal cells

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30
Q

What is the normal adult CSF volume, and how often is it replaced?

A

~150ml, and is replaced every 8 hours

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31
Q

What is the blood brain barrier?

A

Helps maintain stable environment for the brain and prevent neuron exposure to harmful substances.

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32
Q

What can pass the blood brain barrier?

A

Some drugs and alcohol

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33
Q

What are the 3 important features of the blood brain barrier?

A
  1. Tight junctions ensure substances pass through, not around endothelial cells
  2. Feet of astrocytes and smooth muscle-like pericytes surround endothelial cells
  3. Continuous basement membrane
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34
Q

What do the cerebral hemispheres form?

A

Superior part of the brain

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35
Q

What percentage of brain mass do the cerebral hemispheres form?

A

83%

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36
Q

What are the brain surface markings?

A

Gyri, sulci, fissures (longitudinal and transverse)

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37
Q

What are gyri?

A

Ridges

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38
Q

What is sulci?

A

Shallow grooves

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39
Q

What are fissures?

A

Deep grooves

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40
Q

What is the longitudinal fissure?

A

Separates two hemisphere

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41
Q

What is the transverse cerebral fissure?

A

Separates cerebrum and cerebellum

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42
Q

What are the 5 cerebral lobes?

A
  1. Frontal
  2. Parietal
  3. Temporal
  4. Occipital
  5. Insula
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43
Q

What does the frontal lobe do?

A

Voluntary motor functions, concentration, communication, decision making, planning, and personality

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44
Q

What does the parietal lobe do?

A

Serves general sensory functions

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45
Q

What is an example of what the parietal lobe does?

A

Evaluating shape and texture of objects

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46
Q

What does the temporal lobe do?

A

Hearing and smell

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47
Q

What does the occipital lobe do?

A

Functions in vision and visual memories

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48
Q

Where is the insula?

A

Deep to lateral sulcus

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49
Q

What does the insula do?

A

Functions in memory and sense of taste

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50
Q

What is the cerebral cortex known as?

A

Executive suite of the brain

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51
Q

What does the cerebral cortex do?

A

Site of conscious mind: awareness, sensory perception, voluntary motor initiation, communication, memory, storage, and understanding

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52
Q

What is the cerebral cortex composed of?

A

Thin (2-4mm) superficial layer of gray matter composed from neuron cell bodies, dendrites, glial cells, and blood vessels

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53
Q

What does the cerebral cortex not contain?

A

Axons

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54
Q

What percentage of brain mass does the cerebral cortex make up?

A

40%

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55
Q

What are the features of the cerebral cortex?

A
  1. Contains three types of functional areas (motor, sensory, association)
  2. Each hemisphere is concerned with contralateral (opposite) side of body
  3. Lateralization (specialization) of cortical function can only occur in one hemisphere
  4. Conscious behavior involves entire cortex in one way or another
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56
Q

What are the three types of functional areas of the cerebral cortex and what do they do?

A

Motor areas = controls voluntary movement
Sensory areas = conscious awareness of sensation
Association areas = integrate diverse information

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57
Q

What do motor areas of the brain contain?

A

Primary motor cortex, premotor cortex, frontal eye field, Broca’s area

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58
Q

Where is the primary (somatic) motor cortex?

A

Located in the precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe

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59
Q

What does the primary (somatic) motor cortex do?

A

Allows conscious control of skilled voluntary movement of skeletal muscles

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60
Q

What is somatotopy?

A

All muscles of the body can be mapped to area on the primary motor cortex

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61
Q

What is the motor homunculi?

A

Upside-down caricatures represents contralateral motor innervation of body regions

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62
Q

What is Broca’s area?

A

Motor speech area that directs muscles of speech production, also active in planning speech and voluntary motor activities

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63
Q

Where is Broca’s area?

A

Present in one hemisphere (usually the left)

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64
Q

What does the frontal eye field contain?

A

Controls voluntary eye movements

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65
Q

Damages to areas of the primary motor cortex (like in a stroke) does what?

A

Paralyzes muscles controlled by those areas

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66
Q

Paralysis occurs on the _____ side of the body from the damage

A

Opposite

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67
Q

What is not impaired in damage to the primary motor cortex?

A

Muscle strength or ability to perform discrete individual movements is not impaired

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68
Q

What is an example of damage to the primary motor cortex?

A

Damage to the premotor area controlling movement of the fingers would still allow the fingers to move, but voluntary control needed to type would be lost

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69
Q

Other premotor neurons can be _______ to take over the skill of damage neurons?

A

Reprogrammed

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70
Q

What is FAST for a stroke?

A

(F)ace drooping
(A)rm weakness
(S)peech difficulty
(T)ime to call 911

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71
Q

What does the sensory areas and related association areas contain?

A

Primary somatosensory cortex, somatosensory association cortex, gustatory cortex, vestibular cortex, Wernicke’s area, primary visual cortex, visual association area, auditory association area, primary auditory cortex

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72
Q

What does the primary somatosensory cortex recieve?

A

General sensory information from skin and proprioceptors of skeletal muscle, joints, and tendons

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73
Q

What is the primary somatosensory cortex capable of?

A

Spatial discrimination

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74
Q

What is spatial discrimination?

A

Identification of body region being stimulated

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75
Q

What is the somatosensory homunculus?

A

Upside-down caricature represent contralateral sensory input from body regions

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76
Q

What is lateralization?

A

Hemispheres are not identical

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77
Q

What is cerebral dominance?

A

Refers to hemisphere that is dominant for language

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78
Q

What percentage of humans have left-sided dominance?

A

90%

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79
Q

What does left-sided dominance usually result in?

A

Right-handedness

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80
Q

The roles of hemispheres are reversed in what percentage of humans?

A

10%

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81
Q

What does the left hemisphere do?

A

Controls language, math, and logic

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82
Q

What does the right hemisphere do?

A

Visual-spatial skills, intuition, emotion, artistic and musical skills

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83
Q

Hemisphere communicates almost instantaneously via what?

A

Fiber tracts and functional integration

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84
Q

What are the cerebral white matter tracks responsible for?

A

Responsible for communication between cerebral areas, and between cortex and lower CNS

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85
Q

What does the cerebral white matter tracks consist of?

A

Myelinated fibers bundled into large tracts

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86
Q

How are cerebral white matter classified?

A

According to the direction they run

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87
Q

What are the classifications of cerebral white matter?

A

Association, commissural, and projection fibers

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88
Q

What are association fibers?

A

Horizontal running fibers that connect different parts of the same hemisphere

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89
Q

What are commissural fibers?

A

Horizontal fibers that connect gray matter of two hemisphere

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90
Q

What is an example of commissural fibers?

A

Corpus callosum

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91
Q

What are projection fibers?

A

Vertical fibers that connect hemispheres with the lower brain or spinal cord

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92
Q

What is Huntington disease?

A

Hereditary disease affecting the cerebral nuclei

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93
Q

What is the physiology of Huntington’s?

A

Mutated Huntingtin protein (HTT), which is toxic to neurons

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94
Q

What are some symptoms of Huntington’s?

A

Rapid, jerky, involuntary movements and intellectual deterioration

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95
Q

What is the prognosis of Huntington’s?

A

Fatal within 10-20 years after onset

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96
Q

What is the physiology of Parkinson’s disease?

A

Decreased dopamine production and death of neurons in the substantia nigra

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97
Q

What does Parkinson’s disease affect?

A

Muscle movement and balance

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98
Q

What are symptoms of Parkinson’s disesase?

A

Stiff posture, slow voluntary movements, resting tremor

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99
Q

What does the diencephalon contain?

A

The epithalamus, thalamus, and hypothalamus

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100
Q

What does the diencephalon do?

A

Provides relays and switching centers for sensory, motor, and visceral pathways

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101
Q

What is the epitalamus?

A

The most dorsal portion of the diencephalon that forms the roof of the third ventricle

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102
Q

What does the epithalamus contain?

A

The pineal gland (body)

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103
Q

Where is the pineal gland in the epithalamus?

A

Extends from the posterior border

104
Q

What does the pineal gland do?

A

Secretes melatonin that helps regulate the sleep-wake cycle

105
Q

What is the main thalamic function?

A

Acts as relay station for information coming into the cortex

106
Q

The thalamus sorts, edits, and relays ascending input such as what?

A
  1. Impulses from hypothalamus for regulating emotion and visceral function
  2. Impulses from cerebellum and basal nuclei to help direct motor cortices
  3. Impulses for memory or sensory integration
107
Q

What does the thalamus do overall?

A

It acts to mediate sensation, motor activities, cortical arousal, learning, and memory

108
Q

What is an example of what the thalamus does?

A

Filters background noise in a crowded room

109
Q

What is the hypothalamus?

A

Control center of the body

110
Q

What is the infundibulum?

A

Stalk that connects to the pituitary gland and controls hormone release

111
Q

What are some things that the hypothalamus regulates?

A

Body temperature, regulates, hunger, thirst, and sleep-wake cycles

112
Q

What does the hypothalamus control?

A

Autonomic nervous system

113
Q

What are some examples of things that the hypothalamus controls that are a part of the autonomic nervous system?

A

Blood pressure, rate and force of heartbeat, digestive tract, motility, and pupil size

114
Q

The hypothalamus initiates physical responses to ______

A

Emotions

115
Q

As a part of the limbic system, what are some examples of the hypothalamus initiating physical responses to emotions?

A

Perceives pleasure, fear, rage, biological rhythms, and drives (like the sex drive)

116
Q

What makes up the midbrain?

A

Corpora quadrigemina and the cerebral aqueduct

117
Q

What makes up the brainstem (superior to inferior)?

A

Midbrain, pons, medulla oblongata

118
Q

What does the brain stem control?

A

Controls autonomic behaviors necessary for survival

119
Q

What does the midbrain connect

A

Connects cerebrum, diencephalon, and cerebellum to the spinal cord

120
Q

What is the midbrain?

A

Relay center for visual and auditory

121
Q

Midbrain nuclei scattered throughout white matter include what?

A

Corpora quadrigemina and substantia nigra

122
Q

What is the corpora quadrigemina?

A

Paired dorsal protrusions

123
Q

What is the substantia nigra?

A

Functionally linked to basal nuclei

124
Q

What disorder involces the substantia nigra?

A

Parkinson’s

125
Q

Where is the pons?

A

Located between the midbrain and medulla oblongata

126
Q

What does the pons connect?

A

Higher brain centers and spinal cord

127
Q

The functions of the medulla oblongata overlap with what?

A

The hypothalamus

128
Q

What are some functions of the medulla oblongata?

A

Rate and depth of breathing, force and rate of heart contraction and cardiac output, blood vessel diameter and blood pressure

129
Q

What does the medulla oblongata regulate?

A

Vomiting, hiccupping, swallowing, coughing, and sneezing

130
Q

Cerebrellar hemispheres are connected by what?

A

Vermis

131
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Processes input from the cortex, brain stem, and sensory receptors to provide precise coordinated movements of skeletal muscles

132
Q

What does the cerebellum do?

A

Processes input from the cortex, brain stem, and sensory receptors to provide precise coordinated movements of skeletal muscles

133
Q

The cerebellum plays a major role in what?

A

Balance

134
Q

What does the limbic system do?

A

Processes and experiences emotion

135
Q

What is the limbic system called?

A

The emotional brain

136
Q

What makes up the limbic system?

A

Cingulate gyrus, hippocampus, amygdaloid body, olfactory bulbs, olfactory tracts, olfactory cortex

137
Q

What is does the cingulate gyrus do?

A

Expressing emotion via gestures, resolves mental conflict

138
Q

What does the hippocampus do?

A

Helps form long-term memories

139
Q

What does the amygdaloid body do?

A

Involved in many aspects of emotion and emotional memory, especially fear, extreme happiness or sadness

140
Q

What does the olfactory bulbs, tracts and cortex do?

A

Process ordors that can provoke emotions

141
Q

Analysis of higher mental functions include what?

A
  1. Language
  2. Memory
  3. Brain waves and EEGs
  4. Consciousness
  5. Sleep and sleep-wake cycles
142
Q

The language implementation system involves association cortex of which hemisphere?

A

Left

143
Q

What are the main language areas?

A

Broca’s area and Wernicke’s area

144
Q

Broca’s area is involved in what?

A

Speech production

145
Q

Patients with lesions in Broca’s area do what?

A

Understand words, but cannot speak

146
Q

What is the Wernicke’s area involved in?

A

Understanding spoken and written words

147
Q

Patients with lesions in Wernicke’s area do what?

A

Can speak, but words are nonsensible

148
Q

Corresponding language areas on the right side are involved with what?

A

Nonverbal language components

149
Q

What is memory?

A

Storage and retrieval of information

150
Q

What are the different kinds of memory?

A

Declaritive, procedural, motor, and emotional memory

151
Q

What is declarative memory?

A

Facts

152
Q

What are some examples of declarative memory?

A

Names, faces, words, and dates

153
Q

What is an example of procedural memory?

A

Playing piano

154
Q

What is an example of motor memory?

A

Riding a bike

155
Q

What is emotional memory?

A

Memory of experiences linked to an emotion

156
Q

What is an example of emotional memory?

A

Heart pounding when you hear a rattlesnake

157
Q

What are the two stages of declarative memory storage?

A

Short-term memory and long-term memory

158
Q

What is short-tem/working memory?

A

Temporary holding of information, limited to seven or eight pieces of information

159
Q

What is the capacity of long-term memory?

A

Limitless

160
Q

What causes amnesia?

A

Damage to the hippocampus or surrounding temporal lobe structures on either side result in only slight memory loss

161
Q

What causes widespread amnesia?

A

Bilateral destruction

162
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

Loss of memories formed in the distant past

163
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

Consolidated memories are not lost, but new inputs are not associated with old ones

164
Q

How does a person with anterograde amnesia live?

A

Lives in the here and now

165
Q

WHat is an example of anterograde amnesia?

A

Memory of conversations from just 5 minutes before would not be remembered

166
Q

What is Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Progressive degenerative disease of the brain that results in dementia

167
Q

When does Alzheimer’s occur?

A

After age 65

168
Q

What are symptoms of Alzheimer’s?

A

Memory loss, short attention span, disorientation, eventual language loss, irritability, moodiness, confusion, and hallucinations

169
Q

What is an early sign of Alzheimer’s?

A

Loss of sense of smell

170
Q

What causes Alzheimer’s?

A

Beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles

171
Q

What is beta-amyloid plaques?

A

Peptides form in the brain

172
Q

What are neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Inside neurons interfere with transport neurons, eventually killing the neuron

173
Q

As brain cells die, what happens to the brain?

A

The brain shrinks

174
Q

What is an epileptic seizure?

A

Torrent of electrical discharges by groups of neurons that prevents any other messages from getting through

175
Q

Victims of epilepsy may experience what?

A

Loose consciousness, fall stiffly, and have uncontrollable jerking

176
Q

Epilepsy is not associated with what?

A

Intellectual impairments

177
Q

How often does epilepsy occur?

A

1% of the population

178
Q

What are risk factors of epilepsy?

A

Brain injuries, stroke, infections, or tumors, as well as genetic factors

179
Q

What is a febrile seizure?

A

A convulsion ina child caused by a spike in body temperature, often in infection

180
Q

Who gets febrile seizures?

A

Young children with normal development without a history of neurological symptoms

181
Q

Children typically grow out of febrile seizures by what age?

A

6

182
Q

What are the types of brain injury?

A
  1. Concussion
  2. Contusion
  3. Subdural/Subarachnoid hemorrhage
  4. Cerebral edema
183
Q

What is a concussion?

A

Temporary alteration in fuction

184
Q

What is a contusion?

A

Permanent damage

185
Q

What can a subdural/subarachnoid hemorrhage cause?

A

Pressure from blood may force brain stem through foramen magnum, resulting in death

186
Q

What is cerebral edema?

A

Swelling of brain associated with traumatic head injury

187
Q

What are the 4 subdivisions of the spinal cord?

A
  1. Cervical
  2. Thoracic
  3. Lumbar
  4. Sacral
188
Q

The spinal cord terminates at what?

A

Conus medullaris

189
Q

What is the filum terminale?

A

Extension of pia mater that extends to coccyx and anchors spinal cord

190
Q

What are cervical and lumbar enlargements?

A

Areas where nerves servicing upper and lower limbs arise from the spinal cord

191
Q

What are paired spinal nerves?

A

A part of the PNS, and attach to the spinal cord by 31 paired roots

192
Q

What is cauda equina?

A

Collection of nerve roots at the inferior end of the vertebral canal

193
Q

The spinal cord is enclosed in what?

A

Vertebral column

194
Q

Where does the spinal cord begin?

A

Foramen magnum

195
Q

Where does the spinal cord end?

A

L1 or L2 vertebra

196
Q

What are the functions of the spinal cord?

A
  1. Provides two-way communication to and from brain and body
  2. Major reflex center: reflexes are initiated and completed at the spinal cord
197
Q

How thick is the spinal dura mater?

A

One layer thick

198
Q

Does the spinal dura mater attach to the vertebrae?

A

No

199
Q

What is the epidural space?

A

Cushion of fat and network of veins in the space between vertebrae and spinal dura mater

200
Q

CSF fills what space?

A

Subarachnoid space between arachnoid and pia maters

201
Q

Dural and arachnoid membranes extend to where?

A

Sacrum, beyond the end of cord at L1 or l2

202
Q

Where is the site of lumbar puncture or tap?

A

Dural and arachnoid membranes

203
Q

Two lengthwise grooves that run the length of the cord partially divide it into right and left halves, what are they called?

A

Ventral (anterior) median fissure and dorsal (posterior) median sulcus

204
Q

Where is gray matter located in the spinal cord?

A

Core (H and horns)

205
Q

Where is white matter located in the spinal cord?

A

Funiculi

206
Q

The central canal runs where?

A

Length of the cord

207
Q

What is the central canal filled with?

A

CSF

208
Q

What are ventral roots?

A

Bundle or motor neuron axons that exit the spinal cord

209
Q

What are dorsal roots?

A

Sensory input to cord

210
Q

What are the dorsal root (spinal) ganglia?

A

Cell bodies of sensory neurons

211
Q

What are spinal nerves?

A

Formed by fusion of dorsal and ventral roots

212
Q

What is gray matter made of?

A

Neuron cell bodies, dendrites, unmyelinated axons and glial cells

213
Q

What do anterior horns house?

A

Cell bodies of somatic motor neurons

214
Q

What do lateral horns house?

A

Cell bodies of autonomic motor neurons

215
Q

Lateral horns are only present where?

A

T1-L2

216
Q

What do posterior horns house?

A

Axons of senosry neurons and cell bodies of interneurons

217
Q

What is the gray commissure?

A

Horizontal band of gray matter surrounding the canal

218
Q

What does the gray commissure contain?

A

Unmyelinated axons connecting left and right gray matter

219
Q

White matter runs in what three directions?

A

Ascending, descending, and transverse

220
Q

What is the ascending direction?

A

Up to higher centers

221
Q

What is the descending direction?

A

From brain to cord or lower cord levels

222
Q

What is the transverse direction?

A

From one side to another

223
Q

What is the ascending direction associated with?

A

Sensory inputs

224
Q

What is the descending direction associated with?

A

Motor outputs

225
Q

What is the transverse direction associated with?

A

Commissural fibers

226
Q

Spinal pathways are _____ or ______

A

Sensory or motor

227
Q

Sensory pathways ______ toward the brain

A

Ascend

228
Q

Motor pathways ________from the brain

A

Descend

229
Q

What are the common pathway characteristics?

A
  1. Cell locations
  2. Each pathway is made of a chain of two or more neurons
  3. Pathways are paired (left & right)
  4. Most pathways are decussate
230
Q

What are the cell locations in conduction pathways?

A

Axons are in the spinal cord tracts, cell bodies are in the ganglia, spinal cord gray horns, and brain gray matter

231
Q

What does decussate mean?

A

Axons cross the midline so brain processes information for the contralateral side

232
Q

Uncrossed pathways work on the ________ side of body

A

Ipsilateral (same side)

233
Q

What is spinal cord trauma?

A

Localized injury to the spinal cord or its roots leads to functional losses

234
Q

What is paresthesia caused by?

A

Caused by damage to dorsal roots or sensory tracts

235
Q

What does paresthesia lead do?

A

Sensory function loss

236
Q

What is paralysis caused by?

A

Damage to ventral roots or ventral horn cells

237
Q

What does paralysis lead to?

A

Motor function loss

238
Q

Transection/cross sectioning of the spinal cord at any level results in what?

A

Total motor and sensory loss in regions inferior to the cut

239
Q

What is paraplegia?

A

Transection between T1 and L1

240
Q

What is quadriplegia?

A

Transection in cervical region

241
Q

What is poliomyelitis?

A

Destruction of ventral horn motor neurons by poliovirus causing muscle atrophy

242
Q

What is the prognosis of polio?

A

Death may occur from paralysis of respiratory muscles or cardiac arrest

243
Q

What is Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis/ Lou Gehrig’s disease?

A

Destruction of ventral horn motor neurons and fibers of pyramidal tract

244
Q

What are the symptoms of ALS?

A

Loss of ability to speak, swallow, and breathe

245
Q

What is the prognosis of ALS?

A

Death typically occurs within 5 years

246
Q

What is cerebral palsy?

A

Neuromuscular disability involving poorly controlled or paralyzed voluntary muscles

247
Q

What causes cerebral palsy?

A

Brain damage, possibly from lack of oxygen during birth

248
Q

What is seen in cerebral palsy?

A

Spasticity, speech difficulties, and motor impairments

249
Q

Some patients that have cerebral palsy can have what?

A

Seizures, intellectual impairment, and deafness

250
Q

What is common in cerebral palsy?

A

Visual impairment

251
Q

What is anencephaly?

A

Cerebrum and parts of the brain stem never develop because neural folds fails to fuse

252
Q

How does the child appear in anencephaly?

A

Vegatative

253
Q

What is the prognosis of anencephaly?

A

Death occurs soon after birth

254
Q

What is spina bifida?

A

Incomplete formation of vertebral arches, typically involves lumbosacral region

255
Q

What is spina bifida occulata?

A

Least serious, involves only one or few missing vertebrae and usually causes no neural problems

256
Q

What are two signs of spina bifida occulata?

A

Sacral dimple or patch of hair

A&P 1 Summer 2023 (17 decks)

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