600 series flash cards
1
Q
The staging officer may be specifically assigned by IC , but otherwise it will default to who?
A
The officer on the first due engine of the second alarm
2
Q
What should preferably be a parking lot or large area at least 600ft from the sceneand shall be located to deploy units to their assignments in 3 minutes or less?
A
The staging location
3
Q
What level officer is recommended to be assigned as the Supervisor of a Division or Group?
A
A Command level Officer
4
Q
What system allows the organizational structure to develop in an incremental, modular fashion, based on the size and changing conditions of the incident?
A
ICS (Incident command system}
5
Q
SOP 600-1 shall apply to what type of incidents defined as the National Incident Management System?
A
Type IV and type V
6
Q
The incident command SOP meet or exceeds which NFPA #, FL Administrative code, and is compatible and interchangeable with _ as required by Homeland Security Presidential Directive?
A
NFPA #1561, FL Admin code 69A-37, and NIMS
7
Q
Who is the department and/or Fire district having legal responsibility and duties over the geographic area in which an incident occurs?
A
The AHJ (Authority Having Jurisdiction)
8
Q
Which level of staging may be used by the IC to keep units from over deploying?
A
Level 1 staging
9
Q
Units assigned to level 1 staging shall do what on scene?
A
Units shall take their assigned positions
10
Q
What should personnel at level 1 staging do?
A
Remain in a ready state at the apparatus in full PPE and SCBA
11
Q
Units shall not leave level one staging unless directed to do so by who?
A
Initial or Incident Command
12
Q
What level of staging is used at the direction of the IC, or on 2nd alarm assignments dispatched to the incidents other than a High-rise Fire?
A
Level 2
13
Q
Level 2 staging requires what?
A
A staging officer, a specific location at least 600ft from the scene and within 3 minutes from deployment
14
Q
Which type of incident is under 1 operational period, minimum resources from one agency and handled by 3 command staff positions?
A
Type v incidents
15
Q
What is an example of a Type V incident?
A
A structure fire
16
Q
What are the 3 command staff positions used in a Type V incident?
A
IC, IC aide, Incident Safety Officer
17
Q
What type of incident is limited to one operational period with resources from multiple agencies required?
A
Type IV incidents
18
Q
During Type IV incidents standard command positions will be used and other command positions may be expanded as needed such as?
A
Groups, Divisions, or Branches
19
Q
Example of Type IV incidents are?
A
Large commercial fire, High-rise fire, or HAZMAT
20
Q
What type of incident may expand into multiple operational periods with multiple agencies required?
A
Type III
21
Q
During Type III incidents other command positions will likely be required, who else may be required to assist?
A
State or Regional IMT Team
22
Q
Examples of a Type III incidents are?
A
Tornadoes, Floods, and Local disasters
23
Q
What type of incident will require multiple operational periods and will likely require assistance from regional, state, or national resources?
A
Type II incidents.
24
Q
Who may be required during a Type II incidents?
A
State or Regional IMT Team
25
What is an example of a Type II incident?
Hurricanes
26
What type of incident is expected to go into multiple operational periods, and will require assistance from the Federal Government and is an event of National significance?
Type I incident
27
Examples of Type I incidents are?
Major terrorist attack or Katrina level disaster
28
When is a PAR recommended to be completed?
At the 20 minute timer and every 20 minutes after
29
What is similar to a Group or Division but will have its own tactical objectives?
A Branch
30
A _ is used only at a major large scale incidents involving 2 or more distinctively different management components?
A Branch
31
What is the implementation of a coordinated and established set of procedures to assess, intervene, stabilize, manage and mitigate emergencies?
Incident Command
32
At what wind speed should aerial ops be halted?
Sustained 35MPH
33
What are the 3 basic levels of command operations?
Initial command. Incident Command, and Unified Command
34
At what wind speed should only critical Fire/Rescue ops be undertaken and all high profile and Lightweight vehicles not be used?
Sustained above 50MPH
35
Initial on scene radio reports should include what?
1. Correct address if different from dispatch
2. # of floors
3. Type of occupancy
4. Conditions observed and pertinent info
5. Mode of attack
36
What is the functional operation within a defined geographical area?
A Division
37
What can be established by the IC when several companies are assembled to perform a single function?
A Group
38
In rapidly moving water of _ft a PDF and Lifeline should be used.
2ft
39
How far away from the fire structure should the first arriving rescue park?
75ft
40
In a mass casualty incident the EMS/Medical group is further broken down into what 3 units?
1. Triage
2. Treatment
3. Transport
41
Who is the point of contact for representatives from other assisting and cooperating agencies?
Liason Officer
42
Who manages all tactical operations of the incident?
Operations Chief
43
What is a mobile type of command established by unit officers, usually the first arriving company officer?
Initial command
44
What type of command may remain mobile so the officer can conduct an effective size up, direct personnel, and begin initial company OPS?
Initial command
45
Can Initial Command be passed from one unit officer to another?
No
46
Initial command shall only be instituted by _ and held until a _ arrives on scene to establish an IC post?
1. The first arriving officer
| 2. Chief officer
47
What is a stationary command post established by Chief officers?
Incident Command
48
When should Incident Command be established?
Any time 3 or more companies are actively investigating or engaged in operations
49
What type of command shall not be mobile, must have the location of the command post announced, and be highly visible to all incoming units?
Incident Command
50
What must be located so that Incident Command has a good view of the structure or incident scene?
The Command Post
51
What type of command is used at a large scale incident where coordination between agencies is critical to the successful outcome of the incident?
Unified Command
52
A Unified Command should be established with who and why?
1. Police and Fire rescue Command level officers
| 2. to coordinate the tactics and strategies and establish communication between agencies
53
How should the transfer of command be done when feasible?
Face to Face
54
Initial commanders should be prepared to answer what types of questions when transferring command?
1. Initial situation
2. Current situation
3. Current plan
4. What units are committed and where
5. Status of the search
6. Who is RIC
55
Once a Chief Officer has established an incident command post , only who may take over command from the IC?
A higher ranking Chief officer from the AHJ over the incident
56
Command should not be transferred more than _ times.
2
57
When announcing command any company or Chief officer who is assuming command shall do what to their command post?
Name the Command Post
58
What must be announced anytime an incident command post is being established?
The location
59
What type of mode of operation is appropriate when there are no clear indicators of a fire or the nature or extent of the incident?
Investigative mode
60
What mode of operation involves taking direct action to mitigate the problem and prevent further extension of damage within the involved structures or area, typically means FF's are engaging in an interior fire attack
Offensive mode
61
What mode of operation has the primary goal to prevent extension of damage beyond the structure or area involved, or to limit extension to other property?
Defensive mode
62
What mode of operations is a fire attack that firsts knocks down a body of fire from the exterior before going into the interior to complete extinguishment?
Transitional Attack
63
When the decision is made to change from one mode of operation to another what should be done to ensure all units on scene are made aware?
A 5 second alert tone by dispatch follwed by a command statement
64
When should initial on scene radio report not be given?
1. Single Engine response
2. Vehicle crashes
3. Medical calls
65
The command post must be where to establish presence and visibility?
In or at a vehicle
66
What should IC use to track rescources and assignments?
Tactical Worksheet or a Command Board
67
What types of incidents require an ISO?
1. Working fire
2. HAZMAT
3. Tech Rescue
4. Water Rescue
5. Extended Extrications or complex Rescue Ops.
68
ISO can be filled by any Fire Officer however it should be preferrably filled by who?
Command level officer or officer with specific ISO training
69
Who shall provide updates from all sides of the structure and advise the IC of changing conditions as well as the progress of current tactics?
The ISO
70
Who is authorized to exercise emergency authority to stop, suspend, alter, or prevent unsafe ops when immediate action is required?
The ISO
71
How many ISO's can there be on scene?
1
72
On large incidents who works under the direction of the ISO?
Assistant Safety Officers
73
Who shall ensure that personnel have adequate rehab provisions available when needed, and that the Rehab Group provides appropriate medical screenings before returning personnel to incident operations?
The ISO
74
What 3 positions form the Incident Command Team?
Incident Command, Incident Safety Officer, and Command Post Aide
75
Who's primary responsibility is it to handle incident scene accountablility and radio communications?
The command post Aide
76
Where should all companies report to to recieve thier assignments unless otherwise directed by the IC
The command post
77
Where should extra crews and personnel be kept as "on deck" companies?
Near the command post
78
How often should the command staff reevaluate their current IAP for its progress and effectiveness, as well as any need to change that plan?
At every 10 minute timer
79
How often should a situation update be given if possible?
every 20 minutes
80
Once the IC is established where should the location for accountability be?
The Command Post
81
What is a roll call by unit of all personnel on the incident scene? Who shall conduct it and may it be completed?
1. Personnel Accountability Report
2. The IC or IC Aide
3. visually, face to face, or by radio
82
What is recommended that the IC request dispatch to do prior to the PAR check?
Give a 5 second alert tone
83
Who should a PAR check always begin?
With the units who are operating in the IDLH
84
If a unit doesn't respond to the PAR check after _ attempts an announcement should be made asking all units on scene if they have knowledge of the missing person or units location.
3
85
What should happen if there is no response from the missing person or unit during a PAR check?
A MAYDAY be declared and RIC activated
86
When should the IC consider crew rotations and rehab?
At the 20 minute timer
87
In case of a structural collapse the IC should consider what?
1. Additional alarms
2. Air transport
3. Tech Rescue response
88
What are the IC radio benchmarks?
1. Establish command w/ mode of operation
2. Working fire
3. Water supply established
4. Primary search complete
5. Fire knocked down
6. Exposures checked
7. 20 min PAR
8. Strategy changed
9. Secondary search complete
10. Situation under control
11. Pt.'s transported, #, severity. and destination
12. Termination of command
89
What provides a system to divide an incident into manageable geographic areas or assignments?
Establishing Divisions, Groups, or Branches
90
How long does a unit have to go responding between the hours of 0700-2200?
60 seconds
91
How long does a unit have to respond between the hours of 2200-0700?
90 seconds
92
How far away from the fire structure should the first arriving truck company park their vehicles in mobile home parks?
250ft
93
Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Hydrogen Cyanide?
4.5ppm
94
Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Oxygen
19. 5% (low)
| 23. 5% (high)
95
Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Hydrogen Sulfide?
10ppm
96
Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Carbon Monoxide?
35ppm
97
Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of airborne combustible dust lower explosive limit (LEL)
10%
98
Which factors should be considered in the decision to alter, suspend, or terminate operations in adverse weather?
1. flying debris
2. vehicle stability
3. personnel footing and stability
4. diminished visibility
5. proximity to power lines
6. downed power lines
99
Scene size up is required from the first arriving unit when responding to unconfirmed structure fires and fire alarms when _ units are responding?
3 or more
100
When are scene size ups not required?
1. Medical calls
2. Single engine responses
3. MVC's
101
If a unit does not go responding within the allowed time frame how ling will dispatch wait before a second request will be made?
15 second
102
How long will dispatch wait for the first arriving unit to relay size up info before confirming response of the apparatus who have not responded via MDC?
10 seconds
103
What is a term used by the fire ground commander indicating the magnitude of a fire scene?
Working fire
104
What tac channel is designated for coverage changes, move-ups, encode tests, fire-alarm testing, no receipt of encodes/printouts, and request hailing/encoding of another unit?
Fire Admin (k) kilo
105
How long does dispatch sound the emergency retreat tone for?
15 seconds
106
Who is primarily responsible for relocating units to maintain the best available coverage for their entire district?
District Chief
107
What channel is an option to use if fire units are having difficulty communicating on the assigned tac channel?
FD talk around (FD-TA)
108
What is condition 1?
Normal operating procedures
109
What is condition 2?
Single engine response to automatic fire alarms and unconfirmed structure fires.
110
what is condition 3?
High activity
111
What is condition 4?
Storm mode
112
What is condition 5?
EOC mode
113
What is condition 6?
Disaster mode
114
Who is responsible for the management of public information on the fire ground?
Command
115
The first arriving support staff officer on scene if not required to take command or assigned a tactical function by command will be assigned as what?
PIO (Public Information Officer)
116
Who will be responsible for requiring all media representatives to wear proper protective clothing on the fire ground when necessary?
The PIO
117
Who is responsible for the safety of the public and media personnel in his or her area?
Each Division or Group Officer
118
What information is protected and cannot be given out?
Any scene under investigation, 911 caller info, and Pt. examination and treatment info
119
What is a 2"x1/2" plastic tag with velcro backing?
Individual name tags
120
What is written on an individual name tag?
1. The employee's first initial and last name
| 2. A 2 letter jurisdiction ID on the far right edge
121
What is the minimum # of accountability tags for each employee
3
122
What is the accountability tag color for Chiefs, Capt., and LT.?
White
123
What is the accountability tag color for Firefighters?
Orange
124
What is the accountability tag color for Paramedics?
Blue
125
What is constructed of flexible velcro that is 2"x4" w/a permanently affixed unit designator on the top and a second removable unit designator tag 2"x1/2" affixed to the bottom?
Primary/soft or hard passport
126
What is a hard backed piece of velcro 2"x4" with a permanently affixed unit designator at the top and a removable unit designator 2"x1/2" at the bottom?
Unit Roster/Hard passport
127
What will be on the drivers door of each engine, truck, and squad that is 8 1/2"x11" and made of hard plastic?
Apparatus Passport Drop-off Board
128
What is the minimum # of soft passports that an apparatus passport drop-off board are required to carry?
6
129
What will each member have that is approximately a 3"x2" unit identifier attached to the front shield of their helmet?
Helmet Idenitfier
130
What is a hard plastic board designed to hold passports and assist company officers in organizing and documenting an incident if the company officer assumes command?
Unit command board
131
What is a large plastic board w/velcro or magnetic attachments and large writing areas to track units and assignments for an entire incident?
Chief Officer command board
132
Who will carry the primary passport on their person?
The unit officer
133
Where will the unit passport be affixed to"
The officer door or passenger door of the rescue
134
If the driver is to remain outside of the IDLH how should their name tag be placed on the primary passport?
Upside down
135
On multi-company incidents who will by default become the initial accountability location for the incident?
The first arriving engine or truck
136
Initial rehab will be used when the incident will be conducted in what time frame?
6-8 hour period
137
Long term rehab will be used when the incident is expected to take longer than _ hours?
longer than 6-8 hours
138
What external resources will be required to assist with long term rehab?
Salvation Army Canteen
139
Rehab supplies include _?
Fluids. Food, Medical supplies, tracking, fans, awning, and barricade tape
140
How much water should personnel consume during heat stress?
at least 1qt of water/hr
141
What is the amount of time and the name of the rule that is recommended as an acceptable level of exertion prior to mandatory rehab?
45 minutes or the 2 air bottle rule
142
Who should be placed as RIC on a fire scene?
The 3rd arriving engine
143
What jobs can RIC do after setting up their equipment?
1. Recon
2. Ensure utilities are controlled
3. Note entry and egress points
4. Remove obstacles that would impede rapid egress such as security bars, locked doors, or other security devices
5. Assess the need for additional ground ladders to upper floors
6. Ensure secondary means of egress
144
Who dictates the # of fire units that are dispatched to automatic fire alarms for their jurisdiction to the pinellas county dispatch center?
Each agency or AHJ
145
Unless the AHJ mandates a different response mode for the 1st due unit or additional units dispatched to the incident how will the units respond to an automatic fire alarm?
1st due will respond emergency and all other units will respond non emergency
146
What 5 categories are terrorist incidents divided into?
```
Chemical
Biological
Radiological
Nuclear
Explosive
```
147
What is critical to the outcome of a terrorist attack?
Early implementation of a unified incident command system
148
What are the primary concerns of a CBRNE incident?
1. Life safety
2. Entrapment
3. Hazard Mitigation
4. Search and Rescue
5. Fire suppression
6. Decon
7. ALS
149
How long will it usually take for state and Federal assistance to arrive in the event of a large scale magnitude?
24 to 72 hours
150
In response to a bomb threat who is the lead agency?
Law Enforcement
151
What is the minimum safe distance to remain on code B standby if not remaining at the station?
minimum 500ft from the initial reported threat in all directions
152
unless otherwise assigned by the district chief or incident command how will units respond to bomb threats?
non emergency
153
Until clearance from law enforcement what is the minimum distance for communications via radio or cell phone for a car bomb?
1500ft or further for larger vehicles
154
Until clearance from law enforcement what is the minimum distance for communications via radio or cell phone for a package bomb that is 1 - 25 lbs?
1000ft
155
Until clearance from law enforcement what is the minimum distance for communications via radio or cell phone for a pipe bomb?
500ft
156
For a discovered device (response to terrorism) what type of response will dispatch initiate?
a full structure response
157
In response to a detonated device who will be the lead agency?
FD
158
What should be anticipated after one device is detonated?
A second device
159
The first arriving engine to a detonated device should stage where?
close enough to deploy an attack line in necessary to affect a rescue or mitigate immediate hazards to life
160
How should evacuation from a hot zone by the first arriving engine to a detonated device be done?
start from the outer perimeter working inward
161
Where should the traige site be located during a detonated device?
A minimum of 500ft away, uphill/upwind
162
What is the primary objective for the first arriving engine to a detonated device?
Rapid evacuation/removal off all survivors from the hot zone
163
If it has been determined there are no survivors in the hot zone will entry be made into the hot zone?
no
164
Where will treatment of casualties be performed during a detonated device?
in a safe zone 1,000 - 1,500ft away from blast site
165
Where will the District Chief establish a unified command post during a detonated device?
1,000ft from the blast site uphill/upwind
166
What estimated percentage of all terrorist attacks worldwide involve an explosive device?
70%
167
How long may it take for the effects of a biological contamination attack to be evident?
72 hours post exposure
168
Biological bacteria, viruses and toxins exist in what forms?
liquid, crystalline, or powder
169
What are common signs and symptoms of biological exposure?
flu like: fever, weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, cough, diarrhea, and chill
170
How long will it take for the effect of a chemical weapon attack to be evident?
immediately after exposure ranging from seconds to until the first few hours
171
What are the 5 categories of chemical weapons?
1. Nerve agents
2. Blister agents
3. Blood agents
4. Choking agents
5. Irritating agents
172
What are biological agents used for terrorism?
1. Staphylococcal enterotoxin B (SEB)
2. Botulism
3. Cholera
4. Anthrax
5. Plague
6. Ricin
7. Smallpox
8. Ebola
9. Mycotoxins
173
What are the components of the PPE decontamination kit?
1. 4 level C "XL" coverall suits
2. 4 pairs of boot/shoe covers
3. 4 pairs of Nitrile gloves
4. 1 roll of Kappler Chemtape
5. 1 roll of M9 chemical agent detection paper
6. 1 instruction/inventory sheet
174
M9 chemical warfare paper is used to detect what?
liquid nerve and blistering chemical warfare agents
175
What three areas are M9 paper applied to?
The wrist on one side, the bicep on the opposite side, and on ankle on either side
176
What colors show a positive on M9 paper when a liquid chemical warfare agents comes into contact with it?
pink, red, red-brown, or red-purple spots or streaks
177
When may M9 paper give a false reading?
Exposed to temps above 125F or below 32F, scuffing, grease, gasoline, oil. defoliants, and insecticides
178
What is defined as a high-rise?
any structure of 4 stories or more in height
179
What is the most effective tactical approach in majority of high-rise fires?
containing the fire by an aggressive fire attack
180
In a high-rise fire what should be sounded upon confirmation of a working fire?
a second alarm
181
`What 3 areas of the high-rise need to be identified during a high-rise fire?
The fire floor, the locations of the fire, and the attack stairwell
182
What is considered an adequate water flow (fire flow) from an attack line?
a minimum of 250gpm
183
What 3 conditions need to be evaluated during a high-rise fire?
1. Fire floor conditions
2. Fire extension
3. Ventilation needs
184
What are the minimum number of units that will respond to a Code 4 structure fire response "High hazard" buildings?
4 engine companies
2 truck companies
1 squad
2 District Chiefs
185
What type of units are optional and will be department specific in response to a high-rise fire?
Rescues and LRs
186
What are the responsibilities of the first arriving engine to a high-rise fire?
1. Position engine away from building to allow the truck company effective positioning
2. The entire crew will including the driver will take appropriate equipment into the building including: the high-rise pack, high-rise bag, and appropriate hand tools
3. Announce initial accountability location
4. Checks and marks annunciator panel for fire location
5. Secures available keys
6. Selects and verbalizes appropriate methos of ascent
7. Consider silencing alarm on the fire floor to allow for effective communication
8. Locate fire, announce fire location, attempt to confine fire
187
Elevators will not be used if a fire is on or below what floor?
6th
188
What responsibility does the D/O of the first arriving engine on a high-rise fire have?
assumes control of the stand pipe connection 1 floor below the fire floor, ensuring the valve is flushed, the hose is properly connected, ensuring the in-line gauge is connected, and proper fire flow is established
189
Where should the first arriving truck place their apparatus?
should be placed based upon assessment of the fire location and the need for secondary means of egress
190
When aerial ops are not needed at a high-rise fire the entire crew should proceed to fire floor for truck company ops which include?
1. Locate the fire
2. Forcible entry
3. Search and rescue
4. Ventilation of the fire floor
191
What are the responsibilities of the second arriving engine at a high-rise fire?
Establishes a water supply and supplies the FDC, the D/O completes this alone and remains at the pump panel to supply the building while the rest of the crew goes to the fire floor to assist the first engine
192
What are the responsibilities of the first arriving squad at a high-rise fire?
1. Proceeds to the lobby and establishes Lobby Control
2. Secures and control elevators
3. Prepares to pressurize the attack and evacuation stairwells using PPV
4. Controls fire alarm system
5. Access and employs any internal coms system
6. Attempts to contact Building engineer/maintenance director
7. Controls building maintenance system
8. Controls movement of evacuated occupants
193
What are the responsibilities of the 3rd arriving engine to a high-rise fire?
Proceeds to the floor below the fire floor and assumes RIT, may be used to ensure initial attack line is charged and operating or deploy a back up line on the fire floor at the descretion of IC
194
What are the responsibilities of the 4th arriving engine on a high-rise fire?
Assigned to floor above fire to control vertical fire spread and auto exposure
195
If the fire is on the top floor of the building what should the 4th arriving engine do?
Report to IC for an assignment
196
If possible where should the 2nd arriving truck park during a high-rise fire?
on the opposite of adjacent side of the 1st truck
197
Unless IC assigns them to another task what should the 2nd arriving District Chief do?
Assume fire floor division supervisor
198
What are the duties of the LR at a high-rise fire?
1. Establish an EMS/medical group
2. Maintain accountability of all evacuated occupants
3. Request additional EMS resources
4. Lobby control and accountability
5. Coordinate with Sunstar supervisor if multiple pt.'s are involved
199
What is the minimum # of unit responding on a 2nd alarm or greater?
3 Engines
1 Truck
1 Squad
1 District Chief
200
What is considered to be the location a minimum of 200ft from the building where apparatus will initially report during a high-rise fire?
Base
201
What are key positions that need to be filled by command during a high rise fire?
```
Fire floor division supervisor
Command post aide
Safety officer
Staging floor supervisor
Base supervisor
```
202
What 3 main components should be set up on the staging floor of a high-rise fire?
Medical with an EMS crew
Rehab
Equipment cache including extra SCBA cylinders of all types in use by the 1st alarm companies
203
When ascending in an elevator during a high-rise fire when should the elevator be stopped to confirm the FD override is functioning and to evaluate smoke conditions in the elevator shaft?
Every 5 floors
204
What equipment will elevator crews have in the car at all times?
1. Full PPE
2. Portable radio
3. Forcible entry tools
4. Portable extinguisher
5. Folding ladder
6. Spare air bottle
205
When using an elevator during a high-rise fire when should crews exit the elevator?
2 floor below the fire floor
206
High-rise packs will be department specific including the size and type of hose used but what must all high-rise packs include?
A hose line with a smooth bore nozzle capable of flowing 250gpm and at least 150ft of hose
207
If a combination of equipment being used for a high-rise pack has a lesser GPM then 250 what must be included?
an added appliance that provides an additional 2 1/2" port for connection of additional attack lines
208
What starting pressure should all stand pipe systems be pumped at?
150psi
209
How can a standpipe system be supplied?
two 3" lines or a 5" line
210
What is the nozzle pressure on a smooth bore nozzle during a high-rise fire?
50psi
211
For 2 1/2" hose being used in a high-rise fire what is the friction loss expected per 50' of hose?
6psi
212
What is the elevation loss when pumping a high-rise fire?
5lbs per floor
213
Should the windows or other exterior opening be broken out during a high-rise fire without first consulting command?
No
214
Depending on the height of the building and wind conditions how far may broken glass travel away from the building?
Up to 200ft
215
Wind speed of over _ MPH should be noted by all companies responding to the scene?
20mph
216
What is the order of floors to be ventilated after the fire floor in a high-rise fire?
1. Floor above the fire floor
2. Top floor
3. All floors between
4. Floors below the fire floor if necessary
217
PPV fans should be used at least where during a high-rise fire?
The attack stairwell and evacuation stairwell
218
Designated breakout windows in high-rise building are marked with what?
A Maltese cross
219
What type of glass are breakout windows made out of?
Tempered glass
220
If units are unable to transmit out of the building during a high-rise fire what channel can be used and should be monitored by command?
FD-TA
221
What are newer high-rise building equipped with so personnel on the upper floors can communicate with the fire control room?
Firefighter telephone system
222
During elevator use how many crews should be in the elevator car at a time?
1
223
How many phases are there in elevator firefighter service feature?
2
224
What does phase one of the elevator firefighter service do?
recalls the elevator to the ground floor and gives all control of the elevator to the firefighters
225
What does phase 2 of the elevator firefighter service do?
Allows firefighters to ascend to an upper floor without stopping at any other floor
226
If occupants of a high-rise are evacuated outside of the structure how far from the building should they be?
At least 200ft
227
How many classes of standpipe systems are there?
3
228
Which class standpipe systems is designed specifically for use by FD?
Class 1
229
What type and size discharge outlets are on a class 1 standpipe system?
A male 2 1/2" discharge with a valve
230
Where will class 1 standpipes typically be located in a high-rise?
The stairwells
231
Which class of standpipe systems is specifically designed for occupant use and not the FD?
Class 2
232
Where are class 2 standpipe systems typically located?
In a cabinet or other recess in a hallway
233
What are class 2 standpipe systems supplied with and what is built into the discharge?
1 1/2" piping and they have a pressure-reducing valve built in
234
What class standpipe system is a combinations system?
Class 3
235
Class 3 systems have both a _ inch for FD use as well as a smaller _ inch discharge with an attached hose for occupant use?
2 1/2"
| 1 1/2"
236
Prior to 1993 the highest discharge valve was required to have a minimum residual pressure of _ psi for 2 1/2" hose connections.
65psi
237
After 1993 the highest discharge valve was required to have a minimum residual pressure of _ psi for 2 1/2" hose connections.
100psi
238
What is designed for the purpose of reducing, regulating, controlling, or restricting water pressure?
A pressure-regulating device
239
Where static pressure at a hose connection exceeds _ psi, an approved PRD shall be provided to limit static and residual pressure at the outlet of the hose connection to _ psi.
175psi
240
What two types of pressure-regulating devices are there?
Pressure-reducing valve (PRV) and Pressure-restricting device (PRD)
241
What is a valve or device designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure under flowing (residual) conditions only?
Pressure-restricting device (PRD)
242
What is the most common PRD that prevents the valve from being fully opened?
Limiting device
243
What is an external device that operates in a manner similar to a fire department pump operator's gating down at the pump panel?
Pressure-restricting device (PRD)
244
What is designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure to a specific valve under both flowing (residual) and non-flowing (static) conditions?
Pressure-restricting valve
245
What are the 2 types of PRV's?
Non-adjustable and fire ground adjustable
246
What is the minimum pressure PRV's are preset to at the factory?
100psi
247
What is the maximum pressure PRV's are preset to at the factory?
175psi
248
In an emergency where an FDC is not accessible or usable what can be done to supply a stand pipe?
connect a 3" line, a siamese or wye, and a double female directly to the discharge outlet on the first floor
249
Who is responsible for the direct management of all incident tactical activities and should have direct involvement in the preparation of the IAP?
Operations Section Chief
250
Who is responsible for managing the movement of building occupants through designated evacuation routes to a safe location?
Evacuation Group Supervisor
251
During a high-rise incident the lobby control unit leader's responsibilities are?
Maintain accountability, control all building access points and direct personnel to correct routes, control and operate elevator cars, and direct building occupants and exiting personnel to proper ground level safe areas
252
Each FDC is usually located how far from the nearest hydrant?
Usually 100ft
253
Flammable liquids have a flash point below what temp?
100 degrees
254
For a gas leak outside, the first arriving unit should position their apparatus a minimum of _ ft and upwind.
200ft
255
For a gas leak inside a structure all unit should stage how far away?
600ft upwind
256
For a liquid leak first responders can handle spills up to _ gallons.
25
257
When should the state watch desk be notified of a spill?
Anything greater than 25 gallons, if a spill involves a body of water, has an environmental impact, or requires an evacuation
258
First responders to a HAZMAT incident should operate in what mode of operation?
Defensive
259
What are the 4 categories that HAZMAT responders may be grouped into?
1. Recognition
2. Rescue, evacuation, isolation, decon
3. Mitigation
4. Information gathering
260
What are the 3 commonly used placarding systems?
1. NFPA 704
2. United Nations numbering systems
3. The DOT system
261
Which system uses a diamond divided into 4 small squares denoting each type of hazard with a number from 0-4 denoting the degree of hazards?
NFPA 704
262
The _ numbering system is a 2 part system with the first part dividing materials into 9 classes and the second part identifying materials by assigning a 4 digit number?
The United Nations numbering system
263
The _ system classifies hazardous material according to their primary danger and assigns standardized symbols to identify the classes?
The DOT system
264
What are the minimum resources needed for gross decon?
2 engine companies and 1 truck company
265
Where should gross decon be located?
In the warm zone uphill and upwind from the hot zone
266
How should apparatus be placed to form a gross decon corridor?
20ft apart parallel to each other with the truck company in line with the supply engine
267
What can be utilized to create an access corridor leading into the decon corridor?
Cones or fire line tape
268
10 gallons of absorbent should be adequate to absorb _ gallons of hydrocarbons.
5
269
Containers can only remain on-site for _ days after the first contamination.
180 days
270
What class foam is recommended on petroleum fires to reduce vapors and aid in extinguishment?
Class B
271
In the NFPA 704 system the blue quadrant stands for what?
Health Hazard
272
In the NFPA 704 system the red quadrant stands for what?
Flammability Hazard
273
In the NFPA 704 system the yellow quadrant stands for what?
Instability Hazard
274
In the NFPA 704 system the white quadrant stands for what?
Special Hazard
275
In the NFPA 704 system the # 4 stands for what?
Requires evacuation/expert assistance
276
In the NFPA 704 system the # 3 stands for what?
Hazardous, may require special methods of control
277
In the NFPA 704 system the # 2 stands for what?
Standard equipment may be used with caution
278
In the NFPA 704 system the # 1 stands for what?
Standard procedure may be used
279
In the NFPA 704 system the # 0 stands for what?
No Hazard
280
What are the 3 main procedures to effectively use PPV?
1. Cover the entrance opening
2. Regulate the exhaust opening
3. Control the flow of air between the entrance and exhaust openings
281
Positive Pressure Attack can be broken down into what 4 steps?
1. ID the ventilation opening and position the fan
2. Survey the building exterior and create or improve an exhaust opening
3. Begin pressurization and fire attack
4. Make sure the fire is out
282
Where should the fan be placed when performing a PPA?
4 to 6 feet away from the opening
283
How long should crews wait before entering the structure during a PPA?
30-60 seconds
284
A water rescue shall be considers the mode of operation in any water over _ ft deep, in rapidly moving water greater than _ depth, or where the water depth cannot be determined.
2ft
| greater than ankle depth
285
A marine response will consist of what apparatus?
The 2 closest fire department marine units, an engine, an ALS unit, an FD command officer, and appropriate law enforcement marine unit
286
On the color coding system on the MDC maps what does green indicate for potential launch sites?
All marine units are able to launch
287
On the color coding system on the MDC maps what does yellow indicate for potential launch sites?
only small marine units can launch
288
On the color coding system on the MDC maps what does red indicate for potential launch sites?
Low tide marine vessels cannot launch
289
How shall first responders establish a last seen point to assist Dive Teams with their search?
By using a buoy or float
290
What is the minimum size, material and length of a safety line?
3/8" synthetic line 150' long
291
During a water rescue how will primary communication be done?
Via the 800MHZ radio system
292
What will be utilized for acts of violence directed toward fire/rescue personnel?
A 3 tier systme
293
What tier is a small scale act of violence that are to be handled at the local jurisdictional level?
Tier 1
294
What tier is when an actual violence towards fire/rescue has occurred in a specific area and there are no indications that the situation involves any other related acts?
Tier 2
295
During a tier 2 incident a perimeter should be established at what minimum distance?
A half mile in all direction from where the incident occured
296
What is recommended for all responses during tier 2 operations?
Law Enforcement escorts
297
During tier 2 operations all personnel will respond to and from incidents within the hazard zone wearing what?
Full PPE equipment
298
Can ambulances enter the hazard zone during tier 2 operations?
No
299
What tier is a series of interrelated violent events that have occurred in a specific area?
Tier 3
300
During a tier 3 incident a perimeter should be established at what minimum distance?
1 mile in all directions from where the incidents occurred
301
What is required for all responses during a tier 3 operations?
Law Enforcement escorts
302
During daylight hours and good weather the LZ should be a minimum of what size?
80' x 80'
303
During night landing or diminished weather conditions the LZ should be a minimum of what size?
100' x 100'
304
What is the maximum acceptable ground slope of an LZ
10-12 degrees
305
How far away from pt. care activities should the LZ be?
75-100 yards away
306
How should the LZ be marked?
4 blue strobe lights at each corner
307
The term commercial marine vessel is used to refer to vessels greater than _ ft in length.
50ft
308
What should the first arriving engine company have with them when approaching a boat that is on fire?
Full PPE and SCBA
Forcible entry tools
A tagline
A charged 1 3/4" or larger foam handline
309
What should the first arriving truck company do if the vessel has a fire 3 stories or more above the water line?
Provide an exterior standpipe to supply hand lines at the fire floor
310
Any fire or smoke showing on a commercial marine vessel shall result in what being called?
A 2nd alarm
311
Who shall act as liaisons to the IC at the command post during a marine vessel fire?
A marine vessel crew member
312
On fire in mechanical areas what should be utilized to fill the confined spaces and attain extinguishment?
Medium or high expansion foam
313
When should crews call for a HAZMAT consult or response during a carbon monoxide alarm activation?
If the source cannot be located or levels are at or exceed 10ppm
314
If you declare a MAYDAY what can be done that will place your radio transmission as top priority through dispatch?
Initiate a Sims code H
315
Aircraft rescue firefighting incidents require an initial hazard area of _ ft from the skin of the aircraft.
75ft
316
What do most aircraft contain that are made of mostly aluminum and will rupture quickly under fire conditions?
Hydraulic reservoirs, liquid or gaseous O2 lines and brake lines
317
What should be used when working around damaged aircraft?
Stabalization devices
318
What should be used to extinguish aircraft fires?
Fog nozzles with class B foam
319
Where are electrical wires and hydraulic line normally located in aircraft?
The upper and lower areas of the aircraft
320
Where should cutting or extrication be done to avoid electrical and hydraulic lines?
The doors or windows of the aircraft
321
How many passengers can a small aircraft hold?
1-6 passengers
322
How much fuel can a small aircraft hold?
90-500 gallons
323
How many passengers can a large commercial aircraft hold?
Up to 400 passengers
324
How much fuel can a large commercial aircraft hold?
up to 50,000 gallons of fuel
325
What can be done to help with knowing the number of passengers and crew present during the crash as well as the amount of fuel on board?
Obtaining the registration numbers of the aircraft located on the tail of fuselage
326
What type of fuel is used in military aircraft?
JP-4 or JP-8
327
Which type of aircraft is the only one using 6.7 gallons of Hydrazine?
F-16
328
What are special hazards when dealing with military aircraft?
1. Fuel
2. Ejection systems
3. Canopies
4. Weapons and weapons systems
329
What is a standard procedure for recording or documenting key information that will be needed or useful in the event that emergency operations are undertaken at a particular site?
A pre-incident plan
330
Initial pre-planning activity for all sites is gathering information for what is know as a _.
Tactical survey
331
What criteria is used by the AHJ that identifies target hazards to be pre-planned?
1. Life safety hazards
2. Structure size and complexity
3. Value of the structure
4. Importance within the community
5. location
6. presence of hazardous material or processes
7. susceptibility to natural disasters
8. Limited access
9. High-rise structure
332
What will be adequate as a complete reference for the efficient management of any emergency that might reasonably occur?
The Tactical Survey Report
333
What is recognized to be one of the most valuable tools in the firefighter's tool kit to efficiently mitigate an emergency?
The pre-incident plan
334
What is a useful tool in determining risk assessment?
Risk, Hazard, and Value Evaluation (RHAVE)
335
What should be established at all roadway incidents where emergency or non emergency operations are established?
A Temporary Traffic Control Zone (TTCZ)
336
When practical, use the fire apparatus to block at least _ additional traffic lane more than that is already obstructed by the crashed vehicles.
1
337
What are the 3 general classes of duration that traffic incidents can be divided into?
1. Long term
2. Intermediate term
3. Short term
338
When a hose line is utilized, block so that the pump is _ , on the opposite side of on coming traffic to better protect the pump operator.
Down-stream
339
Traffic cones shall be placed at _ ft intervals upstream of the blocking apparatus with the furthest cone being approximately _ ft upstream.
15
| 75
340
What must be donned prior to exiting the vehicle at the scene of a vehicle crash?
Structural PPE, Class 2 public safety vest or Class 3 safety vest
341
High-Volume Limited Access Highways include what?
1. Interstate
2. Toll-Way
3. Multi-lane roadways
342
What is the minimum lane blockage that should be established by emergency apparatus on HVLAH's?
2 lanes plus the paved shoulder of the highway or 3 driving lanes of traffic upstream
343
How far away should the last traffic cone be placed on HVLAH's?
150ft
344
150ft is _ traffic cones
10
345
How many victims are in a MCI level 1?
5-10 victims
346
How many victims are in a MCI level 2?
11-20 victims
347
How many victims are in a MCI level 3?
21-100 victims
348
How many victims are in a MCI level 4?
101-1000 victims
349
How many victims are in a MCI level 5?
Over 1000 victims
350
What are the primary concerns of any MCI?
1. Life safety
2. Entrapment
3. Hazard mitigation
4. Search and rescue
5. Fire suppression
6. Decon
7. ALS care
351
An important component of effective incident management at incidents such as an MCI is the concept of _.
Unified Command
352
What are the 3 agencies that may lead the Unified Command during an MCI?
1. Law Enforcement
2. FD
3. Health Department
