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600 > 600 series flash cards > Flashcards

600 series flash cards

1
Q

The staging officer may be specifically assigned by IC , but otherwise it will default to who?

A

The officer on the first due engine of the second alarm

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2
Q

What should preferably be a parking lot or large area at least 600ft from the sceneand shall be located to deploy units to their assignments in 3 minutes or less?

A

The staging location

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3
Q

What level officer is recommended to be assigned as the Supervisor of a Division or Group?

A

A Command level Officer

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4
Q

What system allows the organizational structure to develop in an incremental, modular fashion, based on the size and changing conditions of the incident?

A

ICS (Incident command system}

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5
Q

SOP 600-1 shall apply to what type of incidents defined as the National Incident Management System?

A

Type IV and type V

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6
Q

The incident command SOP meet or exceeds which NFPA #, FL Administrative code, and is compatible and interchangeable with _ as required by Homeland Security Presidential Directive?

A

NFPA #1561, FL Admin code 69A-37, and NIMS

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7
Q

Who is the department and/or Fire district having legal responsibility and duties over the geographic area in which an incident occurs?

A

The AHJ (Authority Having Jurisdiction)

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8
Q

Which level of staging may be used by the IC to keep units from over deploying?

A

Level 1 staging

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9
Q

Units assigned to level 1 staging shall do what on scene?

A

Units shall take their assigned positions

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10
Q

What should personnel at level 1 staging do?

A

Remain in a ready state at the apparatus in full PPE and SCBA

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11
Q

Units shall not leave level one staging unless directed to do so by who?

A

Initial or Incident Command

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12
Q

What level of staging is used at the direction of the IC, or on 2nd alarm assignments dispatched to the incidents other than a High-rise Fire?

A

Level 2

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13
Q

Level 2 staging requires what?

A

A staging officer, a specific location at least 600ft from the scene and within 3 minutes from deployment

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14
Q

Which type of incident is under 1 operational period, minimum resources from one agency and handled by 3 command staff positions?

A

Type v incidents

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15
Q

What is an example of a Type V incident?

A

A structure fire

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16
Q

What are the 3 command staff positions used in a Type V incident?

A

IC, IC aide, Incident Safety Officer

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17
Q

What type of incident is limited to one operational period with resources from multiple agencies required?

A

Type IV incidents

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18
Q

During Type IV incidents standard command positions will be used and other command positions may be expanded as needed such as?

A

Groups, Divisions, or Branches

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19
Q

Example of Type IV incidents are?

A

Large commercial fire, High-rise fire, or HAZMAT

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20
Q

What type of incident may expand into multiple operational periods with multiple agencies required?

A

Type III

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21
Q

During Type III incidents other command positions will likely be required, who else may be required to assist?

A

State or Regional IMT Team

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22
Q

Examples of a Type III incidents are?

A

Tornadoes, Floods, and Local disasters

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23
Q

What type of incident will require multiple operational periods and will likely require assistance from regional, state, or national resources?

A

Type II incidents.

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24
Q

Who may be required during a Type II incidents?

A

State or Regional IMT Team

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25
Q

What is an example of a Type II incident?

A

Hurricanes

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26
Q

What type of incident is expected to go into multiple operational periods, and will require assistance from the Federal Government and is an event of National significance?

A

Type I incident

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27
Q

Examples of Type I incidents are?

A

Major terrorist attack or Katrina level disaster

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28
Q

When is a PAR recommended to be completed?

A

At the 20 minute timer and every 20 minutes after

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29
Q

What is similar to a Group or Division but will have its own tactical objectives?

A

A Branch

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30
Q

A _ is used only at a major large scale incidents involving 2 or more distinctively different management components?

A

A Branch

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31
Q

What is the implementation of a coordinated and established set of procedures to assess, intervene, stabilize, manage and mitigate emergencies?

A

Incident Command

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32
Q

At what wind speed should aerial ops be halted?

A

Sustained 35MPH

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33
Q

What are the 3 basic levels of command operations?

A

Initial command. Incident Command, and Unified Command

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34
Q

At what wind speed should only critical Fire/Rescue ops be undertaken and all high profile and Lightweight vehicles not be used?

A

Sustained above 50MPH

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35
Q

Initial on scene radio reports should include what?

A
  1. Correct address if different from dispatch
  2. # of floors
  3. Type of occupancy
  4. Conditions observed and pertinent info
  5. Mode of attack
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36
Q

What is the functional operation within a defined geographical area?

A

A Division

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37
Q

What can be established by the IC when several companies are assembled to perform a single function?

A

A Group

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38
Q

In rapidly moving water of _ft a PDF and Lifeline should be used.

A

2ft

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39
Q

How far away from the fire structure should the first arriving rescue park?

A

75ft

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40
Q

In a mass casualty incident the EMS/Medical group is further broken down into what 3 units?

A
  1. Triage
  2. Treatment
  3. Transport
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41
Q

Who is the point of contact for representatives from other assisting and cooperating agencies?

A

Liason Officer

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42
Q

Who manages all tactical operations of the incident?

A

Operations Chief

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43
Q

What is a mobile type of command established by unit officers, usually the first arriving company officer?

A

Initial command

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44
Q

What type of command may remain mobile so the officer can conduct an effective size up, direct personnel, and begin initial company OPS?

A

Initial command

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45
Q

Can Initial Command be passed from one unit officer to another?

A

No

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46
Q

Initial command shall only be instituted by _ and held until a _ arrives on scene to establish an IC post?

A
  1. The first arriving officer

2. Chief officer

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47
Q

What is a stationary command post established by Chief officers?

A

Incident Command

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48
Q

When should Incident Command be established?

A

Any time 3 or more companies are actively investigating or engaged in operations

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49
Q

What type of command shall not be mobile, must have the location of the command post announced, and be highly visible to all incoming units?

A

Incident Command

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50
Q

What must be located so that Incident Command has a good view of the structure or incident scene?

A

The Command Post

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51
Q

What type of command is used at a large scale incident where coordination between agencies is critical to the successful outcome of the incident?

A

Unified Command

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52
Q

A Unified Command should be established with who and why?

A
  1. Police and Fire rescue Command level officers

2. to coordinate the tactics and strategies and establish communication between agencies

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53
Q

How should the transfer of command be done when feasible?

A

Face to Face

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54
Q

Initial commanders should be prepared to answer what types of questions when transferring command?

A
  1. Initial situation
  2. Current situation
  3. Current plan
  4. What units are committed and where
  5. Status of the search
  6. Who is RIC
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55
Q

Once a Chief Officer has established an incident command post , only who may take over command from the IC?

A

A higher ranking Chief officer from the AHJ over the incident

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56
Q

Command should not be transferred more than _ times.

A

2

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57
Q

When announcing command any company or Chief officer who is assuming command shall do what to their command post?

A

Name the Command Post

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58
Q

What must be announced anytime an incident command post is being established?

A

The location

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59
Q

What type of mode of operation is appropriate when there are no clear indicators of a fire or the nature or extent of the incident?

A

Investigative mode

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60
Q

What mode of operation involves taking direct action to mitigate the problem and prevent further extension of damage within the involved structures or area, typically means FF’s are engaging in an interior fire attack

A

Offensive mode

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61
Q

What mode of operation has the primary goal to prevent extension of damage beyond the structure or area involved, or to limit extension to other property?

A

Defensive mode

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62
Q

What mode of operations is a fire attack that firsts knocks down a body of fire from the exterior before going into the interior to complete extinguishment?

A

Transitional Attack

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63
Q

When the decision is made to change from one mode of operation to another what should be done to ensure all units on scene are made aware?

A

A 5 second alert tone by dispatch follwed by a command statement

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64
Q

When should initial on scene radio report not be given?

A
  1. Single Engine response
  2. Vehicle crashes
  3. Medical calls
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65
Q

The command post must be where to establish presence and visibility?

A

In or at a vehicle

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66
Q

What should IC use to track rescources and assignments?

A

Tactical Worksheet or a Command Board

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67
Q

What types of incidents require an ISO?

A
  1. Working fire
  2. HAZMAT
  3. Tech Rescue
  4. Water Rescue
  5. Extended Extrications or complex Rescue Ops.
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68
Q

ISO can be filled by any Fire Officer however it should be preferrably filled by who?

A

Command level officer or officer with specific ISO training

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69
Q

Who shall provide updates from all sides of the structure and advise the IC of changing conditions as well as the progress of current tactics?

A

The ISO

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70
Q

Who is authorized to exercise emergency authority to stop, suspend, alter, or prevent unsafe ops when immediate action is required?

A

The ISO

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71
Q

How many ISO’s can there be on scene?

A

1

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72
Q

On large incidents who works under the direction of the ISO?

A

Assistant Safety Officers

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73
Q

Who shall ensure that personnel have adequate rehab provisions available when needed, and that the Rehab Group provides appropriate medical screenings before returning personnel to incident operations?

A

The ISO

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74
Q

What 3 positions form the Incident Command Team?

A

Incident Command, Incident Safety Officer, and Command Post Aide

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75
Q

Who’s primary responsibility is it to handle incident scene accountablility and radio communications?

A

The command post Aide

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76
Q

Where should all companies report to to recieve thier assignments unless otherwise directed by the IC

A

The command post

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77
Q

Where should extra crews and personnel be kept as “on deck” companies?

A

Near the command post

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78
Q

How often should the command staff reevaluate their current IAP for its progress and effectiveness, as well as any need to change that plan?

A

At every 10 minute timer

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79
Q

How often should a situation update be given if possible?

A

every 20 minutes

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80
Q

Once the IC is established where should the location for accountability be?

A

The Command Post

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81
Q

What is a roll call by unit of all personnel on the incident scene? Who shall conduct it and may it be completed?

A
  1. Personnel Accountability Report
  2. The IC or IC Aide
  3. visually, face to face, or by radio
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82
Q

What is recommended that the IC request dispatch to do prior to the PAR check?

A

Give a 5 second alert tone

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83
Q

Who should a PAR check always begin?

A

With the units who are operating in the IDLH

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84
Q

If a unit doesn’t respond to the PAR check after _ attempts an announcement should be made asking all units on scene if they have knowledge of the missing person or units location.

A

3

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85
Q

What should happen if there is no response from the missing person or unit during a PAR check?

A

A MAYDAY be declared and RIC activated

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86
Q

When should the IC consider crew rotations and rehab?

A

At the 20 minute timer

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87
Q

In case of a structural collapse the IC should consider what?

A
  1. Additional alarms
  2. Air transport
  3. Tech Rescue response
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88
Q

What are the IC radio benchmarks?

A
  1. Establish command w/ mode of operation
  2. Working fire
  3. Water supply established
  4. Primary search complete
  5. Fire knocked down
  6. Exposures checked
  7. 20 min PAR
  8. Strategy changed
  9. Secondary search complete
  10. Situation under control
  11. Pt.’s transported, #, severity. and destination
  12. Termination of command
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89
Q

What provides a system to divide an incident into manageable geographic areas or assignments?

A

Establishing Divisions, Groups, or Branches

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90
Q

How long does a unit have to go responding between the hours of 0700-2200?

A

60 seconds

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91
Q

How long does a unit have to respond between the hours of 2200-0700?

A

90 seconds

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92
Q

How far away from the fire structure should the first arriving truck company park their vehicles in mobile home parks?

A

250ft

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93
Q

Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Hydrogen Cyanide?

A

4.5ppm

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94
Q

Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Oxygen

A
  1. 5% (low)

23. 5% (high)

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95
Q

Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Hydrogen Sulfide?

A

10ppm

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96
Q

Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of Carbon Monoxide?

A

35ppm

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97
Q

Dangerous Time Weighted Average (TWA) of airborne combustible dust lower explosive limit (LEL)

A

10%

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98
Q

Which factors should be considered in the decision to alter, suspend, or terminate operations in adverse weather?

A
  1. flying debris
  2. vehicle stability
  3. personnel footing and stability
  4. diminished visibility
  5. proximity to power lines
  6. downed power lines
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99
Q

Scene size up is required from the first arriving unit when responding to unconfirmed structure fires and fire alarms when _ units are responding?

A

3 or more

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100
Q

When are scene size ups not required?

A
  1. Medical calls
  2. Single engine responses
  3. MVC’s
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101
Q

If a unit does not go responding within the allowed time frame how ling will dispatch wait before a second request will be made?

A

15 second

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102
Q

How long will dispatch wait for the first arriving unit to relay size up info before confirming response of the apparatus who have not responded via MDC?

A

10 seconds

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103
Q

What is a term used by the fire ground commander indicating the magnitude of a fire scene?

A

Working fire

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104
Q

What tac channel is designated for coverage changes, move-ups, encode tests, fire-alarm testing, no receipt of encodes/printouts, and request hailing/encoding of another unit?

A

Fire Admin (k) kilo

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105
Q

How long does dispatch sound the emergency retreat tone for?

A

15 seconds

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106
Q

Who is primarily responsible for relocating units to maintain the best available coverage for their entire district?

A

District Chief

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107
Q

What channel is an option to use if fire units are having difficulty communicating on the assigned tac channel?

A

FD talk around (FD-TA)

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108
Q

What is condition 1?

A

Normal operating procedures

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109
Q

What is condition 2?

A

Single engine response to automatic fire alarms and unconfirmed structure fires.

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110
Q

what is condition 3?

A

High activity

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111
Q

What is condition 4?

A

Storm mode

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112
Q

What is condition 5?

A

EOC mode

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113
Q

What is condition 6?

A

Disaster mode

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114
Q

Who is responsible for the management of public information on the fire ground?

A

Command

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115
Q

The first arriving support staff officer on scene if not required to take command or assigned a tactical function by command will be assigned as what?

A

PIO (Public Information Officer)

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116
Q

Who will be responsible for requiring all media representatives to wear proper protective clothing on the fire ground when necessary?

A

The PIO

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117
Q

Who is responsible for the safety of the public and media personnel in his or her area?

A

Each Division or Group Officer

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118
Q

What information is protected and cannot be given out?

A

Any scene under investigation, 911 caller info, and Pt. examination and treatment info

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119
Q

What is a 2”x1/2” plastic tag with velcro backing?

A

Individual name tags

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120
Q

What is written on an individual name tag?

A
  1. The employee’s first initial and last name

2. A 2 letter jurisdiction ID on the far right edge

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121
Q

What is the minimum # of accountability tags for each employee

A

3

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122
Q

What is the accountability tag color for Chiefs, Capt., and LT.?

A

White

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123
Q

What is the accountability tag color for Firefighters?

A

Orange

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124
Q

What is the accountability tag color for Paramedics?

A

Blue

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125
Q

What is constructed of flexible velcro that is 2”x4” w/a permanently affixed unit designator on the top and a second removable unit designator tag 2”x1/2” affixed to the bottom?

A

Primary/soft or hard passport

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126
Q

What is a hard backed piece of velcro 2”x4” with a permanently affixed unit designator at the top and a removable unit designator 2”x1/2” at the bottom?

A

Unit Roster/Hard passport

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127
Q

What will be on the drivers door of each engine, truck, and squad that is 8 1/2”x11” and made of hard plastic?

A

Apparatus Passport Drop-off Board

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128
Q

What is the minimum # of soft passports that an apparatus passport drop-off board are required to carry?

A

6

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129
Q

What will each member have that is approximately a 3”x2” unit identifier attached to the front shield of their helmet?

A

Helmet Idenitfier

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130
Q

What is a hard plastic board designed to hold passports and assist company officers in organizing and documenting an incident if the company officer assumes command?

A

Unit command board

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131
Q

What is a large plastic board w/velcro or magnetic attachments and large writing areas to track units and assignments for an entire incident?

A

Chief Officer command board

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132
Q

Who will carry the primary passport on their person?

A

The unit officer

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133
Q

Where will the unit passport be affixed to”

A

The officer door or passenger door of the rescue

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134
Q

If the driver is to remain outside of the IDLH how should their name tag be placed on the primary passport?

A

Upside down

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135
Q

On multi-company incidents who will by default become the initial accountability location for the incident?

A

The first arriving engine or truck

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136
Q

Initial rehab will be used when the incident will be conducted in what time frame?

A

6-8 hour period

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137
Q

Long term rehab will be used when the incident is expected to take longer than _ hours?

A

longer than 6-8 hours

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138
Q

What external resources will be required to assist with long term rehab?

A

Salvation Army Canteen

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139
Q

Rehab supplies include _?

A

Fluids. Food, Medical supplies, tracking, fans, awning, and barricade tape

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140
Q

How much water should personnel consume during heat stress?

A

at least 1qt of water/hr

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141
Q

What is the amount of time and the name of the rule that is recommended as an acceptable level of exertion prior to mandatory rehab?

A

45 minutes or the 2 air bottle rule

142
Q

Who should be placed as RIC on a fire scene?

A

The 3rd arriving engine

143
Q

What jobs can RIC do after setting up their equipment?

A
  1. Recon
  2. Ensure utilities are controlled
  3. Note entry and egress points
  4. Remove obstacles that would impede rapid egress such as security bars, locked doors, or other security devices
  5. Assess the need for additional ground ladders to upper floors
  6. Ensure secondary means of egress
144
Q

Who dictates the # of fire units that are dispatched to automatic fire alarms for their jurisdiction to the pinellas county dispatch center?

A

Each agency or AHJ

145
Q

Unless the AHJ mandates a different response mode for the 1st due unit or additional units dispatched to the incident how will the units respond to an automatic fire alarm?

A

1st due will respond emergency and all other units will respond non emergency

146
Q

What 5 categories are terrorist incidents divided into?

A 
Chemical
Biological
Radiological 
Nuclear
Explosive
147
Q

What is critical to the outcome of a terrorist attack?

A

Early implementation of a unified incident command system

148
Q

What are the primary concerns of a CBRNE incident?

A
  1. Life safety
  2. Entrapment
  3. Hazard Mitigation
  4. Search and Rescue
  5. Fire suppression
  6. Decon
  7. ALS
149
Q

How long will it usually take for state and Federal assistance to arrive in the event of a large scale magnitude?

A

24 to 72 hours

150
Q

In response to a bomb threat who is the lead agency?

A

Law Enforcement

151
Q

What is the minimum safe distance to remain on code B standby if not remaining at the station?

A

minimum 500ft from the initial reported threat in all directions

152
Q

unless otherwise assigned by the district chief or incident command how will units respond to bomb threats?

A

non emergency

153
Q

Until clearance from law enforcement what is the minimum distance for communications via radio or cell phone for a car bomb?

A

1500ft or further for larger vehicles

154
Q

Until clearance from law enforcement what is the minimum distance for communications via radio or cell phone for a package bomb that is 1 - 25 lbs?

A

1000ft

155
Q

Until clearance from law enforcement what is the minimum distance for communications via radio or cell phone for a pipe bomb?

A

500ft

156
Q

For a discovered device (response to terrorism) what type of response will dispatch initiate?

A

a full structure response

157
Q

In response to a detonated device who will be the lead agency?

A

FD

158
Q

What should be anticipated after one device is detonated?

A

A second device

159
Q

The first arriving engine to a detonated device should stage where?

A

close enough to deploy an attack line in necessary to affect a rescue or mitigate immediate hazards to life

160
Q

How should evacuation from a hot zone by the first arriving engine to a detonated device be done?

A

start from the outer perimeter working inward

161
Q

Where should the traige site be located during a detonated device?

A

A minimum of 500ft away, uphill/upwind

162
Q

What is the primary objective for the first arriving engine to a detonated device?

A

Rapid evacuation/removal off all survivors from the hot zone

163
Q

If it has been determined there are no survivors in the hot zone will entry be made into the hot zone?

A

no

164
Q

Where will treatment of casualties be performed during a detonated device?

A

in a safe zone 1,000 - 1,500ft away from blast site

165
Q

Where will the District Chief establish a unified command post during a detonated device?

A

1,000ft from the blast site uphill/upwind

166
Q

What estimated percentage of all terrorist attacks worldwide involve an explosive device?

A

70%

167
Q

How long may it take for the effects of a biological contamination attack to be evident?

A

72 hours post exposure

168
Q

Biological bacteria, viruses and toxins exist in what forms?

A

liquid, crystalline, or powder

169
Q

What are common signs and symptoms of biological exposure?

A

flu like: fever, weakness, headache, nausea, vomiting, cough, diarrhea, and chill

170
Q

How long will it take for the effect of a chemical weapon attack to be evident?

A

immediately after exposure ranging from seconds to until the first few hours

171
Q

What are the 5 categories of chemical weapons?

A
  1. Nerve agents
  2. Blister agents
  3. Blood agents
  4. Choking agents
  5. Irritating agents
172
Q

What are biological agents used for terrorism?

A
  1. Staphylococcal enterotoxin B (SEB)
  2. Botulism
  3. Cholera
  4. Anthrax
  5. Plague
  6. Ricin
  7. Smallpox
  8. Ebola
  9. Mycotoxins
173
Q

What are the components of the PPE decontamination kit?

A
  1. 4 level C “XL” coverall suits
  2. 4 pairs of boot/shoe covers
  3. 4 pairs of Nitrile gloves
  4. 1 roll of Kappler Chemtape
  5. 1 roll of M9 chemical agent detection paper
  6. 1 instruction/inventory sheet
174
Q

M9 chemical warfare paper is used to detect what?

A

liquid nerve and blistering chemical warfare agents

175
Q

What three areas are M9 paper applied to?

A

The wrist on one side, the bicep on the opposite side, and on ankle on either side

176
Q

What colors show a positive on M9 paper when a liquid chemical warfare agents comes into contact with it?

A

pink, red, red-brown, or red-purple spots or streaks

177
Q

When may M9 paper give a false reading?

A

Exposed to temps above 125F or below 32F, scuffing, grease, gasoline, oil. defoliants, and insecticides

178
Q

What is defined as a high-rise?

A

any structure of 4 stories or more in height

179
Q

What is the most effective tactical approach in majority of high-rise fires?

A

containing the fire by an aggressive fire attack

180
Q

In a high-rise fire what should be sounded upon confirmation of a working fire?

A

a second alarm

181
Q

`What 3 areas of the high-rise need to be identified during a high-rise fire?

A

The fire floor, the locations of the fire, and the attack stairwell

182
Q

What is considered an adequate water flow (fire flow) from an attack line?

A

a minimum of 250gpm

183
Q

What 3 conditions need to be evaluated during a high-rise fire?

A
  1. Fire floor conditions
  2. Fire extension
  3. Ventilation needs
184
Q

What are the minimum number of units that will respond to a Code 4 structure fire response “High hazard” buildings?

A

4 engine companies
2 truck companies
1 squad
2 District Chiefs

185
Q

What type of units are optional and will be department specific in response to a high-rise fire?

A

Rescues and LRs

186
Q

What are the responsibilities of the first arriving engine to a high-rise fire?

A
  1. Position engine away from building to allow the truck company effective positioning
  2. The entire crew will including the driver will take appropriate equipment into the building including: the high-rise pack, high-rise bag, and appropriate hand tools
  3. Announce initial accountability location
  4. Checks and marks annunciator panel for fire location
  5. Secures available keys
  6. Selects and verbalizes appropriate methos of ascent
  7. Consider silencing alarm on the fire floor to allow for effective communication
  8. Locate fire, announce fire location, attempt to confine fire
187
Q

Elevators will not be used if a fire is on or below what floor?

A

6th

188
Q

What responsibility does the D/O of the first arriving engine on a high-rise fire have?

A

assumes control of the stand pipe connection 1 floor below the fire floor, ensuring the valve is flushed, the hose is properly connected, ensuring the in-line gauge is connected, and proper fire flow is established

189
Q

Where should the first arriving truck place their apparatus?

A

should be placed based upon assessment of the fire location and the need for secondary means of egress

190
Q

When aerial ops are not needed at a high-rise fire the entire crew should proceed to fire floor for truck company ops which include?

A
  1. Locate the fire
  2. Forcible entry
  3. Search and rescue
  4. Ventilation of the fire floor
191
Q

What are the responsibilities of the second arriving engine at a high-rise fire?

A

Establishes a water supply and supplies the FDC, the D/O completes this alone and remains at the pump panel to supply the building while the rest of the crew goes to the fire floor to assist the first engine

192
Q

What are the responsibilities of the first arriving squad at a high-rise fire?

A
  1. Proceeds to the lobby and establishes Lobby Control
  2. Secures and control elevators
  3. Prepares to pressurize the attack and evacuation stairwells using PPV
  4. Controls fire alarm system
  5. Access and employs any internal coms system
  6. Attempts to contact Building engineer/maintenance director
  7. Controls building maintenance system
  8. Controls movement of evacuated occupants
193
Q

What are the responsibilities of the 3rd arriving engine to a high-rise fire?

A

Proceeds to the floor below the fire floor and assumes RIT, may be used to ensure initial attack line is charged and operating or deploy a back up line on the fire floor at the descretion of IC

194
Q

What are the responsibilities of the 4th arriving engine on a high-rise fire?

A

Assigned to floor above fire to control vertical fire spread and auto exposure

195
Q

If the fire is on the top floor of the building what should the 4th arriving engine do?

A

Report to IC for an assignment

196
Q

If possible where should the 2nd arriving truck park during a high-rise fire?

A

on the opposite of adjacent side of the 1st truck

197
Q

Unless IC assigns them to another task what should the 2nd arriving District Chief do?

A

Assume fire floor division supervisor

198
Q

What are the duties of the LR at a high-rise fire?

A
  1. Establish an EMS/medical group
  2. Maintain accountability of all evacuated occupants
  3. Request additional EMS resources
  4. Lobby control and accountability
  5. Coordinate with Sunstar supervisor if multiple pt.’s are involved
199
Q

What is the minimum # of unit responding on a 2nd alarm or greater?

A

3 Engines
1 Truck
1 Squad
1 District Chief

200
Q

What is considered to be the location a minimum of 200ft from the building where apparatus will initially report during a high-rise fire?

A

Base

201
Q

What are key positions that need to be filled by command during a high rise fire?

A 
Fire floor division supervisor
Command post aide
Safety officer
Staging floor supervisor
Base supervisor
202
Q

What 3 main components should be set up on the staging floor of a high-rise fire?

A

Medical with an EMS crew
Rehab
Equipment cache including extra SCBA cylinders of all types in use by the 1st alarm companies

203
Q

When ascending in an elevator during a high-rise fire when should the elevator be stopped to confirm the FD override is functioning and to evaluate smoke conditions in the elevator shaft?

A

Every 5 floors

204
Q

What equipment will elevator crews have in the car at all times?

A
  1. Full PPE
  2. Portable radio
  3. Forcible entry tools
  4. Portable extinguisher
  5. Folding ladder
  6. Spare air bottle
205
Q

When using an elevator during a high-rise fire when should crews exit the elevator?

A

2 floor below the fire floor

206
Q

High-rise packs will be department specific including the size and type of hose used but what must all high-rise packs include?

A

A hose line with a smooth bore nozzle capable of flowing 250gpm and at least 150ft of hose

207
Q

If a combination of equipment being used for a high-rise pack has a lesser GPM then 250 what must be included?

A

an added appliance that provides an additional 2 1/2” port for connection of additional attack lines

208
Q

What starting pressure should all stand pipe systems be pumped at?

A

150psi

209
Q

How can a standpipe system be supplied?

A

two 3” lines or a 5” line

210
Q

What is the nozzle pressure on a smooth bore nozzle during a high-rise fire?

A

50psi

211
Q

For 2 1/2” hose being used in a high-rise fire what is the friction loss expected per 50’ of hose?

A

6psi

212
Q

What is the elevation loss when pumping a high-rise fire?

A

5lbs per floor

213
Q

Should the windows or other exterior opening be broken out during a high-rise fire without first consulting command?

A

No

214
Q

Depending on the height of the building and wind conditions how far may broken glass travel away from the building?

A

Up to 200ft

215
Q

Wind speed of over _ MPH should be noted by all companies responding to the scene?

A

20mph

216
Q

What is the order of floors to be ventilated after the fire floor in a high-rise fire?

A
  1. Floor above the fire floor
  2. Top floor
  3. All floors between
  4. Floors below the fire floor if necessary
217
Q

PPV fans should be used at least where during a high-rise fire?

A

The attack stairwell and evacuation stairwell

218
Q

Designated breakout windows in high-rise building are marked with what?

A

A Maltese cross

219
Q

What type of glass are breakout windows made out of?

A

Tempered glass

220
Q

If units are unable to transmit out of the building during a high-rise fire what channel can be used and should be monitored by command?

A

FD-TA

221
Q

What are newer high-rise building equipped with so personnel on the upper floors can communicate with the fire control room?

A

Firefighter telephone system

222
Q

During elevator use how many crews should be in the elevator car at a time?

A

1

223
Q

How many phases are there in elevator firefighter service feature?

A

2

224
Q

What does phase one of the elevator firefighter service do?

A

recalls the elevator to the ground floor and gives all control of the elevator to the firefighters

225
Q

What does phase 2 of the elevator firefighter service do?

A

Allows firefighters to ascend to an upper floor without stopping at any other floor

226
Q

If occupants of a high-rise are evacuated outside of the structure how far from the building should they be?

A

At least 200ft

227
Q

How many classes of standpipe systems are there?

A

3

228
Q

Which class standpipe systems is designed specifically for use by FD?

A

Class 1

229
Q

What type and size discharge outlets are on a class 1 standpipe system?

A

A male 2 1/2” discharge with a valve

230
Q

Where will class 1 standpipes typically be located in a high-rise?

A

The stairwells

231
Q

Which class of standpipe systems is specifically designed for occupant use and not the FD?

A

Class 2

232
Q

Where are class 2 standpipe systems typically located?

A

In a cabinet or other recess in a hallway

233
Q

What are class 2 standpipe systems supplied with and what is built into the discharge?

A

1 1/2” piping and they have a pressure-reducing valve built in

234
Q

What class standpipe system is a combinations system?

A

Class 3

235
Q

Class 3 systems have both a _ inch for FD use as well as a smaller _ inch discharge with an attached hose for occupant use?

A

2 1/2”

1 1/2”

236
Q

Prior to 1993 the highest discharge valve was required to have a minimum residual pressure of _ psi for 2 1/2” hose connections.

A

65psi

237
Q

After 1993 the highest discharge valve was required to have a minimum residual pressure of _ psi for 2 1/2” hose connections.

A

100psi

238
Q

What is designed for the purpose of reducing, regulating, controlling, or restricting water pressure?

A

A pressure-regulating device

239
Q

Where static pressure at a hose connection exceeds _ psi, an approved PRD shall be provided to limit static and residual pressure at the outlet of the hose connection to _ psi.

A

175psi

240
Q

What two types of pressure-regulating devices are there?

A

Pressure-reducing valve (PRV) and Pressure-restricting device (PRD)

241
Q

What is a valve or device designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure under flowing (residual) conditions only?

A

Pressure-restricting device (PRD)

242
Q

What is the most common PRD that prevents the valve from being fully opened?

A

Limiting device

243
Q

What is an external device that operates in a manner similar to a fire department pump operator’s gating down at the pump panel?

A

Pressure-restricting device (PRD)

244
Q

What is designed for the purpose of reducing the downstream water pressure to a specific valve under both flowing (residual) and non-flowing (static) conditions?

A

Pressure-restricting valve

245
Q

What are the 2 types of PRV’s?

A

Non-adjustable and fire ground adjustable

246
Q

What is the minimum pressure PRV’s are preset to at the factory?

A

100psi

247
Q

What is the maximum pressure PRV’s are preset to at the factory?

A

175psi

248
Q

In an emergency where an FDC is not accessible or usable what can be done to supply a stand pipe?

A

connect a 3” line, a siamese or wye, and a double female directly to the discharge outlet on the first floor

249
Q

Who is responsible for the direct management of all incident tactical activities and should have direct involvement in the preparation of the IAP?

A

Operations Section Chief

250
Q

Who is responsible for managing the movement of building occupants through designated evacuation routes to a safe location?

A

Evacuation Group Supervisor

251
Q

During a high-rise incident the lobby control unit leader’s responsibilities are?

A

Maintain accountability, control all building access points and direct personnel to correct routes, control and operate elevator cars, and direct building occupants and exiting personnel to proper ground level safe areas

252
Q

Each FDC is usually located how far from the nearest hydrant?

A

Usually 100ft

253
Q

Flammable liquids have a flash point below what temp?

A

100 degrees

254
Q

For a gas leak outside, the first arriving unit should position their apparatus a minimum of _ ft and upwind.

A

200ft

255
Q

For a gas leak inside a structure all unit should stage how far away?

A

600ft upwind

256
Q

For a liquid leak first responders can handle spills up to _ gallons.

A

25

257
Q

When should the state watch desk be notified of a spill?

A

Anything greater than 25 gallons, if a spill involves a body of water, has an environmental impact, or requires an evacuation

258
Q

First responders to a HAZMAT incident should operate in what mode of operation?

A

Defensive

259
Q

What are the 4 categories that HAZMAT responders may be grouped into?

A
  1. Recognition
  2. Rescue, evacuation, isolation, decon
  3. Mitigation
  4. Information gathering
260
Q

What are the 3 commonly used placarding systems?

A
  1. NFPA 704
  2. United Nations numbering systems
  3. The DOT system
261
Q

Which system uses a diamond divided into 4 small squares denoting each type of hazard with a number from 0-4 denoting the degree of hazards?

A

NFPA 704

262
Q

The _ numbering system is a 2 part system with the first part dividing materials into 9 classes and the second part identifying materials by assigning a 4 digit number?

A

The United Nations numbering system

263
Q

The _ system classifies hazardous material according to their primary danger and assigns standardized symbols to identify the classes?

A

The DOT system

264
Q

What are the minimum resources needed for gross decon?

A

2 engine companies and 1 truck company

265
Q

Where should gross decon be located?

A

In the warm zone uphill and upwind from the hot zone

266
Q

How should apparatus be placed to form a gross decon corridor?

A

20ft apart parallel to each other with the truck company in line with the supply engine

267
Q

What can be utilized to create an access corridor leading into the decon corridor?

A

Cones or fire line tape

268
Q

10 gallons of absorbent should be adequate to absorb _ gallons of hydrocarbons.

A

5

269
Q

Containers can only remain on-site for _ days after the first contamination.

A

180 days

270
Q

What class foam is recommended on petroleum fires to reduce vapors and aid in extinguishment?

A

Class B

271
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the blue quadrant stands for what?

A

Health Hazard

272
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the red quadrant stands for what?

A

Flammability Hazard

273
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the yellow quadrant stands for what?

A

Instability Hazard

274
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the white quadrant stands for what?

A

Special Hazard

275
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the # 4 stands for what?

A

Requires evacuation/expert assistance

276
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the # 3 stands for what?

A

Hazardous, may require special methods of control

277
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the # 2 stands for what?

A

Standard equipment may be used with caution

278
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the # 1 stands for what?

A

Standard procedure may be used

279
Q

In the NFPA 704 system the # 0 stands for what?

A

No Hazard

280
Q

What are the 3 main procedures to effectively use PPV?

A
  1. Cover the entrance opening
  2. Regulate the exhaust opening
  3. Control the flow of air between the entrance and exhaust openings
281
Q

Positive Pressure Attack can be broken down into what 4 steps?

A
  1. ID the ventilation opening and position the fan
  2. Survey the building exterior and create or improve an exhaust opening
  3. Begin pressurization and fire attack
  4. Make sure the fire is out
282
Q

Where should the fan be placed when performing a PPA?

A

4 to 6 feet away from the opening

283
Q

How long should crews wait before entering the structure during a PPA?

A

30-60 seconds

284
Q

A water rescue shall be considers the mode of operation in any water over _ ft deep, in rapidly moving water greater than _ depth, or where the water depth cannot be determined.

A

2ft

greater than ankle depth

285
Q

A marine response will consist of what apparatus?

A

The 2 closest fire department marine units, an engine, an ALS unit, an FD command officer, and appropriate law enforcement marine unit

286
Q

On the color coding system on the MDC maps what does green indicate for potential launch sites?

A

All marine units are able to launch

287
Q

On the color coding system on the MDC maps what does yellow indicate for potential launch sites?

A

only small marine units can launch

288
Q

On the color coding system on the MDC maps what does red indicate for potential launch sites?

A

Low tide marine vessels cannot launch

289
Q

How shall first responders establish a last seen point to assist Dive Teams with their search?

A

By using a buoy or float

290
Q

What is the minimum size, material and length of a safety line?

A

3/8” synthetic line 150’ long

291
Q

During a water rescue how will primary communication be done?

A

Via the 800MHZ radio system

292
Q

What will be utilized for acts of violence directed toward fire/rescue personnel?

A

A 3 tier systme

293
Q

What tier is a small scale act of violence that are to be handled at the local jurisdictional level?

A

Tier 1

294
Q

What tier is when an actual violence towards fire/rescue has occurred in a specific area and there are no indications that the situation involves any other related acts?

A

Tier 2

295
Q

During a tier 2 incident a perimeter should be established at what minimum distance?

A

A half mile in all direction from where the incident occured

296
Q

What is recommended for all responses during tier 2 operations?

A

Law Enforcement escorts

297
Q

During tier 2 operations all personnel will respond to and from incidents within the hazard zone wearing what?

A

Full PPE equipment

298
Q

Can ambulances enter the hazard zone during tier 2 operations?

A

No

299
Q

What tier is a series of interrelated violent events that have occurred in a specific area?

A

Tier 3

300
Q

During a tier 3 incident a perimeter should be established at what minimum distance?

A

1 mile in all directions from where the incidents occurred

301
Q

What is required for all responses during a tier 3 operations?

A

Law Enforcement escorts

302
Q

During daylight hours and good weather the LZ should be a minimum of what size?

A

80’ x 80’

303
Q

During night landing or diminished weather conditions the LZ should be a minimum of what size?

A

100’ x 100’

304
Q

What is the maximum acceptable ground slope of an LZ

A

10-12 degrees

305
Q

How far away from pt. care activities should the LZ be?

A

75-100 yards away

306
Q

How should the LZ be marked?

A

4 blue strobe lights at each corner

307
Q

The term commercial marine vessel is used to refer to vessels greater than _ ft in length.

A

50ft

308
Q

What should the first arriving engine company have with them when approaching a boat that is on fire?

A

Full PPE and SCBA
Forcible entry tools
A tagline
A charged 1 3/4” or larger foam handline

309
Q

What should the first arriving truck company do if the vessel has a fire 3 stories or more above the water line?

A

Provide an exterior standpipe to supply hand lines at the fire floor

310
Q

Any fire or smoke showing on a commercial marine vessel shall result in what being called?

A

A 2nd alarm

311
Q

Who shall act as liaisons to the IC at the command post during a marine vessel fire?

A

A marine vessel crew member

312
Q

On fire in mechanical areas what should be utilized to fill the confined spaces and attain extinguishment?

A

Medium or high expansion foam

313
Q

When should crews call for a HAZMAT consult or response during a carbon monoxide alarm activation?

A

If the source cannot be located or levels are at or exceed 10ppm

314
Q

If you declare a MAYDAY what can be done that will place your radio transmission as top priority through dispatch?

A

Initiate a Sims code H

315
Q

Aircraft rescue firefighting incidents require an initial hazard area of _ ft from the skin of the aircraft.

A

75ft

316
Q

What do most aircraft contain that are made of mostly aluminum and will rupture quickly under fire conditions?

A

Hydraulic reservoirs, liquid or gaseous O2 lines and brake lines

317
Q

What should be used when working around damaged aircraft?

A

Stabalization devices

318
Q

What should be used to extinguish aircraft fires?

A

Fog nozzles with class B foam

319
Q

Where are electrical wires and hydraulic line normally located in aircraft?

A

The upper and lower areas of the aircraft

320
Q

Where should cutting or extrication be done to avoid electrical and hydraulic lines?

A

The doors or windows of the aircraft

321
Q

How many passengers can a small aircraft hold?

A

1-6 passengers

322
Q

How much fuel can a small aircraft hold?

A

90-500 gallons

323
Q

How many passengers can a large commercial aircraft hold?

A

Up to 400 passengers

324
Q

How much fuel can a large commercial aircraft hold?

A

up to 50,000 gallons of fuel

325
Q

What can be done to help with knowing the number of passengers and crew present during the crash as well as the amount of fuel on board?

A

Obtaining the registration numbers of the aircraft located on the tail of fuselage

326
Q

What type of fuel is used in military aircraft?

A

JP-4 or JP-8

327
Q

Which type of aircraft is the only one using 6.7 gallons of Hydrazine?

A

F-16

328
Q

What are special hazards when dealing with military aircraft?

A
  1. Fuel
  2. Ejection systems
  3. Canopies
  4. Weapons and weapons systems
329
Q

What is a standard procedure for recording or documenting key information that will be needed or useful in the event that emergency operations are undertaken at a particular site?

A

A pre-incident plan

330
Q

Initial pre-planning activity for all sites is gathering information for what is know as a _.

A

Tactical survey

331
Q

What criteria is used by the AHJ that identifies target hazards to be pre-planned?

A
  1. Life safety hazards
  2. Structure size and complexity
  3. Value of the structure
  4. Importance within the community
  5. location
  6. presence of hazardous material or processes
  7. susceptibility to natural disasters
  8. Limited access
  9. High-rise structure
332
Q

What will be adequate as a complete reference for the efficient management of any emergency that might reasonably occur?

A

The Tactical Survey Report

333
Q

What is recognized to be one of the most valuable tools in the firefighter’s tool kit to efficiently mitigate an emergency?

A

The pre-incident plan

334
Q

What is a useful tool in determining risk assessment?

A

Risk, Hazard, and Value Evaluation (RHAVE)

335
Q

What should be established at all roadway incidents where emergency or non emergency operations are established?

A

A Temporary Traffic Control Zone (TTCZ)

336
Q

When practical, use the fire apparatus to block at least _ additional traffic lane more than that is already obstructed by the crashed vehicles.

A

1

337
Q

What are the 3 general classes of duration that traffic incidents can be divided into?

A
  1. Long term
  2. Intermediate term
  3. Short term
338
Q

When a hose line is utilized, block so that the pump is _ , on the opposite side of on coming traffic to better protect the pump operator.

A

Down-stream

339
Q

Traffic cones shall be placed at _ ft intervals upstream of the blocking apparatus with the furthest cone being approximately _ ft upstream.

A

15

75

340
Q

What must be donned prior to exiting the vehicle at the scene of a vehicle crash?

A

Structural PPE, Class 2 public safety vest or Class 3 safety vest

341
Q

High-Volume Limited Access Highways include what?

A
  1. Interstate
  2. Toll-Way
  3. Multi-lane roadways
342
Q

What is the minimum lane blockage that should be established by emergency apparatus on HVLAH’s?

A

2 lanes plus the paved shoulder of the highway or 3 driving lanes of traffic upstream

343
Q

How far away should the last traffic cone be placed on HVLAH’s?

A

150ft

344
Q

150ft is _ traffic cones

A

10

345
Q

How many victims are in a MCI level 1?

A

5-10 victims

346
Q

How many victims are in a MCI level 2?

A

11-20 victims

347
Q

How many victims are in a MCI level 3?

A

21-100 victims

348
Q

How many victims are in a MCI level 4?

A

101-1000 victims

349
Q

How many victims are in a MCI level 5?

A

Over 1000 victims

350
Q

What are the primary concerns of any MCI?

A
  1. Life safety
  2. Entrapment
  3. Hazard mitigation
  4. Search and rescue
  5. Fire suppression
  6. Decon
  7. ALS care
351
Q

An important component of effective incident management at incidents such as an MCI is the concept of _.

A

Unified Command

352
Q

What are the 3 agencies that may lead the Unified Command during an MCI?

A
  1. Law Enforcement
  2. FD
  3. Health Department

600 (28 decks)

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