4th Year Trauma Flashcards

1
Q

define polytrauma

A

more than one major long bone is injured or where a major fracture is associated with significant chest or abdo trauma

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2
Q

three types of nerve injuries associated with fractures

A
  1. neurapraxia
  2. axonotmesis
  3. neurotmesis
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3
Q

what is neurapraxia?

A

temporary compression causes temporary conduction block/ demyelination
should resolve in 28 days

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4
Q

what is axonotmesis?

A

sustained compression causes nerve cell death distal to injury (Wallerian degeneration). regenerates 1mm per day
NCS gives prognosis

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5
Q

what is neurotmesis?

A

complete transection of the nerve

needs grafts or tendon transfers

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6
Q

what does a bumper injury to the lateral knee risk?

A

common peroneal nerve injury

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7
Q

what nerve do supracondylar fractures risk injuring?

A

brachial artery

ulnar nerve

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8
Q

classification for supracondylar fractures

A

Gartland classification

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9
Q

Gartland classification

A
1= undisplaced
2= displaced with intact cortex
3= completely displaced
4= multidirectional instability
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10
Q

what criteria must be met to clear a C-spine?

A

no history of LOC
GCS 15 with no alcohol
no significant distracting injury e.g. head, chest, other fractures
no neurological symptoms
no midline tenderness on palpation of C-spine
no pain on neck movement

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11
Q

what to do if C-spine criteria not met?

A

get XR or CT

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12
Q

how to assess pressure in compartment syndrome?

A

needle manometry

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13
Q

initial management of compartment syndrome

A

escalation to reg or consultant
remove external bandages or dressings
elevate leg to heart level
maintain good BP

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14
Q

what are thoracolumbar fractures associated with?

A

wedge insufficiency in elderly

burst fractures in the young

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15
Q

what does diagnosis of a fracture require?

A

2 XR views

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16
Q

what is complex regional pain syndrome associated with?

A

regional sympathetic dystrophy

Sudeck’s atrophy

17
Q

what is a fat embolism?

A

occurs following fracture of long bones and can lodge in blood vessels cuasing inflammatory response

18
Q

when do fat embolism present?

A

24-72 hours post-fracture

19
Q

what criteria is used in fat embolism?

A

Gurd’s

20
Q

Gurd’s criteria

A
major= respiratory distress, petechial rash, cerebral involvement
minor= jaundice, thrombocytopenia, fever, tachycardia
21
Q

what reduces the risk of fat embolism?

A

operating early

22
Q

types of fractures

A
  1. compound= skin broken
  2. stable
  3. pathological (abnormal bone)
  4. compression (vertebra)
  5. fragility (OP)
23
Q

how to predict fracture risk in patients with OP?

A

FRAX tool

DEXA scan

24
Q

management of OP

A
  1. calcium + vitamin D + alendronic acid

2. denosumab

25
Q

what is torticollis?

A

waking up with unilateral stiff and painful neck due to muscle spasm