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UWorld Review > 4/12/19 > Flashcards

4/12/19 Flashcards

1
Q

Osteocytes are connected by

A

Gap junctions

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2
Q

Glucagon effects what kind of receptor

A

Gs coupled actives adenylate cyclase and increases cAMP which activates protein kinase A

Same with TSH and PTH

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3
Q

cGMP activates what

A

Protein kinase G

SM relaxation, platelet activation, sperm metabolism

CGMP is inactivated by cGMP specific phosphodiesterase (sildenafil)

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4
Q

Janus tyrosine kinase

A

Cytoplasmic protein activated by ligand binding to non-G protein coupled transmembrane rec that lack intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity

Activate transcription factors called STAT which enter nucleus to promote gene transcription

GH, erythropoietin, cytokines (interferon), prolactin

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5
Q

blueish neoplasm underneath the nail bed

A

either a glomus tumor or subungal melanoma (produces pigmentation)

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6
Q

Glomangioma

A

blueish neoplasm underneath nail bed

tumor of modified SM cells

Gloms bodies shunt blood away from skin surface in cold temperatures to prevent heat loss - function in thermoregulation

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7
Q

Caspases

A

Proteolytic enzymes that cleave proteins

Part of extrinsic (receptor initiated) and intrinsic (mitochondria mediated) pathway for apoptosis

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8
Q

esophageal varices, splenic enlargement, normal liver biopsy

A

portal hypertension from venous thrombosis - causes obstruction in portal venous flow upstream from liver

increased hydrostatic pressure

normal biopsy = presinusoidal process responsible for portal hypertension

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9
Q

Budd-Chiari syndrome

A

occlusion of hepatic vein (drains blood from liver and portal circulation into systemic circulation)

liver biopsy shows centrilobular congestion and fibrosis

See the same with constrictive e pericarditis

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10
Q

intrinsic tyrosine kinase

A

transmembrane receptors with activity in intracellular domain initiating downstream phosphorylation cascade

Insulin and insulin-like growth factor

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11
Q

erythropoietin signal transduction

A

Janus kinase 2/signal transducers and activators of transcription

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12
Q

Home-canned food

A

botulinum toxin

nicotinic blockade (dysphagia, ptosis)
muscarinic blockage (dry mouth)
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13
Q

botulinum toxin

A

enters nerve terminals via endocytosis

prevents binding and fusion of acetylcholine containing synaptic vesicles with the plasma membrane through destruction of SNARE proteins

no acetylcholine release

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14
Q

Medicare

A

65 yo and older
younger with disabilities
ESRD
ALS

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15
Q

Cystic degeneration of the putamen

A

Wilson’s disease (MC on step)

other progressive neurologic diseases

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16
Q

radio frequency ablation for afib

A

right femoral vein –>RV –>RA–>interracial septum at foramen ovale

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17
Q

Severe toxicity of mannitol

A

pulmonary edema esp in CHF and preexisting pulmonary edema

rapid rise in volume that increases overall hydrostatic pressure in vasculature

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18
Q

attrition bias

A

form of selection bias

systematic differences between group in terms of treatment response or prognosis

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19
Q

lead time bias

A

when screening test diagnoses a disease earlier than it would have appeared by natural history alone

time from diagnosis to death appears prolonged even though might actually be no improvement in survival

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20
Q

misclassification bias

A

either exposure or outcome not identified correctly

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21
Q

tetanus toxin

A

produces metalloprotease exotoxin (tetanospasmin)

migrates by retrograde axonal transport to central inhibitory neurons in spinal cord

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22
Q

tetanospasmin

A

inhibits release of glycine and GABA –> increased activation of motor nerves causing muscle spasm and hyperreflexia

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23
Q

Vibrio cholera entertoxin

A

stimulates serotonin release from enterochromaffin cells in GI tract = extreme fluid secretion

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24
Q

Loeffler syndrome

A

invasion of lungs by roundworm Ascaris = eosinophilic invasion for helminth destruction

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25
Q

pig farmer with cough and dyspnea

A

Loeffler syndrome - Ascaris roundworm

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26
Q

transpeptidases

A

form of penicillin-binding-protein that function to cross-link peptidoglycan in bacterial cell wall

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27
Q

cell-wall glycoproteins

A

vancomycin binds to terminal D-alanine residues of cell wall glycoproteins and prevents transpeptidases from forming cross-links

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28
Q

form of ceftriaxone resistance

A

structural changes in penicillin binding proteins

changes of 5 bands in radioautography to 2

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29
Q

change of 5 radioautography to zero with ceftriaxone

A

beta-lactamase action that degrade ceftriaxone

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30
Q

MM tumor cells secrete

A

osteolytic cytokines = TNF alpha that liberate calcium from bone

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31
Q

multiple myeloma labs

A 
Hypercalcemia
decreased PTH
increased urinary calcium
decreased 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D
normal PTHrp
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32
Q

Hepatitis A exposure

A

shellfish

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33
Q

coagulase negative staph

A

staph epidermis

one of MC infections associated with foreign bodies (VP shunts)

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34
Q

staph epidermidis most important virulence factor

A

synthesis of extracellular polysaccharide matrix = biofilm

encases the bacteria, barrier to Abx penetration and interferes w/host defenses (opsonization, neutrophil migration, T-cell activation)

biofilms eventually can disperse individual pathogen “seeds” (planktonic cells) into bloodstream

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35
Q

Obligate intracellular organisms

A

Chlamydiae and Rickettsiae

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36
Q

Facultative intracellular

A

Legionella, listeria, mycobacterium, neisseria, salmonella

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37
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A

pneumococcus, H.flu type B, neisseria meningitides

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38
Q

Protein A

A

cell wall of staph aureus

binds to Fc region of immunoglobulins = inhibits opsonization and phagocytic engulfment

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39
Q

exotoxin production

A

staphylococcal enterotoxins (food poisoning), botulinum toxin, diphtheria toxin, tetanus, pertussis

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40
Q

Arsenic poisoning

A

insecticide ingestion, contaminated water from wells, pressure treated wood

binds sulfhydryl groups (bad cellular respiration via inhibition of pyruvate dehydrogenase)
disrupts cellular respiration and gluconeogenesis and glutathione metabolism

treat with Dimercaprol or DMSA

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41
Q

severe watery diarrhea, hypotension, QTc prolongation (maybe torsades), garlic odor of breath, abdominal pain, N/V

A

arsenic poisoning

Tx: dimercaprol (chelating agent) - increases urinary excretion of heavy metals

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42
Q

psoriasis

A

activation of T helper cells and proliferation of keratinocytes

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43
Q

Auspitz sign

A

See in psoriasis

epidermal cell later superficial to dermal papillae is thinned and contain dilated blood vessels that can lead to pinpoint bleeding when scale removed

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44
Q

Tx of mild to moderate psoriasis

A

corticosteroids (diflorasone) first line - anti-inflammatory/antiproliferative properties

Vitamin D analog, first line (calcipotriene, calcitriol) - activate vitamin D rec –> nuclear transcription factor –> inhibition on T-cell and keratinocyte proliferation and stimulation of keratinocyte differentiation

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45
Q

Tx of severe psoriasis

A

systemic treatment better than topical tx

methotrexate and cyclosporine

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46
Q

virchow triad

A

endothelial injury, venous stasis, hyper coagulable state

VTE

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47
Q

Denosumab

A

one of medications for osteoporosis

binds RANK-L and inhibits binding to RANK
reduces differentiation and survival of osteoclasts

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48
Q

treatments for osteoporosis

A

Calcium and vitamin D
Bisphosphonates
Denosumab
Recombinant PTH analog

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49
Q

Bisphosphonates MOA

A

attach to hydroxyapatite binding sites on bone surfaces

inhibit osteoclast mediated bone resorption

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50
Q

Herpain-induced thrombocytopenia and thrombosis

A

5-10 days post heparin exposure
large drop in platelets
MC after unfractionated heparin but can happen w/LMWH

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51
Q

HITT mechanism

A

Generation of IgG antibodies for heparin and PF4 complexes –> Fc of IgG Abs binds additional platelets –> further PF4 release and widespread Plt activation –> Prothrombotic state –> arterial and venous thrombosis

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52
Q

TTP mechanism

A

decreased vWF-cleaving protease ADAMTS13

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53
Q

fever, thrombocytopenia, MAHA, renal insufficiency, neurologic dysfunction

A

TTP pentad

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54
Q

Cryoglobulinemia

A

AI diseases or viral infection (hepatitis C) = systemic vasculitis, fatigue, arthralgia, purpuric rash

usually no thrombocytopenia

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55
Q

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura mechanism

A

splenic destruction of Plt labeled by IgG Abs to glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors

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56
Q

inter scalene nerve block

A

procedures for shoulder and upper arm

affects brachial plexus roots and trunks (C5-T1) and transient ipsilateral diaphragmatic paralysis by anesthetizing roots of phrenic nerve (C3-5)

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57
Q

sternalcleidomastoid muscle innervation

A

CN XI

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58
Q

PCR

A

amplify small fragments of DNA

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59
Q

what you need for PCR

A

DNA template w/target region
flanking sequences adjacent to target sequence (makes primers to start PCR)
Thermostable DNA polymerase (replicate DNA template)

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60
Q

Steps of PCR

A

Denaturing
Annealing
Elongation

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61
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

exposure to environmental irritant
Histo: lymphocyte-predominate, interstitial inflammation, sometimes with necrotizing granulomas and loose fibrotic tissues within small airways

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62
Q

Neutrophil elastase

A

released by neutrophils and macrophages

primary protease for extracellular elastin degradation

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63
Q

Neutrophil elastase is inhibited by

A

alpha-1 antitrypsin

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64
Q

TATA box is

A

promoter region that binds transcription factors and RNA polymerase II during initiation of transcription

approx 25 bases upstream of beginning of coding region

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65
Q

Hypertension, hematuria, moderate proteinuria, linear appearance on IF

A

anti-GBM disease = rapidly progressive (crescentic) glomerulonephritis

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66
Q

Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (crescentic)

A

Anti-GBM Abs target collagen type IV leading to complement deposition

Anti-GBM Abs can cross react w/collagen IV in palm alveolar BM –> pulm hemorrhage (hemoptysis)

can occur with:
granulomatosis with polyangiitis
microscopic polyangiitis

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67
Q

renal failure + pulmonary hemorrhage + anti-GBM Abs

A

Goodpasture syndrome

Type II hypersensitivity

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68
Q

Glomerular crescents

A

proliferating parietal cells, lymphocytes, macrophages, fibrin on light microscopy diagnostic for RPGN

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69
Q

attributable risk percent in the exposed (ARPexposed)

A

excess risk in an exposed population that can be explained by exposure to particular risk

ARPexposed = 100 x [(risk in exposed - risk in unexposed)/risk in exposed]

or

ARPexposed = 100 x [(RR - 1)/RR]
where RR = risk in exposed/risk in unexposed

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70
Q

Relative risk

A

risk in exposed/risk in unexposed

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71
Q

HBV vaccination works by

A

impairing vision entry into hepatocytes

utilizes recombinant HBsAg to generate protective immunity

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72
Q

HBV acute infection overcome by

A

polyclonal cytotoxic T-cell (CD8+) response that destroys infected hepatocytes

73
Q

HIV and HCV treatment

A

disrupt viral genome replication

74
Q

Sofosbuvir

A

Tx for HCV that targets viral RNA-dependent RNA polymerase

disrupts replication of viral genome

75
Q

Ledipasvir

A

N5SA inhibitor for HCV, block virus replication and assembly of visions within cytosol

76
Q

Phenotypic frequency

A

p^2 + 2pq + q^2 = 1

Hardy-Weinberg analysis

77
Q

Calculate mutant allele frequency from disease prevalence

A

sq.rt. of q^2 = q

q = mutant allele frequency

78
Q

Beta-oxidation of FA inhibited by

A

well fed state = increase of Malonyl-CoA

79
Q

Well fed state biochem

A

increase in ATP inhibits isocitrate DH –> increase citrate in mitochondria

increase in insulin and citrate = upregulation of acetyl-coA carboxylase

Citrate lyase cutes citrate to form acetyl-coA in cytosol

acetyl-coa carboxylase converts acetyl-coA to malonyl-coA (rate-limiting step of de novo FA synthesis)

fatty acid synthase combines malonyl-coA and acetyl-coA to make 4 C molecule to add to others to make 16C FA

80
Q

Acetoacetate

A

ketone body

made in starvation state when oxaloacetate in short supply and acetyl-coA in excess

fuel for muscle, brain, cardiac tissue

81
Q

Malonyl-CoA inhibits

A

carnitine acyltransferase

prevents transfer of acyl groups into mitochondria
prevents breakdown of newly made FA’s

82
Q

Citrate

A

intermediate in TCA cycle

can be exported out of mitochondria to cytosol and broken down to acetyl-CoA for de novo FA synthesis

83
Q

Carnitine

A

AA essential for transport of FAs into mitochondria membrane for FA oxidation

84
Q

NADPH

A

reducing molecule needed for FA synthesis

85
Q

beta oxidation of FA produces

A

FADH2 and NADH-reducing equivalents

86
Q

Decreased C1 esterase (+/- C4) inhibitor levels in kid

A

hereditary angioedema (AD)

87
Q

Meds contraindicated in hereditary angioedema

A

ACE inhibitors

88
Q

angioedema mediated by

A

bradykinin, C3a, C5a

vasodilation and vascular permeability

89
Q

Glutamate (AA) + alpha-ketoacid (oxaloacetate) = ?

A

Aspartate (AA)

transamination reaction
requires vitamin B6 (pyridoxal phosphate)

90
Q

Maple syrup disease needs supplementation of

A

thiamine to help with transamination w/branched chain alpha-ketoacid DH

Valine/isoleucine –> propionyl coA

91
Q

Maple syrup urine disease

A

AR
defective breakdown of branched chain AA (leucine, isoleucine, valine)
build up of branched chain AA in serum and peripheral tissues

seizures, irritability, lethargy, poor feeding

92
Q

Branched chain alpha kitoacid DH
pyruvate DH
alpha ketoglutarate DH
all require 5 things

A 
thiamine
lipoate
coenzyme A
FAD
NAD

(Tender loving care for nancy)

93
Q

Most disorders of the urea cycle require

A

Arginine

makes downstream water soluble intermediates (ornithine, citrulline)
lead to nitrogen disposal and decreased plasma ammonium levels

94
Q

Lower homocysteine levels with

A

Cobalamin B12 and B6

95
Q

Tetrahydrobiopterin deficiency results in

A

PKU

phenylalanine levels can be decreased with THB supplementation

96
Q

Tetrahydrobiopterin is cofactor for

A

phenylalanine hydroxylase

97
Q

nicotinic (diplopia, dysphagia) and muscarinic (dry mouth) blockage =

A

C. Botulinum toxin (preformed toxin)
Home canned food
inhibits acetylcholine release from presynaptic terminals at NMJ
decrease in compound muscle action potential (CMAP)

98
Q

TCA overdose affects only

A

muscarinic (dry mouth) blockade w/no effect on NMJ (no alterations of CMAP)

99
Q

Signs of trapezius weakness

A

drooping of the shoulder
impaired abduction about horizontal
winging of scapula
weakness of SCM (if proximal portions of nerve injured)

100
Q

painless solid testicular mass is

A

testicular cancer until proven otherwise

101
Q

Dx of EBV

A

heterophiles IgM antibodies that react with antigens on horse/sheep erythrocytes

agglutination of these erythrocytes is sensitive and highly specific test for EBV in human B cells

102
Q

Secretory phase of menstrual cycle

A

between ovulation and menses
days 15-28
Progesterone high/plateau
uterine glands coil and secrete glycogen rich mucus in prep for embryo implantation
endometrial stroma is edematous and tortuous spiral arteries extend to deeper layers of uterine lumen

103
Q

Proliferative phase of menstrual cycle

A

first day of menses to ovulation
days 1-14
Progesterone low, LH and estrogen increasing

104
Q

pertussis main virulence factors

A

tracheal cytotoxin - destroys ciliated epithelial cells = loss of airway protection, develop of whooping cough

pertussis toxin - AB toxin enters cell and activates adenylate cyclase alters cell signaling and inhibit phagocyte activity

105
Q

pertussis is a

A

small gram negative coccobacillus

spreads via air droplets

106
Q

Auer rods

A

t(15:17)

AML, M3 variant - acute APML

107
Q

Atypical lymphocytes in infectious mononucleosis represent

A

activated CD8+ cytotoxic T cells

kill virally infected B cells

108
Q

pigmented neurons in posterior rostral pons at the lateral flow of fourth ventricle

A

locus ceruleus
makes NE
role in arousal (reticular activating system)
panic attacks

109
Q

Dopamine produced in

A

ventral tegmental area
substantia nigra pars compacta
in midbrain

110
Q

Poorly soluble gas anesthetic =

A

decreased blood/gas partition coefficient
partial pressure of drug increases quickly then plateaus
brain saturation (induction) quickly

ex: Nitrous oxide

111
Q

highly soluble gases in blood require

A

larger amounts of drug to be absorbed before blood is saturated

partial pressure rises slowly and levels out
brain saturation (induction) slower

ex: halothane

112
Q

most important factors influencing coronary blood flow

A

adenosine (ATP metabolism) and NO (endothelial cells)

113
Q

Nitric oxide made in

A

endothelial cells from arginine and oxygen

causes vascular SM relaxation by guanylate cyclase-mediated cGMP second messenger system

114
Q

Integrase inhibitor for HIV inhibits

A

Raltegravir
production of viral messenger RNA
dsHIV DNA cannot integrate into host cell chromosomes

115
Q

Viral meningitis MCC

A

enterovirus MC
arbovirus
herpes simplex 2

116
Q

bacterial meningitis MCC

A

adults: pneumococcus and neisseria
babies: GBS and gram negative bacilli

117
Q

difference between polymyositis and PMR

A

PMR does not have weakness and usually patients >50 yo

118
Q

polymyositis symptoms

A

symmetric muscle weakness (painless of painful)
elevated CK
ANA, anti-jo
Increased expression of MHC I antigens
Self attacking CD8 cytotoxic cells for myocyte destruction
can occur independently or as paraneoplastic of malignancy
similar to dermatomyositis but no skin findings

119
Q

PMR symptoms

A

myalgia of shoulder and pelvic girdle
systemic symptoms (fever, weight loss)
older patients >50 yo

120
Q

Drugs that can lead to lithium toxicity

A

HCTZ
NSAIDs
ACE inhibitors
all cause decreased renal perfusion

121
Q

Myasthenia graves pathogenesis similar to

A

Goodpasture syndrome

type II hypersensitivity

122
Q

If unilateral renal artery thrombosis d/t HTN and PVD, other kidney will show

A

significant arteriolosclerosis to compensate for lost kidney function

123
Q

PSGN immune complexes

A

granular deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 on GBM and mesangium

“starry sky appearance”

124
Q

amniocentesis for phospholipid content checks for

A

fetal lung maturity

125
Q

NF1 symptoms

A 
cafe au lait spots
cutaneous neurofibromas
ancillary or inguinal freckling
optic glioma
iris hamartomas
126
Q

NF2 symptoms

A

bilateral acoustic neuromas
brain meningiomas
schwannomas of dorsal roots in spinal cord

127
Q

Classic galactosemia is inherited

A

AR

128
Q

Hemophilia B (Christmas disease) is inherited

A

XR

129
Q

Huntington disease is inherited

A

AD

130
Q

Leber hereditary optic neuropathy is inherited

A

mitochondrial

131
Q

Rett syndrome is inherited

A

XD

132
Q

Niacin is a cofactor for which TCA cycle stuff

A

isocitrate DH
alpha-ketoglutarate DH
malate DH

133
Q

Niacin is a precursor for

A

NAD and NADP

important for dehydrogenase and reductase enzymes

134
Q

COPD developed decrease in RR as a result of O2 supplementation d/t ?

A

peripheral chemoreceptors in carotid and aortic bodies (main site for sensing PaO2 and stimulated by hypoxemia)

rapid increase in PaO2 can reduce peripheral chemoreceptor stimulation = decrease the RR

135
Q

Celiac disease can present with deficiency of what

A

dietary fats and fat soluble vitamins

136
Q

Positive transflutaminase antibody assay

A

celiac disease

137
Q

NE and DA are made in

A

CNS and PNS

138
Q

Epinephrine is made in the

A

adrenal medulla

139
Q

First rate limiting step in catecholamine synthesis

A

tyrosine –> dihydroxyphyenylalanine (DOPA)

by tyrosine hydroxylase

140
Q

In the medulla, NE is converted to epinephrine by

A

phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT)

141
Q

phenylethanolamine-N-methyltransferase (PNMT) is unregulated by

A

cortisol

142
Q

Catechol-O-methyltransferase and monoamine oxidase are responsible for

A

catecholamine inactivation

143
Q

catecholamines are made from

A

tyrosine

144
Q

strenuous exercise leads to inhibition of glycolysis in skeletal muscle bc intracellular _______ is depleted

A

NAD+

145
Q

in anaerobic glycolysis, NAD+ is regenerated from NADH when

A

pyruvate is converted to lactate by lactate DH

NADH transfers electrons to pyruvate to make lactate and regenerate NAD+

146
Q

in aerobic conditions, NAD+ is converted to NADH in the

A

TCA cycle

147
Q

in aerobic conditions, NADH is reconverted to NAD+ in the

A

electron transport chain as the energy in NADH is used to make ATP

148
Q

in aerobic glycolysis, NAD+ is needed to convert

A

G3P to 1, 3-BPG

149
Q

Lab test for suppurative parotitis in adults

A

elevated serum amylase without pancreatitis

150
Q

which hepatitis virus usually completely resolves

A

HBV

151
Q

labs for cholesterol gallstone formation

A

increased cholesterol
decreased bile acids
decreased phosphatidylcholine

bile becomes super saturated with cholesterol

152
Q

high levels of bile salts and phosphatidylcholine increase

A

cholesterol solubility and decrease risk of gallstones

153
Q

new eye pain after treatment for acute inferior MI

A

was treated with atropine to fix bradycardia –> muscarinic receptor blockade = mydriasis (dilated pupil) and narrowing of anterior chamber angle and diminished outflow of aqueous humor

can precipitate angle-closure glaucoma
CI in those with glaucoma

154
Q

atropine can be used for bradycardia bc it

A

decreases vagal influence on SA and AV nodes

common AE is increased intraocular pressure

155
Q

MC community acquired pneumonia in healthy and HIV patients

A

pneumococcus

156
Q

the ciliary muscle is under PNS control from

A

Edinger-Westphal nucleus/ciliary ganglion

157
Q

inhibition of Edinger-Westphal nucleus/ciliary ganglion

A

blurry vision with accommodation causing trouble seeing up close

inhibition by antimuscarinic pathway w/1st gen antihistamines

158
Q

Pramiprexole MOA

A

directly stimulates DA receptors

159
Q

ergot DA agonists

A

bromocriptine

Tx for hyperprolactinemia

160
Q

non ergot DA agonists

A

pramipexole and ropinirole

delays use of levodopa in Parkinsons

161
Q

Selegiline MOA

A

inhibits MAO-B in the brain = decreased central DA

used to delay clinical progression of Parkinsons

162
Q

Amantadine works for Parkinsons by

A

indirect and direct DAnergic agent

alleviates motor symptoms by enhancing endogenous DA
some anticholinergic properties to reduce tremors

163
Q

Tx for drug induced parkinsonism or idiopathic PD

A

anticholinergics inhibit central muscarinic receptors
trihexyphenidyl
benztropine

164
Q

During muscle contraction, ATP attaches to the sarcomere causing immediate

A

myosin head detachment from actin filament

165
Q

Pauci-immune RPGN

A

no Ig or complement deposits on BM

increased ANCA

166
Q

Three kinds of RPGN

A

antiglomerular BM (IgG and C3 linear deposits, Goodpasture)

Immune-complex (granular pattern of IgG and IgA and complement, PSGN, SLE, IgA nephropathy, Henoch-Schlonlein)

Pauci-immune (no Ig or complement, increased ANCA, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, microscopic polyangiitis)

167
Q

Complications of prolactinoma in premenopausal women

A 
galactorrhea
estrogen deficiency (oligo/amenorrhea, decreased bone density, vaginal atrophy)
168
Q

Complications of prolactinoma in men

A

infertility
decreased libido
impotence

169
Q

complications of prolactinoma in children/adolescents

A

delayed puberty

growth impairment

170
Q

prolactinoma effects on other hormones

A 
suppressed GnRH from hypothalamus
reduced LH (FSH to lesser extent) - hypogonadism, an ovulation, amenorrhea
estrogen deficiency
171
Q

deltaF508 mutation

A

cystic fibrosis

mutation in CFTR protein

172
Q

cystic fibrosis MC electrolyte disturbances

A

hyponatremia from excessive salt wasting in sweat

hypochloremia same

173
Q

Vitamin E deficiency can happen in

A

fat malabsorption

abetalipoproteinemia

174
Q

Vitamin deficiency that causes hemolysis and neurologic dysfunction (due to free radical damage of cell membranes, mimics Freidrich ataxia)

A

Vitamine E

175
Q

Patient looks like Freidrich ataxia but asking for deficiency

A

Vitamin E

176
Q

Thiamine deficiency seen in

A

alcoholics and malnourished

177
Q

thiamine deficiency associated with

A

peripheral neuropathy
high output HF
Wernicke encaphalopathy (ataxia, confusion, ophthalmoplegia)

178
Q

Polio causes damage to

A

anterior horn cells = asymmetric flaccid paralysis and hyporeflexia

sensation intact

UWorld Review (35 decks)

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