3rd EVALS 2018 Flashcards

0
Q
2. The xiphoid process is located approximately at the level of which thoracic vertebra?
A. T8
B. T9
C. T10
D. T12
A

C

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1
Q
1) Which of the following anatomical landmark marks the attachment of the 2nd rib to the sternum?
A. jugular notch
B. sternal angle (of Louis)
C. costal angle
D. None of the above
A

B

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding vertebrocostal ribs?
    A. It attaches to the sternum directly trough their individual costal cartilages
    B. Their costal cartilages join the cartilage of the rib above them.
    C. They are also known as FALSE ribs.
    D. They are exemplified by the 8th and 9th ribs.
A

A

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following is TRUE regarding typical ribs:
    A. The head has 2 facets that are separated by a crest
    B. The neck connects the head with the body at the level of the costal angle.
    C. The articular part of the tubercle serve as the attachment of costotransverse ligament.
    D. The non-articular part of tubercle serve as the point of attachment to the transverse process of the thoracic vertebra
A

A

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4
Q
5. All are atypical ribs, EXEPT:
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 1st
D. 10th
E. 12th
A

B

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5
Q
6. Which of the following rib characterized by the presence of the tuberosity of the serratus anterior?
A. 1st
B. 3rd
C. 2nd
D. 4th
E. 10th
A

C

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6
Q
7. Presence of scalene tubercle is a characteristic of which atypical rib?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 10th
D. 11th
E. 12th
A

A

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7
Q
8. Which of the following is a TYPICAL thoracic vertebra
A. T1
B. T9
C. T12
D. T11
E. T10
A

B

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8
Q
9. The presence of a single pair of costal facet located on its pedicel is/are features/s of what thoracic vertebrae?
A. T10
B. T11
C. T12
D. A and B
E. B and C
A

E

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9
Q
  1. TRUE regarding the inferior thoracic aperture?
    A. It is considered as the thoracic inlet.
    B. It slopes anteroinferiorly and serves as the attachment of the diaphragm.
    C. Bounded anterolaterally by the costal cartilages of the 7th to 10th ribs.
    D. Bounded posterolaterally by the 9th and 10 ribs.
    E. None of the above.
A

C

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10
Q
11. Which among these arteries originated from the subclavian artery?
A. Posterior intercostals
B. Subcostals
C. Superior intercostal
D. Superior thoracic
E. Lateral thoracic
A

C

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11
Q
12. The arterial supply of the 1st and 2nd intercostal space is/are:
A. Superior intercostal artery
B. Posterior intercostal artery
C. Anterior intercostal artery
D. A and B
E. A and C
A

E

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12
Q
13. Which brand of the internal thoracic artery supplies the 7th - 9th intercostal spaces?
A. Superior epigastric artery
B. Musculophrenic artery
C. Superior intercostal artery
D. Superior thoracic artery
E. Lateral thoracic artery
A

B

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13
Q
14. The arterial supply of the 10th and 11th intercostal spaces originates from what major artery?
A. Thoracic aorta
B. Subclavian artery
C. Axillary artery
D. Branchiocephalic artery
E. None of the above
A

A

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14
Q
  1. The venous drainage of the left and right posterior intercostal vein of the 2nd and 3rd intercostal space is:
    A. Left and Right brachiocephalic veins
    B. Left and Right superior intercostal veins
    C. Azygous and Hemiazygous vein
    D. Directly to the Inferior Vena Cava
    E. Directly to thoracic duct
A

B

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15
Q
16. Which of the following intercostal nerves gives-off a superior branch that joins the brachial plexus?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th
A

A

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16
Q
17. Which of the following intercostal nerves give rise to intercostobrachial nerve?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
E. 5th
A

B

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17
Q
18. Which of the following is an ATYPICAL intercostal nerve?
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 5th
E. 6th
A

A

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18
Q
19. After an accident, patient lost sensation at the nipple area, what is the dermatomal level of this area?
A. T4
B. T7
C. T5
D. T6
E. T3
A

A

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19
Q
20. On the mediastinal surface of the lungs, which of the following structures is NOT enclosed by the pleural sleeve of mesopneumonium?
A. Pulmonary artery
B. Superior pulmonary vein
C. Bronchial artery
D. Bronchus
E. Inferior pulmonary vein
A

C

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20
Q
21. The Right Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve hooks around what anatomical structure?
A. Right Coronary artery
B. Right Brachiocephalic vein
C. Right Subclavian artery
D. Superior Vena Cava
A

C

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21
Q
22. The Left Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve hooks around what anatomical structure?
A. Thymus
B. Cisterna Chyli
C. Arch of the Aorta
D. Carina
A

C

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22
Q
23. The "terminal half" of Superior Vena Cava is located within what mediastinum?
A. Superior mediastinum
B. Anterior mediastinum
C. Middle mediastinum
D. Posterior mediastinum
A

C

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23
Q
24. The nerve that contains 3rd, 4th, & 5th cervical spinal nerves:
A. Vagus nerve
B. Greater Splanchnic nerve
C. Phrenic nerve
D. Least Splanchnic nerve
A

C

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24
Q
  1. The “Esophageal Constriction” that is bisected by “Plane of Ludwig”:
    A. Constriction secondary to the left main stem bronchus & arch of the Aorta
    B. Constriction offered by cricopharyngeus at cervical part
    C. Constriction created by apex of the heart
    D. Constriction made by diaphragm
A

A

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25
Q
  1. The following are arterially supplied by the Right Coronary artery, EXCEPT:
    A. SA node (approximately 60% of the population)
    B. AV node ( approximately 80% of the population)
    C. Most of the left ventricle
    D. Most of the right ventricle
A

C

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26
Q
  1. The following are arterially supplied by the Left Coronary artery, EXEPT:
    A. Small diaphragmatic surface-part of the left ventricle.
    B. Most of the interventricular septum (usually anterior 2/3rd’s)
    C. SA node (approximately 40% of the population)
    D. Left atrium
A

A

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27
Q
28. The following are direct tributaries of the Coronary artery, EXEPT:
A. Anterior cardiac vein
B. Great cardiac vein
C. Small cardiac vein
D. Middle cardiac vein
A

A

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28
Q
  1. Superior Right Border of the heart:
    A. 6th costal cartilage, right parasternal border
    B. 3rd costal cartilage, right parasternal border
    C. 5th ICS, right midclavicular line
    D. 4th ICS, right inferior xiphisternal border
A

B

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29
Q
30. Apex of the Heart:
A. 5th ICS, left parasternal border
B. 6th ICS, inferior right xiphisternal  border
C. 2nd ICS, right parasternal border
D. 5th ICS, left midclavicular line
A

D

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30
Q
31. Epicardium is represented by what layer of the pericardium:
A. Parietal layer of fibrous pericardium
B. Visceral layer of serous pericardium
C. Visceral layer of fibrous pericardium
D. Parietal layer of serous pericardium
A

B

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31
Q
  1. Contents of Superior Mediastinum
  2. Arch of the Aorta
  3. Brachiocephalic vein
  4. Superior Vena Cava
  5. Hemiazygos vein
A

1 , 2 , 3

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32
Q
  1. Contents of Anterior Mediastinum:
  2. Heart
  3. Azygos vein
  4. Left Main bronchus
  5. Thymus
A

4

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33
Q
  1. Contents of Posterior Mediastinum:
  2. Vagus nerve
  3. Coronary artery
  4. Thoracic duct
  5. Brachiocephalic artery
A

1, 3

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34
Q
  1. Contents of Mediastinum:
  2. Splanchnic nerves
  3. Cisterna Chyli
  4. Sympathetic trunks
  5. SA node
A

4

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35
Q
  1. Usually found inside Posterior Mediastinum:
  2. Aberrant Thyroid Tissue
  3. Schwann Cell Tumor
  4. Thymoma
  5. Ganglioneuroma
A

2 , 4

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36
Q
  1. Anatomical structures bisected by “plane of Ludwig”(from sternal angle of Louis to T4-T5):
  2. Carina
  3. Apex of the Heart
  4. Arch of the Aorta
  5. First 2 Tracheal rings
A

1 , 3

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37
Q
  1. Direct branches of Arch of the Aorta:
  2. Branchiocephalic Trunk
  3. Left Coronary artery
  4. Left Subclavian artery
  5. Right Subclavian artery
A

1, 3

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38
Q
  1. Direct tributaries of Superior Vena Cava:
  2. Two Accessory Hemiazygos veins
  3. Two Subclavian veins
  4. Two Hemiazygos veins
  5. Two Branchiocephalic veins
A

4

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39
Q
  1. Branches of Ascending Aorta:
  2. Bronchial artery
  3. Left Common Carotid artery
  4. Esophageal artery
  5. Left Coronary artery
A

4

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40
Q
  1. Direct tributaries of Brachiocephalic vein:
  2. Superior Vena Cava
  3. Internal Jugular vein
  4. Inferior Vena Cava
  5. Subclavian vein
A

2, 4

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41
Q
  1. TRUE Statements regarding RIGHT ARTIUM:
  2. The wall is lined with Sinus Venarum & Trabeculae Carnae
  3. This chamber receives venous blood from Superior & Inferior Vena Cavae
  4. SA node is pierced on its endocardial layer near Eustachian valve of Inferior Vena Cava
  5. Its represents the right vertical & slightly convex border of the heart
A

2, 4

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42
Q
  1. TRUE Statements regarding LEFT ATRIUM:
  2. Form most of the “base” of the gross heart
  3. Pulmonary veins drain their contents into this chamber
  4. It has a smaller muscular auricle lined with Pectinate muscle
  5. It receives oxygenated blood from Pulmonary artery
A

1, 2, 3

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43
Q
  1. TRUE Statements regarding RIGHT VENTRICLE:
  2. This chamber is covered with endocardium & myocardial Pectinate muscle
  3. Bicuspid valve guards & controls the regular volume of this chamber
  4. Forms the largest part of the posterior surface of the heart
  5. It has moderator band from its interventricular wall
A

4

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44
Q
  1. TRUE STATEMENTS regarding LEFT VENTRICLE:
  2. Its anterior & posterior papillary muscles are larger than those of in the right ventricle
  3. Forms the apex of the heart
  4. Its wall is thicker than that of the right ventricle
  5. AV node is located on the posterior region of its interventricular wall
A

1, 2, 3

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45
Q
  1. Leaflets/Cusps of the TRICUSPID VALVE|:
  2. Anterior
  3. Left
  4. Septal
  5. Right
A

1, 3

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46
Q
  1. Leaflets/Cusps of the MITRAL VALVE:
  2. Left
  3. Septal
  4. Right
  5. Posterior
A

4

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47
Q
  1. Leaflets/Cusps of the PULMONARY VALVE:
  2. Left
  3. Right
  4. Anterior
  5. Septal
A

1, 2, 3

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48
Q
  1. Leaflets/Cusps of the AORTIC VALVE:
  2. Septal
  3. Posterior
  4. Anterior
  5. Left
A

2, 4

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49
Q
  1. Effects of Sympathetic Stimulation to the heart:
  2. Reduce oxygen supply to myocardium
  3. Constricts the coronary arteries
  4. Reduces the force of the heartbeat
  5. Increases heart rate
A

4

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50
Q
  1. Branches of Right Coronary Artery (in most of the population):
  2. Anterior descending artery
  3. SA nodal artery
  4. Circumflex artery
  5. Posterior Interventricular artery
A

2, 4

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51
Q
  1. Thoracic Duct passes through the diaphragmatic hiatus at the level of
A

T12

52
Q

Right Phrenic Nerve passes through diaphragmatic hiatus at the level of

A

T8

53
Q

Esophagus passes trough diaphragmatic hiatus at the level of

A

T10

54
Q
  1. Thoracic Aorta passes through the Diaphragmatic Hiatus at the level of
A

T12

55
Q
  1. Inferior Vena Cava passes through the Diaphragmatic Hiatus at the level of
A

T8

56
Q

Brochopulmonary Segments of the Lungs

57. Apical

A

A. Superior Lobe Right Lung

57
Q
  1. Lateral
A

Bonus

58
Q
  1. Lateral
A

B. Middle Lobe of Right Lung

59
Q
  1. Posterior
A

A. Superior Lobe of the Right Lung

61
Q
  1. Refer to the image
    This is a case of G.T. a 47 year-old male construction worker with an E.R. chief complaint of “substernal chest pain “ aggrevated by strenous work and even during rest-periods . 14 days prior consultation, patient had two syncope-episodes (fainting spells) during work preceded by angina (chest pain). Seven days prior consult, series of chest pain precipitated by exertion were noted which were alleviated & resolved with rest. Until, minutes prior emergency consult, patient complains of substernal chest pain with concominant dyspnea (difficulty of breathing) not resolved with rest, henceforth consult. Imperial & non-specific emergency management & treatment are rendered. During fast physical examination,systolic murmurs (abnormal heart sounds) are heard loudest on the pointed ICS (as shown below).

What would be your initial working diagnosis?

A. Tricuspid Valve Stenosis
B. Pulmonic Valve Stenosis
C.Aortic Valve Stenosis
D. Mitral Valve Stenosis

A

C

62
Q
  1. Refer to image.
    This is a case of Y.K., a 16 year-old female gymnast who slams the tip of her head on the improvised carpeted platform after a miscalculated dismount from uneven bars. Imaging reveals several fracture- sites on the uppermost region of the neck (as shown below).
What’s your initial impression? 
A. Chance fracture
B. “hangman’s fracture”
C. Jefferson's fracture
D. “novice-golfer’s neck avulsion fracture”
A

C

63
Q
63. Refer to image.
“Type II Anderson-D’Alonzo Fracture”
A.
B.
C.
D.
A

C

64
Q
  1. Refer to Image.
    This is a case of R.T., a 35 years old male ice-skater who complains of unilateral (left-sided) lower back pain after a complete pirouette on rink. Patient was subjected to several diagnostic work-ups and was diagnosed with “Spondylolysis”. On his Lumbar Anteroposterior-Oblique View radiograph, result reveals “Scottie-Dog = NEGATIVE” (as shown below).
    What specific part of the bone is damaged?
    A. pedicle
    B. transverse process, ipsilateral
    C. Superior articular process, contralateral
    D. pars interarticularis
A

D

65
Q
  1. Refer to image.
    This is a case of F.G., a 31 year-old female, who was diagnosed with Thoracolumbar Levoscoliosis

    since age 8. Mild episodic lower-mid back pains were noted and relieved with taught adjunctive exercises. Until, 4 days prior consultation, patient complains of severe and remittent-type (increasing type) of lower back pain not relieved by pain killers nor adjunctive positional exercises. Latest posterior imaging reveals Risser-Fergusson of 42degrees & Lippman-Cobb of 64degrees (as shown below). She sought consult to an orthopaedic surgeon.

Classify her presenting levoscoliotic degree of curvature. A. Group VII
C. Group II D. Group VI

A

B

66
Q
  1. Refer to image.
    This is a case of J.R., a 20 year-old homeless male who came to the emergency room with a penetrating improvised atlatl (long thin arrow-spear) impaled on his chest (as pointed below). According to emergency ultrasound findings, results reveal: Cardiac tamponade (approximately 176mL of blood accumulated inside the pericardial sac interfering normal heart’s pumping mechanism) with severed layers of the heart due to secured impaled object however damaging a heart valve.

Which amongst the valves is most likely damaged?
A. the valve between right atrium & right ventricle
B. the valve between right ventricle & pulmonary trunk C. the valve between left ventricle & ascending aorta D. the valve between left atrium & left ventricle

A

B

67
Q
67. The following cells are present in olfactory epithelium, EXCEPT:
A. granule cell
B. olfactory cell
C. basal cell
D. sustentacular cell
A

A

68
Q
68. Structure/s that is/are lined by nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium:
A. oropharynx
B. trachea
C. paranasal sinuses
D. A & C only
A

A

69
Q
  1. Laryngeal cartilage/s that is/are unpaired and elastic:
    A. thyroid
    B. epiglottic
    C. cuneiform D.B&Conly
A

B

70
Q
70. The following cells in respiratory epithelium are secretory in nature, EXCEPT:
A. goblet cell 
B. serous cell 
C. granule cell
D. ciliated columnar
A

D

71
Q
  1. TRUE of the trachea:
    A. It is lined by respiratory epithelium.
    B. Its C-shaped cartilages are elastic.
    C. Its glands (i.e., tracheal glands) are embedded in the lamina propria.
    D. A & C above
A

A

72
Q
  1. TRUE of the intrapulmonary bronchi:
    A. They are lined by respiratory epithelium.
    B. In LM preparations, their mucosa is seen to be thrown into folds.
    C. A layer of circularly-arranged smooth muscle fibers separate the mucosa from the submucosa.
    D. All of the above
A

D

73
Q
73. The pulmonary capillaries that are in the interalveolar septa arise from the terminal branches of the:
A. pulmonary artery
B. bronchial artery
C. pulmonary vein
D. A & B only
A

A

74
Q
74. In the lungs, oxygenated blood is carried by branches and/or tributaries of the:
A. pulmonary artery 
B. pulmonary vein 
C. bronchial artery 
D. B & C only
A

D

75
Q
75. Segment of the bronchial tree that supplies a lung lobule:
A. tertiary bronchus
B. lobular bronchiole
C. terminal bronchiole
D. respiratory bronchiole
A

B

76
Q
76. Clara cells, which are cuboidal cells that secrete surface active lipoproteins that reduce surface tension, form part of the epithelial lining of:
A. lobular bronchioles
B. terminal bronchioles
C. respiratory bronchioles 
D. all of the above
A

D

77
Q
77. In routine histologic preparations, the wall of this segment of the bronchial tree is seen as consisting simply of knob-like structures that are made up of a simple squamous epithelium, some connective tissue elements and occasional muscle cells:
A. lobular bronchiole
B. terminal bronchiole
C. respiratory bronchiole
D. alveolar duct
A

D

78
Q
78. Which pleura is lined on its free surface by mesothelium?
A. parietal pleura
B. visceral pleura
C. both
D. neither
A

C

79
Q
79. Cells in the lung alveoli that come from the bone marrow:
A. type I alveolar cells
B. type II alveolar cells
C. pulmonary alveolar macrophages
D. all of the above
A

C

80
Q
81. Lamellar bodies, which are the secretory granules for pulmonary surfactant, are distinctive cytoplasmic features of:
A. type I alveolar cells
B. type II alveolar cells
C. Clara cells
D. B & C only
A

B

81
Q
  1. TRUE of the blood-air barrier in the lungs:
    A. It consists of the type I alveolar cell, the endothelial cell of the pulmonary capillary and the basal lamina between the two cells.
    B. It is located in the interalveolar septum.
    C. It is permeable to molecular oxygen and carbon dioxide. D. All of the above
A

D

82
Q
82. Covered on its free surface by mesothelium:
A. parietal pleura
B. epicardium
C. both
D. neither
A

C

83
Q
83. The external elastic membrane is part of which histologic layer?
A. tunica media
B. tunica intima
C. tunica adventitia 
D. A & B only
A

A

84
Q
84. Part of the cardiac skeleton that forms the framework of the interventricular septum:
A. septum membranaceum
B. annuli fibrosi
C. trigona fibrosa
D. trabeculae carnae
A

A

85
Q
  1. TRUE of the SA node:
    A.ItconsistsofPurkinjefibersthatareslightlysmallerthanthosefoundelsewhereintheheart.
    B. Its Purkinje fibers generate the electrical impulse that initiates cardiac contraction.
    C. It is located subepicardially at the boundary of the right atrium and superior vena cava.
    D. All of the above
A

D

86
Q
86. Vessels that have no associated pericytes:
A. continuous capillaries 
B. fenestrated capillaries 
C. lymphatic capillaries
D. A & C only
A

C

87
Q
87. Histologic layer in the heart that is made up of loose connective tissue:
A. subendothelium
B. subendocardium 
C. epicardium
D. all of the above
A

D

88
Q
88. Structures that consist of a core of connective tissue that is covered on its external surfaces by endocardium:
A. semilunar valves
B. venous valves
C. valves of lymphatic vessels
D. all of the above
A

A

89
Q
  1. Compared to the arteries that they accompany, veins have:
    A. smaller calibers
    B. thinner walls
    C. more smooth muscle cells in their walls
    D. all of the above
A

B

90
Q
90. Vasa vasorum, which are small blood vessels that are present in the walls of large blood vessels, are present in which histologic layer of large arteries?
A. tunica intima
B. tunica media
C. tunica adventitia
D. B & C only
A

C

91
Q
91. In large arteries, which cells synthesize most of the elastin that makes up the elastic lamellae in the tunica media?
A. endothelial cells
B. smooth muscle cells
C. reticular cells
D. none of the above
A

B

92
Q
  1. TRUE of lymphatic capillaries:
    A. They start as blind tubes.
    B. They are not present in the central nervous system.
    C. Their wall consists simply of an endothelium.
    D. All of the above
A

D

93
Q
  1. TRUE of the carotid sinus:
    A. It is sensitive to changes in blood pressure.
    B. It is supplied sensory nerve endings by the glossopharyngeal nerve.
    C. It refers to a dilated area in the internal carotid
    artery where the tunica adventitia is unusually thick.
    D. All of the above.
A

D

94
Q
  1. TRUE of AV anastomoses:
    A. They refer to blood vessels that are in between two capillary beds.
    B. In the skin of the hands and feet, they form globular bodies that are called glomera (singular: glomus).
    C. They are blood vessels that connect small arteries directly to small veins.
    D. B & C above
A

D

95
Q
95. Sinusoidal capillaries are found in the:
A. liver
B. skin
C. central nervous system 
D. all of the above
A

A

96
Q
  1. TRUE of the right lymphatic duct:
    A. Its wall has three histologic layers: tunica intima,
    tunica media and tunica adventitia.
    B. It drains lymph from the left half of the body that is above the diaphragm.
    C. It empties its lymph into the right brachiocephalic
    vein.
    D. All of the above.
A

A&C

97
Q
97. Which of the following vertebral structures do not possess a synovial joint? BONUS 
A. Atlas
B. Axis
C. 2nd Cervical 
D. 12th Thoracic
A

All vertebrae contain zygapophyseal joint, which is a synovial joint.

98
Q
  1. Which of the following structures are involved in making up the vertebral arch?
    A. Spinous process and transverse process.
    B. Vertebral body and spinous process.
    C. Pedicle and lamina.
    D. B and C above
A

C

99
Q
99. Which vertebrae is also known as the vertebra prominens? 
A. Atlas
B. 7th Cervical
C. 1st Lumbar
D. Coccyx
A

B

100
Q
100. The intervertebral discs are thickest in these vertebral areas: 
A. Sacral
B. Lumbar
C. Cervical
D. Thoracic
E.BandConly
A

E

101
Q
101. Which ligament connects the laminae of adjacent vertebrae? 
A. Ligamentum nuchae
B. Ligamentum flavum
C. Intertransverse
D. Supraspinous 
E. Interspinous
A

B

102
Q
102. In the sagittal plane, which of these vertebral column curves is not correctly oriented? 
A. Cervical – posterior concavity
B. Thoracic – posterior concavity
C. Lumbar – posterior concavity
D. Sacral – posterior convexity
A

B

103
Q
103. Which of the following structures is NOT a ligament of the atlanto-axial joint? 
A. Alar
B. Apical
C. Nuchal
D. Cruciate
E. Membrane tectoria
A

C

104
Q
104. Which of these anatomical landmarks is of considerable importance in determining a normal childbirth process?
A. Cervix.
B. Sacral hiatus
C. Sacral canal.
D. Sacral promontory.
E. Coccyxgeal triangle.
A

D

105
Q
105. This condition causes a lateral deviation commonly in the thoracic vertebral region and may be caused by vertebral or muscular defects:
A. Osteoporosis
B. Kyphosis
C. Scoliosis
D. Lordosis
A

C

106
Q
  1. During auscultation, breath sounds are best heard through this triangular area that is bordered by the following structures, EXCEPT:
    A. Rhomboids major muscle.
    B. Medial margin of the scapula.
    C. Lateral border of the Trapezius.
    D. Superior border of the Latissimus dorsi.
A

A

107
Q
107. Which vertebral column movement is least extensive in the lumbar region? 
A. Flexion
B. Rotation
C. Extension
D. Lateral flexion
A

B

108
Q
108. The Cervical vertebrae are different from the Lumbar vertebrae in which of these aspects? 
A. Presence of transverse processes.
B. Presence of transverse foramina.
C. Spinous process which is bifid.
D. Size of the vertebrae.
A

Cervical Vertebrae are small, have bifid spinous process and Foramen Transversarium. Lumbar vertebrae on the other hand are large, have unifid spinous process, and do not possess a foramen transversarium. Both contain transverse processes.

109
Q
109. The Coccyx is usually formed by the fusion of which many vertebrae? 
A. Sacral 4-5 + Coccygeal 1
B. Sacral 5 + Coccygeal 1-3
C. Coccygeal 2-4
D. All of the above.
A

C

110
Q
110. Which of these muscles is not included as part of the Erector spinae group of deep back muscles?
A. Semispinalis
B. Longissimus 
C. Iliocostales 
D. Spinalis
A

A

111
Q
111. Which of the following muscles is located in the lower back and inserts on the humerus?
A. Latissimus dorsi
B. Rhomboid major 
C. Trapezius
D. A and B only
A

A

112
Q
112. The Rhomboid major and minor muscles lie deep to this muscle: 
A. Deltoid
B. Trapezius
C. Pectoralis major
D. Latissimus dorsi
A

B

113
Q
113. The cervical region of the back is supplied by which of these arterial branches? 
A. Occipital
B. Subclavian
C. External carotid
D. A and C only
E. All of the above
A

E

114
Q
114. When doing a lumbar tap, the 3rd anatomical structure to be encountered by the tip of the spinal needle should be the: BONUS
A. Arachnoid mater
B. Superficial fascia
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Interspinous ligament 
E. Supraspinous ligament
A

Anatomical structures traversed in a Lumbar Tap. IN ORDER, from outside to inside:

1 Skin
2 Superficial fascia
3 Subcutaneous fat this should be the Answer
4 Supraspinous ligament 
5 Interspinous ligament 
6  Ligamentum flavum
7 Areolar tissue (Epidural space)
8 Dura mater
9 Arachnoid mater
115
Q
115. Which muscle group of the back is most involved with the movements of the thoracic cage? 
A. Superficial
B. Intermediate
C. Postvertebral
D. A and B only
E. All of the above
A

B

116
Q
116. The muscle that is most used when an athlete is rock-climbing, kayaking or swimming is the: 
A. Splenius
B. Trapezius
C. Rhomboideus
D. Erector spinae
E. Latissimus dorsi
A

E

117
Q
  1. True of the anatomical position:
    A. Standing erect, head in neutral position, forearm in neutral position with the thumb pointing forward, knees in extended position with feet flat on the floor.
    B. Head is in neutral position with eyes looking forward; the dorsum of the hand is positioned
    posteriorly, standing erect with feet slightly apart
    C. Standing erect, shoulder in abducted position with palms facing anteriorly, lower limbs together with feet slightly apart and toes facing forward.
    D. Head in neutral position with arms at the sides, palms facing the trunk, lower limbs together and slightly abducted, feet flat on the floor.
A

B

118
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is true:
    A. The movement occurs in the X-Y plane and rotates in the Z-axis. The movement is called
    elbow flexion-extension
    B. The movement occurs in the X-Z plane and rotates in the Y-axis. This movement is called elbow abduction-adduction
    C. The movement occurs in the Y-Z plane and rotates in the X-axis. The movement is called elbow abduction-adduction
    D. The movement occurs in the sagittal plane and rotates in the X-axis. This movement is called elbow flexion and extension.
A

D

119
Q
  1. Refer to the image below:
    Which of the following statement is true:
    A. The movement occurs in the X-Z plane and rotates in the Y-axis. The movement is called forearm internal and external rotation
    B. The movement occurs in the X-Z plane and rotates in the Y-axis. This movement is called supination and pronation.
    C. The movement occurs in the X-Y plane and rotates in the Z-axis. The movement is called supination and pronation
    D. The movement occurs in the Y-Z plane and rotates in the X-axis. The movement is called elbow flexion and extension
A

B

120
Q
123. When the volar surface of the forearm faces anteriorly, the forearm is said to be in what position? 
A. Flexion
B. Supination
C. Pronation
D. Extension
A

B

121
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is correct?
    A. The left elbow is ipsilateral to the right knee
    B. The 5th finger is medial to the ring finger
    C. The wrist joint is more proximal than the elbow joint
    D. The clavicle is inferior to the sternum
A

B

122
Q
125. When the palmar surface of the thumb touches the palmar surface of the medial four fingers, the movement is called? DEFINITION OF OPPOSITION
A. Pronation
B. Opposition
C. Reposition 
D. Flexion
A

B

123
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is correct: BONUS
    A. The subcutaneous tissue is deeper than the epidermis
    B. The knee joint is more distal than the ankle joint
    C. The right knee joint is more superior than the left toes
    D. The 3rd finger is lateral to the 2nd finger
A

A&C

124
Q
  1. True of Systemic Anatomy:
    A. Structures are grouped according to function
    B. Structures are grouped according to boundaries
    C. Structures are grouped according to both function and boundaries -
    D. None of the above
A

C

125
Q
128. Suture joints are classified as:
A. Fibrous and Amphiarthrodial joint -
B. Synarthrodial and Diarthrodial joint
C. Amphiarthrodial and Diarthrodial joint 
D. Fibrous and Synarthrodial Joint
A

D

126
Q
129. The layman’s term for crus is: 
A. Thigh
B. Knee
C. Ankle
D. Leg
A

D

127
Q
130. Muscle A is a trunk flexor. Muscle B is a trunk extensor. Muscle C is a trunk rotator and a trunk flexor as well. Muscle D is a lateral trunk flexor. Which of the following muscles act as Synergist?
A. Muscle A and B
B. Muscle B and C
C. Muscle C and D
D. Muscle A, B and C
A

C

128
Q
  1. Which of the following statement is true?
    A. All cartilaginous joints are diarthrodial
    B. All diartthrodial joints are cartilaginous
    C. All fibrous joints are diarthrodial
    D. All sutural joints are cartilaginous
A

B