Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Final Exams - 2nd year > 2014 FB2 > Flashcards

2014 FB2 Flashcards

1
Q 
What is the causative agent of melioidosis?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) Burkholderia pseudomallei
C) Burkholderia cepacia
D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
A

B) Burkholderia pseudomallei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most infection associated with Bacteroides fragilis?
A) Oro-dental abscesses
B) Abscess formation
C) Lung abscesses

A

B) abscess formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the causative organism of peptic ulcers?
A) Helicobacter pylori
B) Campylobacter Jejuni

A

A) Helicobacter pylori

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q 
A patient came from Africa suffering from a round lesion in his mouth, the infection then spreads to oropharynx and bone, which of the following is most likely the cause? 
A) treponema pallidum
B) treponema endemicum 
C) borrelia burgdorferi 
D) treponema carateum
A

B) treponema endemicum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is a characteristic of vibrio cholera?
A) Causes mild self-limiting disease
B) Produce green color on TSCB
C) Causes food poisoning after ingesting contaminated seafood
D) Oxidase negative

A

A) Causes mild self-limiting disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pulmonary aspergillosis is acquired by inhalation of which of the following?
A) Arthroconidia
B) Conidia

A

B) Conidia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the best specimen to diagnose legionella infection?
A) Sputum
B) Urine

A

B) Urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?
A) All people with HIV develop AIDS 1 week after being infected
B) AIDS is the last stage of HIV
C) AIDS is the early stage of HIV

A

B) AIDS is the last stage of HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which of the following antigens is used in the acellular pertussis vaccine?
A) pertactin
B) cytotoxin

A

A) pertactin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the virus responsible for several cutaneous warts and cervical cancer?
A) Human papilloma virus
B) Polyoma virus
C) Molluscum contagiosum virus

A

A) Human papilloma virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the test for differentiating between streptococcus & staphylococcus?
A) catalase test
B) coagulase test

A

A) catalase test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is an identifying characteristic of listeria monocytogenes?
A) It is motile with tumbling motility
B) Its is nonmotile and anarobe

A

A) It is motile with tumbling motility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What microorganism causes ophthalmia neonatorum?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
What antibodies can be detected by a monospot slide agglutination test in case of a primary Epstein Barr virus infection? 
A) Heterophil antibodies
B) Early IgM VCA
C) Early IgG VCA
D) Early nuclear antibodies
A

A) Heterophil antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the most common manifestation of paramyxoviruses?

A

croup

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the most common type of malaria in Kuwait?
A) plasmodium vivax
B) plasmodium ovale
C) plasmodium falciparum

A

A) plasmodium vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which microorganism shows drumstick appearance under the microscope?
A) Clostridium botulinum
B) Clostridium perfringens
C) Clostridium tetani

A

C) Clostridium tetani

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the problem with health promotion in poor areas?
A) These areas are too isolated
B) They don’t have Enough HP clinics
C) They don’t have enough experts on/in the field
D) People in poor areas need treatment more than health promotion

A

D) People in poor areas need treatment more than health promotion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How did obesity change from 1980 to 2008?
A) Didn’t change
B) Obesity doubled
C) Obesity tripled

A

B) Obesity doubled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why is health education best for schools? 

A) captive audience 

B) atmosphere good for teaching

C) children absorb the information

A

A) captive audience 


How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q 
What is a secondary cause of hypercholesterolemia?
A) familial hypercholesteremia 
B) lack of ApoC-II
C) lack of lipoprotein lipase
D) nephrotic syndrome
A

D) nephrotic syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q 
Chronic inflammation can result from persistent, unresolved acute inflammation, or start as de novo. Which of the following is a de novo chronic inflammation? 
A) Lobar pneumonia 
B) Rheumatoid arthritis
C) Appendiceal abscesses 
D) Chronic cholecystitis
A

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

An 86-year-old patient died from chronic rheumatoid arthritis, a biopsy showed that the cause of death was deposition of abnormal protein (amyloidosis), what is the normal function of this protein before it deposited?
A) Antigen presentation
B) Acute phase protein
C) Transports thyroxine

A

B) Acute phase protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Alpha-fetoprotein is used as a marker for which of the following?
A) Nephrotic syndrome
B) Pulmonary emphysema
C) Multiple myeloma
D) Hepatocellular carcinoma
A

D) Hepatocellular carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the cause of local delayed wound healing?
A) diabetes mellitus
B) malnutrition
C) Infection

A

C) Infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q 
What does Prussian blue stain?
A) hemosiderin
B) hemozoin
C) bile 
D) melanin
A

A) hemosiderin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q 
What is the major cause of edema in congestive heart disease?
A) increased capillary pressure
B) increased plasma osmotic pressure 
C) increased capillary permeability
D) decreased plasma osmotic pressure
A

A) increased capillary pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q 
(PH)= 7.2 (7.38-7.42)
[HCO3] = 5 (22-26)
(PCO2) = 15 (38-42)
What is the acid base status?
A) Metabolic acidosis
B) metabolic alkalosis
C)respiratory acidosis
D)respiratory alkalosis
A

A) Metabolic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Which of the following are deficient in marasmus?
A) Carbohydrate, protein and fat deficiency
B) Carbohydrate deficiency
C) protein deficiency
D) fat deficiency

A

A) Carbohydrate, protein and fat deficiency

30
Q

Which of the following is the definitive evidence of malignancy?
A) Presence of metastases
B) Abnormal mitosis
C) Hyperchromatic nucleus

A

A) Presence of metastases

31
Q 
A woman fell, she felt pain afterward but her skin was intact. Upon performing an x-ray, her tibia was fractured into many small fragments. What is the type of fracture?
A) Closed
B) Comminuted
C) Transverse 
D) Spiral
A

B) Comminuted

32
Q 
An athlete checks his status before every major competition, his heart rate was found to be normal but his left ventricular wall was thickened. What process explains this finding?
A) Hypertrophy 
B) Hyperplasia
C) Atrophy 
D) Metaplasia
A

A) Hypertrophy

33
Q

A patient suffered from an acute bacterial pulmonary infection, what are the major cells that are found in the lung?
A) macrophages
B) lymphocytes
C) neutrophils

A

C) neutrophils

34
Q

An adult man suffered from tuberculosis. What is the characteristic feature of this infection?
A) Epithelioid granuloma
B) lymphocytes surrounding the area of infection

A

A) Epithelioid granuloma

35
Q

Which of the following are criteria of abnormal personality?
A) Deviation from cultural norms, deviation from statistical norms, maladaptive behavior, and causes distress
B) Deviation from cultural norms, following statistical norms, maladaptive behavior, and causes distress
C) Deviation from cultural norms, deviation from statistical norms, adaptive behavior, and causes distress
D) Deviation from cultural norms, deviation from statistical norms, maladaptive behavior, and doesn’t cause stress

A

A) Deviation from cultural norms, deviation from statistical norms, maladaptive behavior, and causes distress

36
Q 
What part of the brain is associated with experiencing emotions? 
A) amygdala 
B) frontal lobe 
C) parietal lobe 
D) hypothalamus
A

A) amygdala

37
Q 
What is the "C" in ABC in Rational emotive behavior therapy? 
A) Attitude 
B) Events
C) Emotions 
D) Thoughts
A

C) Emotions

38
Q

What is the meaning of temporal contiguity?
A) Presenting UCS & US at the same place
B) Presenting UCS & US at the same time
C) Presenting UCS & US of the same kind

A

B) Presenting UCS & US at the same time

39
Q 
A person experiences lack of hunger after lesions on both sides of the hypothalamus. What is the cause?
A) anorexia 
B) Lateral hypothalamus syndrome
C) Ventral hypothalamus syndrome
D) bulimia
A

B) Lateral hypothalamus syndrome

40
Q

During which of the following stages is information put in the storage?
A) Encoding
B) Storage
C) retrieval

A

A) Encoding

41
Q

There is always some difference between reality and what we perceive reality as, what best describes perception?
A) Top down
B) Unrealistic

A

A) Top down

42
Q

In what way does the social-learning theory differ from strict behaviorism?

A

Cognitive processes

43
Q 
"Attempt to gain detachment from stressful situations by dealing with it in abstract" is termed as?
A) Intellectualization  
B) Repression 
C) Reaction formation 
D) Projection
A

A) Intellectualization

44
Q 
In the school, children are learning parts of a plant and the life cycle of a butterfly. According to Piaget theory of cognitive development, in which stage are these children?
A) Sensorimotor
B) Preoperational
C) Concrete operational
D) Formal Operational
A

C) Concrete operational

45
Q 
Sami likes to ride his motorbike at high speeds thinking that nothing bad will ever occur. Which part of adolescence egocentrism is represented in this situation?
A) Egocentrism
B) Imaginary audience
C) Personal Fable
D) Invincibility fable
A

D) Invincibility fable

46
Q 
Which of the following is NOT considered as a behavioral technique?
A) Countertransference 
B) Counterconditioning
C) Flooding
D) Systemic desensitization
A

A) Countertransference

47
Q 
Khalid likes challenges, committed to his family and career as a commercial airline pilot and has good sense of control. What type of personality has these characteristics? 
A) Optimism
B) Hardiness
C) Introversion
D) Mastery
A

B) Hardiness

48
Q

Which of the following will most likely increase compliance?
A) Good rapport between patient and physician
B) Low levels of subjective distress

A

A) Good rapport between patient and physician

49
Q 
Which monocular cue helps us perceive an object that is closer to the horizon as being farther away?
A) shadowing
B) perspective
C) interposition
D) relative height
A

D) relative height

50
Q

Dot of rouge experiment is used to measure which of the following characteristic in children?

A

Self-awareness of children; finding themselves as unique individuals

51
Q

According to the study done by Bouchard about obesity in identical twins, which of the following was the result?
A) Genes are more important in determining obesity than the amount of food eaten
B) The amount of food eaten is more important than genes
C) Genes have no effect on obesity it is all about the environment

A

A) Genes are more important in determining obesity than the amount of food eaten

52
Q

Which of the following about development of sensory systems in newborns is true?
A) Most sensory systems are not at birth and the degree of development is low
B) All sensory systems are functional at birth, but the degree of development is different

A

B) All sensory systems are functional at birth, but the degree of development is different

53
Q

What is a process done to prevent short term memory information decaying?

A

Rehearsal

54
Q

If a drug binds to its receptor without causing a response, what is the characteristic of this drug?
A) It has high affinity but no efficacy
B) It has high affinity and high efficacy
C) it has low affinity but high efficacy

A

A) It has high affinity but no efficacy

55
Q

What should we check before giving digoxin to elderly patients?
A) Renal function
B) Hepatic function
C) Plasma albumin concentration

A

A) Renal function

56
Q

A drug is administered every 12 hours, it has a clearance rate of 60 ml/min. What is the maintenance dose that should be administered in order to keep the steady-state concentration at 10 mg/L?
A) 7200
B) 432
C) 600

A

B) 432

57
Q

What is the characteristic of a drug is used to treat urinary tract infections?

A

Excreted by the kidneys in its active form

58
Q 
Activating which of the following adrenergic receptor leads to lipolysis?
A) alpha-1
B) alpha-2 
C) beta-1
D) beta-3
A

D) Beta-3

59
Q 
Which of the following drug blocks the release of acetylcholine?
A) Botulinum toxin
B) guanethidine
C) Latrotoxin
D) Vesamicol
A

A) Botulinum toxin

60
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitter does the post synaptic parasympathetic neuron release?
A) noradrenaline
B) adrenaline
C) acetylcholine

A

C) acetylcholine

61
Q

Parasympathetic nerves send signals to the bladder muscles to constrict. Which of the following neurotransmitters is released?
A) acetylcholine
B) noradrenaline
C) adrenaline

A

A) acetylcholine

62
Q

What best defines bioavailability?

A

A portion of drug reaching the systemic circulation

63
Q

A patient is treated with drug X and was found to have a polymorphism in CDYP450 enzymes leading him to be considered as a poor metabolizer. Which of the following is true?
A) He needs a higher dose
B) Increased chance of drug toxicity
C) Decreased chance of drug toxicity

A

B) Increased chance of drug toxicity

64
Q

A drug induces the metabolism of another, what might be a consequence?
A) The dose of the affected drug should be increased
B) The dose of the affected drug should be decreased
C) The dose stays the same

A

A) The dose of the affected drug should be increased

65
Q

What is a characteristic of catecholamines?
A) they can’t cross the blood brain barrier
B) they can be used orally
C) they have a long half-life

A

What is a characteristic of catecholamines?

A) They can’t cross the blood brain barrier

66
Q 
What is the effect of a muscarinic antagonist?
A) bronchoconstriction 
B) increased salivary secretion
C) increased GI motility 
D) pupil dilation
A

D) pupil dilation

67
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic shared by all neuromuscular blockers?
A) depression of respiration
B) displacement of acetylcholine from the nicotinic receptors

A

A) depression of respiration

68
Q

Which of the following is used to treat motion sickness?
A) Scopolamine
B) Atropine

A

A) Scopolamine

69
Q 
In the case of zinc toxicity, the absorption of which the following minerals is affected?
A) Calcium
B) Chlorine
C) Copper
D) Phosphate
A

C) Copper

70
Q 
Which of the following contains the highest concentration of saturated fatty acids? 
A) Coconut oil 
B) Olive oil 
C) Sunflower oil 
D) Canola oil
A

A) Coconut oil

71
Q 
Which of the following tissue/organ contributes the most to resting metabolism rate? 
A) Heart 
B) Kidney 
C) Adipose 
D) Muscle
A

D) Muscle

72
Q 
Which of the following is the sweetest sweetener?
A) Galactose 
B) Sucralose 
C) Fructose 
D) Glucose
A

B) Sucralose

Final Exams - 2nd year (31 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions