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Final Exams - 2nd year > 2013 FB2 > Flashcards

2013 FB2 Flashcards

1
Q

What does Burkholderia pseudomallei cause?
A. Cystic fibrosis
B. Melioidosis
C. Glanders fever

A

B. Melioidosis

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2
Q

Which organism causes “rose spots” rash?
A. Salmonella Typhi
B. Shigella
C. Yersinia

A

A. Salmonella Typhi

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3
Q 
Which diarrhoeagenic E. coli causes diarrhea in HIV/AIDS patients and persistent diarrhea?
A. Enteroinvasive E. coli
B. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli 
C. Enterotoxigenic E.coli
D. Enteroagregative E.coli
A

D. Enteroagregative E.coli

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4
Q

A 35-year old lady presented with urinary tract infection. Her urine showed esculin positive diplococci. What is he most likely pathogenic agent?
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
B. Enterococcus faecalis

A

B. Enterococcus faecalis

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5
Q

A 43-year old Kuwaiti man has travelled to South America, where he has been exposed to mosquito bites. He presented with fever, hemorrhages, rashes, and arthritis. What is the causative agent?
A. Hantavirus
B. Lassa Fever virus
C. Dengue virus

A

C. Dengue virus

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6
Q

What is the most common manifestation of the primary infection with EBV?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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7
Q

What is important to do after diagnosing a lady with trichomoniasis (trichomonas vaginalis)?

A

Treatment of the partner

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8
Q

if a patient gets an infection following abdominal surgery, what is the likely cause of the infection?

A

it is very likely to be an endogenous infection.

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9
Q

How is herpes simplex virus-1 transmitted?
A. Exchange of body fluids
B. Direct contact

A

A. Exchange of body fluids

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10
Q

How can we diagnose malaria?

A

Microscopy of blood film

(Thick blood smears are most useful for detecting the presence of parasites, while thin smears is to discover the specific species)

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11
Q

Which microorganism shows drumstick appearance under the microscope?
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Clostridium tetani

A

C. Clostridium tetani

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12
Q 
What is produced Viridans streptococci to adhere to the heart valve? 
A. Acid
B. Carbohydrate 
C. M protein
D. Extracellular dextran
A

D. Extracellular dextran

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13
Q

Which organism is an important cause of blindness especially in developing countries?
A. Mycoplasma
B. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

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14
Q

What organism is non-cultivatable on artificial media?

A

Chlamydia Trachomatis

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15
Q

What is true about Streptococcus pneumoniae?
A. Optochin sensitive diplococci
B. Bile soluble cocci in chains

A

A. Optochin sensitive diplococci

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16
Q

What is the best specimen to diagnose legionella infection?
A. Sputum
B. Urine

A

B. Urine

patients with legionella usually don’t produce a productive cough, especially in the early stage of the disease

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17
Q

What is the most common symptom presented by children with Entrobius vermicularis?

A

Perianal itching

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18
Q

What is the mechanism by which Hydatid disease (echinococcus granulosus) is acquired?
A. Ingestion of larva
B. Ingestion of ova

A

B. Ingestion of ova

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19
Q

What antigen is specific for Aspergillus?

A

Galactomannan

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20
Q

Aspergillus infection is acquired by inhalation of which of the following?
A. Conidiophore conidial heads
B. Hyphae arthoconidia

A

A. Conidiophore conidial heads

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21
Q

What are the first steps needed to be done by policy makers to make a policy regarding a given health issue?

A

Survey and evidence

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22
Q

As an effect of global warming, people living in high altitude areas in Africa are more vulnerable to which of the following diseases?
A. Blood pressure
B. Cardiac diseases
C. Malaria

A

C. Malaria

Climate changes will prolong the transmission season of vector-borne diseases

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23
Q 
What is the percentage of pregnant Indian women who die annualy? 
A. 10%
B. 20% 
C. 30%
D. 40% 
E. 50%
A

B. 20%

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24
Q 
Cucumbers are rich in which of the following vitamins? 
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12 
C. Vitamin B6 
D. Vitamin B3 
E. Vitamin K
A

E. Vitamin K

25
Q

What is true about health promotion?

A

Pessimistic

26
Q

Which of the following is an idiopathic disease?
A. Crohn’s disease
B. Neurofibromatosis

A

A. Crohn’s disease

27
Q

What distinguishes lamellar bone from non-lamellar bone?

A

Regular distribution of collagen

28
Q

What is the most common type of necrosis in the heart?
A. fat necrosis
B. coagulative necrosis
C. liquid necrosis

A

B. coagulative necrosis

29
Q

What is a metabolic syndrome?
A. Dyslipidemia, high blood pressure, obesity, and high blood glucose
B. Dyslipidemia, high blood pressure, obesity, and hypoglycemia
C. Smoking, dyslipidemia, high blood pressure, and hypoglycemia

A

A. Dyslipidemia, high blood pressure, obesity, and high blood glucose

30
Q

Which of the following is considered an anti-inflammatory factor?
A. IL-1
B. TGF-β
C. IL-6

A

B. TGF-β

31
Q

Deficiency of what results in bleeding?

A

Vitamin K

32
Q

Which of the following changes occur in the brain due to aging?

A

Diffuse and uniform decrease in the white matter

33
Q

Laminated concretions of calcium and protein in giant cells are referred to as
A. Asteroid bodies
B. Schaumann bodies

A

B. Schaumann bodies

34
Q

Where are amyloid deposits found in the liver in amyloidosis?

A

Space of disse

35
Q

What is the most common cause of infarctions?

A

Thrombotic emboli

36
Q

What is a component of granulation tissue?

A

Capillaries

37
Q

What is the metaplastic change that occurs in Barrett’s esophagitis?

A

From squamous to columnar

38
Q

Grading of tumors is based on which of the following?
A. Cellular differentiation
B. The extent of the tumor

A

A. Cellular differentiation

39
Q

Which of the following triggers apoptosis when DNA repair fails?

A

P53

40
Q

Which of the following occurs as a result of metabolic acidosis?
A. Decreased P CO2
B. Increased HCO3
C. Alkaline urine

A

A. Decreased P CO2

41
Q

Which of the following is involved in sustaining proliferative signals (growth autonomy) in tumor cells?
A. RAS gene
B. BCL2

A

A. RAS gene

42
Q

Drugs A & B produce the same response. The amount of drug A that is needed to produce this response is more than that needed to produce it by drug B. Which of the following is true?

A

Drug B is more potent than A

43
Q

Which of the following is considered a major route for bio-metabolism of drugs?

A

Liver

44
Q

Which is considered a disadvantage of pharmacogenomics?

A

Increased legal issues

45
Q

The fraction of unchanged drug reaching the systemic circulation is known as

A

Bioavailability

46
Q

What is evidence of neurotransmitter transmission in a synapse?

A

Delayed transmission across the junction

47
Q

Which drug is used as a nasal decongestant?

A

α 1 agonist

48
Q

Which is the rate-limiting step in the synthetic pathway of noradrenaline?

A

Tyrosine->DOPA

49
Q

Which is used for the treatment of motor sickness?

A

Scopolamine

50
Q

Which of the following blocks neuronal uptake?

A

Cocaine

51
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Vinca alkaloids?

A

They inhibit the polymerization of tubulin

52
Q

Idiosyncratic drug interactions are usually explained by

A

Genetics

53
Q

What is the main cause of increased half-life of diazepam in elderly adults?
A. Decreased activity of Hepatic Cytochrome P450
B. Increased renal functions

A

A. Decreased activity of Hepatic Cytochrome P450

54
Q

Increasing acetylcholine level in a neuromuscular junction (Or in other words: using anticholinesterases e.g. neostigmine) would reverse the effect of which of the following?

A

Vecuronium

55
Q

Which of the following is used as an antidote for acetaminophen poisoning?

A

N. acetyl cysteine

56
Q

What signals low energy in the body?
A. Adiponectin
B. Glucagon

A

A. Adiponectin

57
Q 
What is the metabolic effect of increased consumption of monounsaturated fatty acids? 
A. Increased HDL & increased LDL
B. Increased HDL & decreased LDL 
C. Decreased HDL & increased LDL 
D. Decreased HDL & decreased LDL
A

C. Decreased HDL & increased LDL

58
Q

Which of the following is an artificial sweetener?

A

Aspartame

59
Q

A person was found to have low biotin levels. You would advise him to stop consuming which if the following?

A

Raw egg whites

Final Exams - 2nd year (31 decks)

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