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Foundations 1 > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

During mitosis: Cohesin loads? Cohesin dissocaties from arms? Remainder of Cohesin dissocaties?

A

Loads: at DNA replication (S Phase) Dissociates from arms: Prophase Dissociates from centromere: Anaphase

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2
Q

What is the q arm and p arm?

A

the q arm is the long arm of the chromosome and the p arm is the short arm of the chromosome

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3
Q

Does sickle cell anemia display allelic heterogeneity?

A

no, sickle cell anemia is caused by one specific mutation only

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4
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: 45, X What sex is this person?What type of aneuploidy is this an example of?

A

Turner Syndrome Type: Monosomy Fact: 85% missing paternal X

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5
Q

What can’t MLPA identify?

A

Nothing bigger than one gene, nothing smaller than one exon. nothing other than deletions/duplications

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6
Q

what is a synonymous mutation? How damaging are these?

A

mutation of a nucleotide that does not alter the amino acid that is coded for. Most likely has no effect

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7
Q

define robertsonian translocations

A

a translocation between two acrocentric chromosomes by fusion at the centromere

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8
Q

Define polyploidy

A

more than two sets of the haploid normal of chromosome (>2n)

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9
Q

what are hairpin loops? how are they formed?

A

a secondary structure formed by RNA in which the presence of palindromic sequences allows RNA to fold on itslef

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10
Q

Define centromere in intelligent terms

A

The central constriction of the chromosome at metaphase. Repetitive alpaha-satellite DNA (171 bp repeats) embedded in large region of preicentric heterochromatin

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11
Q

why is RNA unstable

A

2’-OH

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12
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: clinical features include intellectual disability, characteristic facial appearance, weak muscle tone, increased risk of developing gastroesophageal reflux, celiacs, hypothyroidism, leukemia

A

Trisomy 21 or Downs syndrome

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13
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: 47, XX, +21

A

Trisomy 21 in a female, downs syndrome

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14
Q

Define Kinetichore in intelligent terms

A

large complex of proteins that bind to centromeric chromatin. This is where microtubules of the mitotic spindle attach

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15
Q

What are four reasons for nonpenetrance?

A
  1. Sex specific: a male cant get ovarian cancer even int BRCA1/2 is mutated 2. Later age onset: HD 3. Environmental triggers 4. influence by modifier genes or polymorphisms
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16
Q

what is a centromere?

A

The point of a chromosome that is attached to the mitotic spindle complex

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17
Q

Is trisomy inherited or sporadic?

A

Sporadic

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18
Q

During Meiosis I cohesin loads where?

A

Along arms of paired homologues

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19
Q

Are reciprocal translocation bad for the carrier? gametes?

A

carrier will have normal genomic content but may have abnormal content in gametes after meiosis

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20
Q

Define null allele

A

a non-functional allele. The other allele may still be functional (A_)

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21
Q

Define submetacentric

A

chromosome in which centromere is slightly above the middle

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22
Q

what is the role of the MUTYH gene

A

Base excision repair gene that excises guanine when it is inapproptiately paired with 8-oxo. Loss (bi-allelic LOF) has been correlated with increased colon polyps (MAP) and increased risk for colon cancer

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23
Q

what disease does OI stand for?

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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24
Q

describe non-Watson-crick pairing of RNA. What does this allow RNA to do?

A

RNA bases (A U G C) can pair with any combination of bases as long as one nucleotide acts as a hydrogen donor and the other a hydrogen acceptor . this allows RNA to form tertiary structures

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25
Q

Describe monozygotic twins, how do they appear on a pedigree?

A

Identical twins, have almost identical DNA, appear on a pedigree with a line between the two symbols

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26
Q

What genetic alterations can array-CGH identify

A

detects genetic gains and losses. CNV: deletions, duplications. Chromosome gains and losses

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27
Q

What five assumptions are made in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium?

A

No migration, random mating, no selection, no mutations, only two alleles involved

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28
Q

Alkylating agents preferentially modify which nitrogenous base?

A

guanine

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29
Q

Are chromosomes more condensed during prophase or metaphase?

A

During metaphase, condensin doesn’t begin to accumulate until prophase and is not released until telophase

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30
Q

in what direction is RNA synthesized

A

5’ to 3’

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31
Q

Define chromatid:

A

Entire linear molecule of DNA and associated proteins. This is what is visible under a microscope.

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32
Q

what are limitations to FISH?

A

limited by availability of probe and knowledge of target sequence.

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33
Q

Define translocations

A

2 pieces of chromosomal material exchanged between non-homologous chromosomes

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34
Q

What are the three steps (and their temps) of PCR

A

Denature DNA: 95DC Primer annealing: 68DC Elongation w/ Taq polymerase: 72DC

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35
Q

The supercoiling of chromatids has what effect on the transcription of genes?

A

stops the transcription of genes

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36
Q

What wont fish detect?

A

UPD, methylation

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37
Q

Define polymorphism

A

the condition of occurring in several different forms

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38
Q

main fxn of golgi apparatus

A

modification, packaging, and sorting of proteins and lipids

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39
Q

What is meant by the statement “chromosome structure is fluid”

A

the structure of a chromosome changes depending on the activity of cells

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40
Q

What is the fate of a soluble ER Protein

A

translated completely into the ER lumen and destined for lumen of an organelle (ER, Golgi, endosome, lysosome)

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41
Q

Which sex chromosome trisomies are characterized with having no significant phenotype other than the potential for mild learning disabilities?

A

47, XXX (triple X syndrome)47, XYY

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42
Q

What does this mean: 46, XX,t(5:6)(q11.2;q23)

A

a diploid female had a reciprocal translocation invovling chromosome 5 and 6. chromosome 5 was broken at q11.2 and chromosome 6 was broken at q23

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43
Q

When (MI, MII, or mitosis) is nondisjunction most common? Does it occur more frequently on the maternal or paternal side?

A

Meiosis I >90% maternal origin

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44
Q

Define Nucleosome:

A

DNA coiled around a core of 8 histones (octamer)

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45
Q

how can a father not have OI but offspring from 2 different marriages do?

A

Germline mosaicism. Father has some normal cells (he will appear phenotypically normal), but cells within his body (sperm) have the mutation.

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46
Q

Loss of function mutations can result in what (2) types of product

A

absent product: null allele Reduced product

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47
Q

in what direction are proteins synthesized?

A

N to C-terminal

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48
Q

what is a polysome?

A

an mRNA that is being simultaneously translated by multiple ribosomes

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49
Q

What are some issues with whole exome sequencing?

A

reads only short segments of DNA at a time, error prone (results have to be verified)

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50
Q

what is a compound heterozygote?

A

a condition in which two partially functioning alleles exist

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51
Q

In terms of chromosome condensation and visibility is a karyotype obtained during metaphase, anaphase or prometaphase preferred?

A

the less condensed the better/more visible the banding. Therefore prometaphase is preferred.

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52
Q

how are ROS created? what percent of respiratory chain productivity are they?

A

byproduct of mitochondrial activity, 2%

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53
Q

What is a nonsense mutation? how harmful?

A

a change in nucleotide that results in a premature stop codon. Almost always harmful.

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54
Q

recombination vs. translocaiton

A

recombination occurs between two homologous chromosomes and translocation occurs between non-homologous chromosomes

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55
Q

How is cohesin released between chromatids? In what direction?

A

Released stepwise from arms to centromere

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56
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: 47, XY, +13

A

Trisomy 13 in a male, AKA Patau Syndrome

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57
Q

What are the three classifications of tandem repeats from largest repeat unit to smallest repeat unit

A

largest repeat unit: satellite minisatellite microsatellite

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58
Q

How effective is the DNA repair mechanisms in our bodies?

A

99% effective, it corrects/catches 99% of replication errors

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59
Q

Describe telomeres: role, location, composition

A

Located at ends of the chromosome, composed of repeating TTAGGG, prevents chromosomal shortening during DNA replication

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60
Q

What equations (2) are used in hardy weinberg equilibrium?

A
  1. p^2+2pq+q^2=1 2. p+q=1 where p is the dominant allele, q is the recessive allele, and pq is heterozygous.
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61
Q

Proteins translated at free ribosomes are destined for (4)

A

cytosol, nucleus, mitochondria, peroxisome

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62
Q

What are the three types of chromosome abnormalities?

A

numerical, structure, moasicism

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63
Q

What is osteogenesis imperfecta (OI)? Inheritance? GOF or LOF?

A

clinically heterogeneous (varying degree of severity) characterized by brittle bones due to a lack of collagen. Autosomal dominant inheritance. LOF

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64
Q

on a pedigree, what does a circle with the number “2” inside refer to?

A

2 females in the sibship, a shortcut for writing families with numerous siblings

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65
Q

What is type 2 OI caused by? How severe?

A

A mutation in the alpha 1 chain (inappropriate AA, mutation of glycine) that renders the majority of procollagen abnormal. More severe than type I.

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66
Q

is sickle cell anemia caused by a LOF or GOF mutation?

A

GOF: gain of new cell shape However, the new shape results in a net loss of red blood cell function. This is an example of a GOF mutation that is recessive.

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67
Q

Mitochondrial disease inheritance represents which type of inheritance?

A

X-linked because only the mother passes on mitochondria

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68
Q

What are three categories/types of aneuploidy? How are they denoted?

A

Monosomy: (2n-1), 45 chromosomes, one is missing Trisomy: (2n+1), 47 chromosomes, one extra chromosome Tetrasomy: (2n+2), 48 chromosomes, two extra

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69
Q

Define Nondisjucntion, what is it a cause of?

A

A cause of aneuploidy, failure of homologous chromosomes (MI) or sister chromatids (MII or Mitosis) to separate properly

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70
Q

Describe this person: 45, XY, -21

A

A male with only one chromosome 21

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71
Q

what does this mean: g.82_83delTG

A

a sequence obtained from genomic DNA (as in during exome sequencing) shows a deletion of nucleotides T and G originally at positions 82 and 83

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72
Q

What is mismatch repair?

A

Corrects replication errors in which the wrong base pair was incorporated during replication.

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73
Q

What are four causes of structural chromosome abnormalities?

A

recombination between nonhomologous chromosomes, dsDNA breaks within chromatids, telomere instability, centromere pair separates in wrong plane during meiosis

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74
Q

CGH stands for

A

Comparative genomic hybridization

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75
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: clinical features include severe physical and intellectual abnormalities, cleft lip, extra fingers or toes, small/underdeveloped eyes, only 5-10% live past first year

A

Trisomy 13 AKA Patau syndrome

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76
Q

alpha-satellite: where is it found, role, length of repeat

A

found at centromere of all chromosomes, binding site for centromeric proteins of mitosis (kinetichore), 171bp repeats

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77
Q

What genetic alterations can FISH idnetify (6)

A

deletions, inversions, translocations, duplications, mosaicisms, marker chromosomes

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78
Q

How does a ribosome know whether or not to translate the attached mRNA at the ER or in the cytosol?

A

Determined by ER signal sequence on N-terminal of newly translated protein. ER signal sequence=moves to ER. no ER signal sequnence means the ribosome stays in the cytosol

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79
Q

How is Huntington’s Disease inherited? What are symptoms?

A

Autosomal dominant. personality change, memory loss, series of motor problems including involuntary movement of arms and legs.

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80
Q

Define mosaicism

A

two or more genetically distinct cell lines within a person

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81
Q

What is the major/primary protein component of chromatin?

A

Histones

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82
Q

Role of BLM gene (dsDNA damage)

A

makes helicase that maintains structure and integrity of DNA

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83
Q

what does this mean: c.187delAG

A

A sequence obtained from cDNA shows that a deletion of A and G at the 187th nucleotide occurred

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84
Q

What are 5 types of DNA damage repair?

A

Nucleotide excision repair, base excision repair, mismatch repair, dsDNA break repair, ssDNA break repair

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85
Q

What is a synonymous SNP? Nonsynonymous?

A

Synonymous: a change in nucleotide that does not change the amino acid Nonsynonymous: a change in nucleotide that does change the amino acid

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86
Q

main fxn of lysosomes

A

intracellular degradation

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87
Q

Describe telomeric minisatellites: overall length, length and identity of repeats, function, replenished by? when are they replenished?

A

10-15 kb of tandem hexanucleotide repeats (TTAGGG), prevent shortening of chromosome during replication and when the telomeres are gone apoptosis occurs, replenished by telomerase until birth and in cancer cells.

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88
Q

What genetic alterations will MLPA identify?

A

small duplicaitons/deletions of 1 exon, multiple exons, or the entire gene

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89
Q

what is the combinatorial mechanism?

A

explains how different genes are turned on in different cells. Suggests that each promoter contains a specific sequence for specific transcription factors to bind before transcription will start

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90
Q

This syndrome is caused by triplet repeat expansion in the 5’UTR of mRNA and results in the X chromosome literally breaking in half

A

Fragile X syndrome

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91
Q

What are 4 endogenous sources of DNA damage?

A

depurination, deamination, ROS, replication process itslelf

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92
Q

What is the major difference between Meiosis I and Meiosis II in terms of cohesin? (Metaphase)

A

Meiosis I: during Metaphase I cohesin releases from homologous chromosomes but not from centromere Meiosis II: During metaphase II cohesin at centromere is released

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93
Q

what is RNA splicing?

A

the removal of introns in pre-RNA to create mature RNA that is only composed of exons. this occurs in mRNA, tRNA and rRNA

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94
Q

What occurs if protein complex protecting telomeres is lost?

A

apoptosis occurs

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95
Q

what does this represent: 46,XY/47,XY,+21

A

A female with mosaicism. Normal/Abnormal. this is a girl with mosaicism where some of her cells have an additional chromosome 21

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96
Q

What are loss of function mutations? Normal inheritance pattern?

A

mutation that results in reduced or no protein function. Normally recessive exception is OI

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97
Q

How do proteins enter the mitochondria?

A

Proteins destined for mitochondria have N-terminal sequence that binds import receptors–>import receptor brings protein to mitochondrial translocator–> mitochondrial translocator unwinds and threads protein through outer and inner mitochondrial membrane

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98
Q

What determines the final destination of proteins?

A

Signal sequences located on either the C of N-termini of newly translated proteins

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99
Q

Telomerase is present during (2)

A

germs cells, and neoplastic tissue

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100
Q

where is mRNA made? Processed?

A

in the nucleus

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101
Q

What is unequal crossing over?

A

a condition where homologous chromosomes receive unequal amounts of chromosome during meiosis

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102
Q

beta-satellite: where, length of repeat

A

found near centromeres and variable regions of chromosome 1, 9, Y and acrocentrics. 68bp repeats

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103
Q

thymine dimers are repaired by which DNA repair system

A

NER

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104
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy is best identified by which technique in molecular genetics?

A

MLPA, DMD is generally caused by a duplication or deletion of an exon

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105
Q

What is the role of nuclear import receptors

A

Attach to proteins (TFs) that display nuclear localization signal seqeunces and transport them into nuclues via cytosolic fibrils of nuclear pore

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106
Q

What are the 5 acrocentric chromosomes

A

13, 14, 15, 21, 22

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107
Q

Define mosaicism

A

cells within same person have a different genetic makeup

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108
Q

Genetic variability is responsible for what two characteristics between individuals?

A

Diversity and individuality

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109
Q

What is nucleotide excision repair? what types of DNA damage does it repair?

A

NER: removes lengths of nucleotides in order to repair bulky, helix distorting damage. A common damage is thymine dimers caused by UV radiation

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110
Q

what is a missense mutation? How damaging are these?

A

a mutation of a nucleotide that alters the amino acid that is coded for. Could have no effect, small effect, or harmful effect…more data needed

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111
Q

how is Base excision repair being exploited in cancer therapeutics?

A

slowing down BER permits more disruption by chemotherapy’s induction of DNA damage

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112
Q

What does this mean: p.Phe134Leufs*51

A

refers to a protein where Phe at position 134 was changed to Leu…this frame shift created a stop codon 51 codons down.

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113
Q

Where are proteins always initially translated

A

The cytosol

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114
Q

proteins translated at ER-bound ribosomes are destined for (5)

A

ER, Golgi, endosomes, lysosomes, cell surface

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115
Q

What is base excision repair? What specific types of DNA damage will it repair?

A

repairs damage to single nitrogenous base. Ex: repairs purine loss, 8-oxo-guanine bases

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116
Q

Describe the process of whole exome sequencing

A

only sequences exons. Genomic DNA is fragmented–>fragments are bridge amplified (just another form of amplification)–>sequencing primers are added and sequenced using reversibly terminating nucleotides–>laser identifies the dNTP that was added to DNA strand

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117
Q

What is Swyer syndrome? what causes it?

A

Syndrome in which males (46, XY) develop external female sex characteristics. Caused by mutation in SRY TF on Y chromosome that in which the TF lacks a nuclear localization signal sequence

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118
Q

What is the relationship between centrosome, centromere, microtubules, and kinetichore

A

The kinetichore assembles at the centromere of chromosomes. The kinetichore is the attachment point of microtubules that originate from the centrosome at either pole of the cell during metaphase/anaphase

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119
Q

What is the percentage of genetic difference between individual humans?

A

0.3%. We are 99.6-99.9% identical

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120
Q

Describe Heterochromatin: packing? location? replicate late or early?

A

Condensed, located at centromeres, inactive loci and inactive X, late-replicating DNA.

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121
Q

what is clinical heterogeneity

A

diseases with very different phenotypes that are caused by mutations in the same gene

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122
Q

Describe the mitochondrial genome: Shape, copies/mitochondrion, genes, mutation rate, presence of introns/exons

A

Mitochondrial DNA is circular, each mitochondrion contains 5-10 copies of the circular DNA, 37 genes (rRNA, tRNA, 13 ox phos genes), high rate of mutations, no introns

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123
Q

Uniparental Disomy:

A

both chromosomes come from same parent

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124
Q

Aflotoxin B1 and tobacco polycyclic aromatic hydrocabons are examples of…

A

cancer causing agents

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125
Q

What is cDNA

A

double stranded DNA made from single stranded RNA using reverse transcriptase

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126
Q

Copy number variants/aberrations:

A

gain or loss of genetic material that can include the addition or absence of entire homologs of something much smaller

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127
Q

Main fxn of nuclues

A

contains genome, site of RNA and DNA synthesis

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128
Q

Achondroplasia: what is it? inheritance? GOF/LOF? MOA?

A

Dwarfism. Autosomal dominant. GOF. fibroblast growth receptor gene is mutated such that it is always turned on and always inhibiting bone growth.

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129
Q

What proteins are involved with mismatch repair, what are their 2 general role?

A

Two protein complexes: MLH1/PMS2; MSH2/MSH–>recognize mismatches and signal additional repair machinery

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130
Q

describe this person: 46, XX

A

A female with a normal number of chromosomes

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131
Q

what are the gates in which molecules enter or leave the nucleus

A

nuclear pores

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132
Q

What is a frame shift mutation? how harmful?

A

a change in nucleotide such that the reading frame for codons is shifted. Almost always harmful

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133
Q

Describe the range in severity of mosaicism

A

Phenotype may be mild depending on distribution of abnormal cells, and in general it is more mild the later mosaicism develops

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134
Q

How many bp in the human genome?

A

3x10^9 bp

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135
Q

What is non-penetrance

A

a mutation without a phenotype

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136
Q

Main fxn of ER

A

synthesis of most lipids; site of protein production and distribution to many organells

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137
Q

contrast becker muscular dystrophy with DMD

A

BMD is a milder form of DMD. Dystrophin gene is mutated in both. Dystrophin is absent in DMD and reduced/truncated in BMD

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138
Q

What is a cis-acting element

A

short stretch of DNA sequence that signals a specific protein to bind. Enhancer, silcencer and promoters all contain cis-acting elements

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139
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy: inheritance, how common, cause, gene involved

A

X-linked inheritance, most common X-linked disorder in man, caused by deletions (2/3), point mutations/insertions (1/3) in the dystrophin gene

140
Q

How can triploidy occur (2)?

A

fertilization of ovum by two sperm or error in maternal meiosis II

141
Q

What are some (4) types of structural abnormalities undergone by chromosomes?

A

Inversions, insertions, deletions, duplications

142
Q

what is codon degeneracy?

A

one AA is coded for by multiple codons

143
Q

What is the importance of the post-translational modifications of histones?

A

Histones can be modified to more tightly (gene silencing) or loosely (gene activation) associate with DNA

144
Q

role of FANC genes (dsDNA damage)

A

locate dsDNA damage and triggers repair

145
Q

The accumulation of condensin is triggered by what molecule?

A

CDK1, a M-phase promoting factor

146
Q

Microsatellite DNA: length of repeats, locations, problems that arise due to these

A

Short tandem repeats (STRs) of 1-4 bp, occur in coding and noncoding regions throughout chromosomes, hotspots for mutation due to slippage during replication

147
Q

What is formed when guanine is attacked by ROS? why is this bad?

A

8-oxoguanine is formed. this is as likely to pair with A as with C

148
Q

Main fxn of Cytosol

A

contains metabolic pathways, ribosomes, cytoskeleton

149
Q

What is type I OI caused by? How severe?

A

patients only have half the normal amount of alpha 1 chains to make collagen (null allele). The least severe type of OI

150
Q

define aneuploidy

A

presence of abnormal number of chromosome in a cell (not exact multiple of n)

151
Q

What is haploinsufficiency? What disease do we see it in?

A

A condition in which a person is missing one allele of a gene and the remaining allele is not sufficient to produce the normal wt condition. This is seen in osteogenesis imperfecta where a null allele weakens bones.

152
Q

What is chorea?

A

involuntary movement of arms and legs, seen in HD

153
Q

What is collagen I composed of?

A

Two alpha 1 and one alpha 2 chains that form a triple helix (procollagen)

154
Q

At what point in the cell cycle does condensin release from the chromosome?

A

Condensin is released after anaphase and the chromosomes relax

155
Q

What is unique about Turner Syndrome?

A

This is the only viable monosomy; an autosomal or 45, y mosonomy is not viable

156
Q

where are ORF and UTR located?

A

These regions are on MATURE mRNA. The open reading frame is what is translated into protein and this is surrounded by a 5’ and 3’ untranslated region that is not translated

157
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: 47, XXYWhat sex is this person?what type of aneuploidy?

A

Klinefelters syndrome, male, trisomy of sex chromosome

158
Q

What does this mean: 45, XX, der(14;22)(q10;q10)

A

A female with 45 chromosomes due to a robertsonian translocation where the short arm of 14 and 22 stuck together to form a derivative chromosome (der(14;22)).becuase the translocation occurred at the centromere the location is q10;q10

159
Q

How does heterochromatin and euchromatin appear after G-banding?

A

Heterochromatin: darkly stained Eurchromatin: lightly stained

160
Q

Define chromosome morphology

A

Shapes and appearance of chromosome in condensed state

161
Q

How can chromosomes be distinguished in a lab?

A

each chromosome has a distinct banding pattern that can be seen under a microscope after staining

162
Q

what is a DNA silencer

A

a section of DNA (distance, location and orientation independent) that decreases transcription of a gene

163
Q

If a protein lacks a signal sequence what is its fate?

A

remains in cytoplas

164
Q

Role of condensin proteins

A

Cause ATP-dependent supercoiling of chromatids which is essential for chromosomal assembly and segregation. this also makes chromosomes visible under microscope

165
Q

are there individuals that are homozygous for achondroplasia?

A

no. this state is lethal. would result in no bone growth.

166
Q

what is more common, LOF or GOF mutations?

A

LOF is more common. GOF requires a very specific mutation in a specific location

167
Q

Define acrocentric

A

chromosome in which centromere is near the tip

168
Q

How many pairs of chromosomes are in the human genome? How many pairs of autosomes? Pairs of sex chromosomes?

A

23 pairs total (46 chromosomes)22 pairs of autosomes1 pair of sex chromosomes

169
Q

main function of endosomes

A

sorting of endocytosed materials

170
Q

Contrast role of cohesin vs. Condensin

A

Cohesin: Holds homologous chromosomes or sister chromatids together Condensin: Supercoils chromatids, essential for chormosomal assembly and segragation

171
Q

what modification occur to produce mature mRNA

A

removal of introns, addition of 5’ CAP and 3’ poly A tail (these two are added after mRNA is synthesized

172
Q

what is allelic heterogeneity

A

term used to describe the fact that multiple different mutations in the same allele can cause a single disorder

173
Q

Describe MLPA

A

a genetic technique that uses multiple probes to hybridize to a single exon–> if all probes bind then they will ligate together–>each ligated probe is amplified with pcr–>fragment analysis (compared to a control) reveals if the probe was absent (deletion), present (normal), or in abundance (duplication)

174
Q

Marker chromosome:

A

an abnormal chromosome that is distinctive in appearance but not fully identified

175
Q

CNVs are responsible for ___% of variaiton in gene expression among individuals

A

17%

176
Q

What are tandem repeats? in what region of DNA are they most commonly found?

A

pattern repeated one after another, directly adjacent. Most commonly found in noncoding regions of DNA

177
Q

name this chromosomal abnormality: clinical features include small testes (with correlated testosterone decrease), gynocomastia (breast enlargement), reduced facial and body hair, infertility, micropenis

A

Klinefelters syndrome…

178
Q

What type of errors are fixed by mismatch repair

A

replication errors caused by random mismatched nucleotides or microsatellites

179
Q

What is the most common trisomy? what are other types (3)

A

Most common: Trisomy 16 (SAb) not viable, leads to loss of child. Other: Trisomy 21, 18, 13 (these are all viable)

180
Q

When does condensin begin to accumulate during mitosis?

A

During prophase the chromosomes begin to condense

181
Q

Define triploidy

A

3n, most common form of polyploidy, a condition in which an indiviual has 3 sets of the haploid number of chromosomes (69, XXX)

182
Q

What does this mean: p. Gly796*

A

refers to a protein where codon 796 was changed from Gly to a stop codon.

183
Q

What is the primary cause of genetic variability between individuals?

A

repeated elements

184
Q

Cytoxan and platinum compounds are used to fight cancer, why?

A

Stops DNA replication preventing cancer cells from dividing

185
Q

what is locus heterogenity

A

term used to describe the fact that mutations in different genes in the same pathway can cause the same disease

186
Q

What are two ways that De Novo CNVs can arise?

A

homologous recombination errors, or replication errors

187
Q

Dystrophin gene; role, chromosome location, size of protein

A

Role: protects STRIATED muscle membranes from damage, found on Xp21, 430 kDa protein

188
Q

trinucleotide repeats are a type of…

A

microsatellites

189
Q

What is a proband?

A

the person who is being studied on a pedigree. an arrow points to this individual on a pedigree

190
Q

In what direction do ribosomes read mRNA

A

5’ to 3’

191
Q

Minisatellite DNA: length of repeats, location?

A

variable number tandem repeats (VNTR) of 10-100bp, found at telomeres (ends of chromosomes)

192
Q

CNVs play what role in humans?

A

play role in function of special senses, role in diseases such as cancer, autism, schizophrenia etc

193
Q

What is the basic steps involved in performing a karyotype

A

cells are cultured–>colchicine is used to arrest cells in metaphase–>a hypotonic solution is added–> cells are dropped on slide and stained–>microscopic analysis

194
Q

Why are histones important?

A

Needed for compaction of chromatin

195
Q

For individuals with turner syndrome, what explains their skin folds at the base of their neck?

A

These individuals once suffered from cystic hygroma, a condition in which the thoracic duct could not drain and fluid accumulated in this region. Once the thoracic duct was able to drain the lymph drained, but the skin folds remained

196
Q

what is FISH

A

a specific genetic test in which a fluorescently labeled probe is hybridized to DNA

197
Q

What percent of all pregenencies and newborns are structural abnormalities seen?

A

0.9%

198
Q

How do human populations break the rules of hardy-weinberg equilibrium? (4)

A
  1. consanguinity: inbreeding breaks concept of random mating 2. Genetic drift/founder effect: breaks rule of no migration 3. Biological fitness: those who are carrier of sickle cell (HbS) are resistant to malaria and therefore have improved fitness 4. Mutation rate: new mutations are occurin
199
Q

Sanger sequencing can be used to identify which genetic alterations?

A

Small alterations in DNA: point mutations–>missense, splice site, nonsense, and silent mutations

200
Q

what does MLPA stand for

A

Multiplex Ligation Probe Amplification (a technique in molecular genetics)

201
Q

Triplet expansion in coding regions of mRNA tend to code for which AA?

A

glutamine

202
Q

Define reciprocal translocaiton

A

an exchange of chromosomal material between two or more nonhomologous chromosomes

203
Q

by what factor is a chromosome condensed due to condensin?

A

about 10,000x

204
Q

What are SNPs

A

Single nucleotide polymorphisms: a change in a nucleotide that occurs in at least 1% of the population. The change does not necesarrily have to correlate with a change in phenotype

205
Q

what is the role of miRNA

A

regulate amount of protein produced

206
Q

Why do some cancer therapies inhibit ssDNA repair processes?

A

in some cases when dsDNA damage repair is lost (loss of BRCA1/2), if you remove a cells ability to repair ssDNA the cell will die. good to kill cancer cells

207
Q

a developmental disorder caused by a deletion of genetic material from a specific region of chromosome 7, delayed speech, developmental delay, feeding issues, cocktail personality (very talkative and verbal), unique faces

A

williams Syndrome

208
Q

What genetic alterations wont array-CHG detect?

A

balanced rearrangements, changes smaller than 20kb, UPD, methylations

209
Q

What is a DNA enhancer

A

a section of DNA (distance, location and orientation independent) that increases transcription of a gene

210
Q

what is a benefit of whole exome sequencing?

A

can be used to look at a number of related genes at the same time

211
Q

Role of BRCA1/2 gene (dsDNA repair). initiated by (2)?

A

repair dsDNA breaks, initiated by FANC genes and ATM gene

212
Q

What is the difference between SNPs and mutations?

A

SNPs are common in population and mutations are rare genetic events

213
Q

What are the two type of chromatin

A

Euchromatin and Heterochromatin

214
Q

Sanger sequencing is not effective in testing for…(2)

A

larger alterations, only looks at exons

215
Q

Define cytogenic

A

inheritance in relation to structure and function of chromosomes

216
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: clinical features include skin folds at base of neck, early loss of ovarian function, low hairline at base of neck, swelling of hands of feet (lymphedema), normal intelligence

A

Turner Syndrome

217
Q

How do microsatellites disrupt replication/transcription machinery?

A

replication slippage, transcription machinery loses track, which can lead to insertions or deletions of repeat units

218
Q

Describe G-banding of chromosomes

A

Trypsin is used to to partially digest histones, this relaxes the nucleosome coils, and a stain can bind naked DNA

219
Q

What is the relevance of individuality in medicine (3)?

A

differences in disease susceptibility, response to therapeutics, and toxicity from therapeutics

220
Q

What well known disease is caused by triplet expansion in a coding region of DNA?

A

Huntington’s Disease (polyglutamine expansion)

221
Q

what is the role of tandem repeats in unequal crossing over?

A

crossing over sites are generally areas of tandemly repeated DNA. if the homologous chromosomes do not match up properly, due to tandem repeats, unequal crossing over can occur

222
Q

Contrast a normal chromosome to a huntington’s chromosome

A

Normal: 10-30 CAG (Glutamine) repeats Huntington’s: triplet repeat expansion 36-121 CAG repeats

223
Q

How are chromatids joined? what is the molecule?

A

Cohesin

224
Q

What is the fate of a ER membrane protein

A

Destined to resid in the plasma membrane or in the membrane of an organelle (Golgi, endosome, lysosome, ER)

225
Q

If type 2 OI is lethal, why doesn’t isnt the allele gone/phased out?

A

Germline mosaicism

226
Q

What are copy number variations? what type of genetic alterations do they include?

A

CNV: variation in the number of copies of one or more sections of DNA. Includes deletions or duplications of genetic material

227
Q

Why do triplet repeat expansion diseases exhibit anticipation?

A

triplet repeats tend to expand (replication errors), and it has been found that in some repeats the expansion leads to worsening disorders with unstable chromosomes

228
Q

How common is turner syndrome?

A

1/2,500 briths

229
Q

individuals with Xerederma pigmentosum are unable to perform what type of DNA repair?

A

NER

230
Q

Role of ATM gene (dsDNA damage)

A

signals repair process

231
Q

Define sister chromatids

A

DNA strands after replication but still joined

232
Q

During meiosis II, where is cohesin found?

A

only between centromeres of sister chromatids

233
Q

define sibship

A

group of offspring having same 2 parents

234
Q

69, XXX is an example of…

A

triploidy

235
Q

What is chromatin?

A

DNA/protein complex that makes up chromosomes

236
Q

What is a specific disorder that array-CGH can identify?

A

Williams syndrome (a deletion in a region of chromosome 7)

237
Q

Who is typically affected by X-linked disorders?

A

males

238
Q

What is this?

A

Chromatin supercoiling around condensin

239
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: 47, XY, +18

A

Trisomy 18 in a male

240
Q

What is the fucntion of mitochondrial protein translocators?

A

unwind and thread proteins destined for the mitochondrial past outer and inner mitochondrial membrane

241
Q

how does achondroplasia arise?

A

80-90% de novo mutations that are exclusively in paternal germline.

242
Q

How can TFs exhibit dominant negative mutations?

A

if a mutation occurs where the DNA binding domain remains, but the activation/functional domain is removed

243
Q

What is a copy # array-CGH

A

a comparative technique in molecular genetics where labeled patient DNA and control DNA compete to hybridize to a microarray slide.

244
Q

on a pedigree, what does a square with the number 2 outside generally refer to?

A

refers to the age of the individual, in this case a 2 yr old male

245
Q

How do numerical chromosomal abnormalities arise (2)?

A

errors in meiotic separation at metaphase, errors in fertilization

246
Q

Deamination generally occurs in which n-base? what is the result

A

deamination of cytosine forms uracil

247
Q

When is cohesin employed to hold chromatids together?

A

from S phase until metaphase/anaphase

248
Q

Define metacentric

A

chromosome in which the centromere is roughly in the middle

249
Q

What is the difference between ER and free ribosomes?

A

nothing, they are identical, their location depends on the mRNA they are translating

250
Q

Mosaicism involves mitosis, meiosis, or both?

A

Mitosis

251
Q

what is a trans-acting factor

A

protein factor that binds to the cis-acting factor (TFs)

252
Q

Name this chromosomal abnormality: clinical features include abnormal ears that are rotated posteriorly, relatively large head with small features, unusual position of fingers with overlapping 2nd and 5th digits, only 5-10% will live past their first year of life

A

Trisomy 18

253
Q

What are gain of function mutations? normal inheritance patter?

A

mutations that result in a unregulated function in the same pathway or a novel function in a different pathway. usually dominant inheritance.

254
Q

Contrast chimericism and mosaicism

A

Chimericism: results when two eggs are fertilized by two different sperm and then the zygotes fuse. The person will have equal amounts of two different DNA sets Mosaicism: a normal zygote is formed (1 sperm, 1 egg) but a mutation arises somewhere along the road which results in cells having different DNA

255
Q

Define: Heteroplasmy

A

A mitochondrial form of mosaicism where mitochondria within the same cell have different DNA

256
Q

What is the clinical presentation of duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

delayed motor development, weakness in striated muscles (skeletal, cardiac), pseudohypertrophy of the calf

257
Q

What is role of the signal recognition particle (in regards to the ER membrane)

A

a SRP recognizes the ER signal sequence of newly translated proteins and directs ribosome to SRP receptor on the membrane of the ER. A protein translocator then threads the protein into ER lumen

258
Q

Describe Euchromatin: what percent of genome? Packing? Transcription?

A

92% of genome, lightly packed, often under active transcription

259
Q

What is the most common type of variation in the human genome? What percent of variation in gene expression is this responsible for?

A

SNPs (responsible for 83% of of variation in gene expression among individuals)

260
Q

Define Consanguinity, how is it denoted on a pedigree

A

“with blood”, when a couple is related, denoted by two horizontal lines joining a couple in a pedigree

261
Q

What are two type of exogenous DNA damage?

A

UV radiation, alkylating agents

262
Q

Define anticipation

A

occurence of a genetic disease at an earlier age of onset or with an increasing severity in successive generations

263
Q

A signal sequence with many hydrophobic residues is destined for…

A

import into the ER (Leu, Val, Gly, Ile, Phe)

264
Q

how do structural chromosome abnormalities occur?

A

errors in crossing over

265
Q

main function of peroxisomes

A

oxidation of toxic materials

266
Q

What genetic alterations will cytogenic testing (karyotyping) identify (6)? Which will they not (3)?

A

Will: Anueploidy, translocations, inversions, deletions, duplications, mosaicisms Wont: methylation, uniparental disomy, any change smaller than 5Mb

267
Q

what is “de novo”

A

new

268
Q

A signal sequence with many positively charged residues is destined for the…

A

import into the nucleus (Lys, Arg)

269
Q

what is a DNA promoter

A

a section of DNA that is located immediately upstream of transcription start site and acts as a switch that turns on/off transcription

270
Q

Achondroplasia would best be diagnosed using which technique in molecular genetics?

A

Sangar sequencing (arises due to a point mutation)

271
Q

What affect on meiosis can chromosomal structural abnormalities have?

A

can affect pairing (metaphase I) during meiosis depending on how big a piece is missing, added or inverted

272
Q

What does this mean: p.Glu6Val

A

refers to a protein structure variant. glutamic acid of codon 6 was changed to valine

273
Q

In what instances (2) will a female be affected by an X-linked disease?

A
  1. X-autosome translocation: this autosome will no longer be randomly inactivated because the autosome must be expressed 2. a case of 90:10 X-inactivation which is rare but possible.
274
Q

What is a dominant negative mutation (LOF)? Ex?

A

heterozygous alleles, mutant allele produces a protein product that loses own function and interferes with the product of the normal allele. Ex: osteogenesis imperfect (type II)

275
Q

Describe dizygotic twins, how do they appear on a pedigree?

A

fraternal twins, can have same sex or different sex, appear on a pedigree as a single branch without a horizontal line connecting them

276
Q

what is a holoprotein

A

a protein with an attached prosthetic group

277
Q

what is a prosthetic group. What prosthetic group does Hb and Mb contain?

A

something that attaches to a protein and is NOT a protein (heme)

278
Q

Contrast hemoglobin and myoglobin. Composition? Funtion

A

Mb: a monomer, storage of oxygen (especially in skeletal muscle) Hb: a tetramer. transport of oxygen

279
Q

What is the funciton of heme?

A

to reversibly bind oxygen

280
Q

What is the composition of heme?

A

contains a porphyrin ring (with 4 nitrogen atoms) that bind an Fe2+ atom

281
Q

Describe the proximal histidine of Mb and Hb

A

the proximal his of Mb and Hb subunits is sterically repelled by the porphyrin ring of heme. The iron center of heme binds to the proximal histidine and as a result the Fe is pulled above the plane of the ring. When oxygen binds Fe the iron is pulled back into place causing movement in the helix that contains the proximal His

282
Q

How is CO naturally made in our bodies?

A

as a byproduct of heme biosynthesis.

283
Q

Why is CO bad?

A

CO binds 300 fold more tightly to Mb or Hb than oxygen does

284
Q

What is the normal amount of Hb bound to CO in our bodies?

A

~1.5%

285
Q

What is our bodies defense against CO poisoning?

A

ligands that bind heme of Hb and Mb are forced to bind in a bent fashion. This is normal for O2 but not for CO

286
Q

How many hemes are in Mb

A

one

287
Q

How is the proximal His denoted (2 ways)

A

HIs 87 or His F8

288
Q

What protein subunits comprise Hb?

A

A tetramer made of 2 alpha subunits and 2 beta subunits. known as a dimer of dimers (alpha-beta and alpha-beta)

289
Q

What is the Kd of Hb? what does this mean?

A

3 mmHg. this is the concentration of oxygen to give half saturation of Mb. Kd=[Mb][O2]/[MbO2]

290
Q

What are the two confirmational states of Hb? what are their oxygen affinities?

A

T state: low oxygen affinity R state: high oxygen affinity

291
Q

Deoxy Hb prefers which state?

A

T state (low oxygen affinity)

292
Q

Oxy Hb prefers which state?

A

R state (high oxygen affinity)

293
Q

How many molecules of oxygen will Hb bind?

A

4

294
Q

what is the likelihood of Hb being in the T state when no oxygen are bound?

A

10,000X more likely to be in T than R

295
Q

What is the likelihood of Hb being in the T state when 1 oxygen is bound?

A

100X more likely to be in T than R

296
Q

what is the likelihood of Hb being in the T state when 2 oxygens are bound?

A

50% will be in T and 50% will be in R

297
Q

what is the likelihood of Hb being in the R state when 3 oxygens are bound?

A

100X more likely to be in R than T

298
Q

what is the likelihood of Hb being in the R state when 4 oxygens are bound?

A

10,000X more likely to be in R than T

299
Q

What is the basis for the confirmational changes seen in Hb when oxygen binds?

A

When oxygen binds to a iron atom of heme it moves back into the plane of the porphyrin ring and pulls the proximal histidine with it. this movement translates quaternary confirmational changes between subunits that chang oxygen affinity.

300
Q

during confirmational changes of Hb, what subunits move/change interactions?

A

alpha1-beta1 and alpha2-beta2 subunits/dimers DO NOT move (interactions are too strong). a1a2, a1b2,a2b1 subunits do move/change interaction/change conformation. b1b2 interactions are too weak to change structure.

301
Q

order the strengths of subunit interactions seen in Hb

A

a1b1=a2b2>a1a2>a1b2=a2b1>b1b2

302
Q

What interactions stabilize the a1b2 interface of the T state (Hb)

A

His beta 146 and Lys alpha 40

303
Q

what interaction stabilizes the a1a2 interface of the T state (Hb)?

A

HIs alpha 122 and Asp alpha 126

304
Q

how does the Hb tetramer change as a whole from the T state to the R state

A

a 15 degree rotation of the ab dimers occurs from the T state to the R state with alpha subunits moving further apart and the B subunits moving closer together

305
Q

What is an allosteic inhibitor?

A

binds a site other than the active site

306
Q

Allosteric inhibitors of Hb stabilize which state?

A

T-state (decrease Hb affinity for oxygen, more oxygen is unloaded)

307
Q

What affect does a decrease in pH have on Hb binding of oxygen

A

favors the T (deoxy) state, more oxygen is unloaded

308
Q

what affect does a increase in 2,3-BPG have on Hb binding of oxygen

A

an increase in BPG (as seen with an increase in altitude) favors the T (deoxy) state and more oxygen is unloaded

309
Q

what are three allosteric effectors of Hb?

A

pH, 2,3-BPG, CO2

310
Q

what affect does a increase in pCO2 have on Hb binding of oxygen

A

an increase in CO2 favors the T (deoxy) state whcih causes more oxygen o be unloaded

311
Q

What is the Bohr effect

A

the effect of pH on the oxygen affinity of Hb

312
Q

What explains the acid bohr effect?

A

the T (deoxy) state has a greater affinity for protons than the R state (certain AA residues mainly His have greater affinities for H due to specific interactions present in the T state)

313
Q

in addition to O2, Hb also transports what?

A

proton and CO2

314
Q

Hb is in what state in the lungs? tissues?

A

Lungs: R (oxy) state Tissues: T (deoxy) state

315
Q

Where does 2,3-BPG come from

A

derived from 1,3-BPG one of the few metabolic pathways (glycolysis) remaining in a mature erythrocyte

316
Q

what is an erythrocyte

A

mature RBC

317
Q

What is the shorterm physiological adjustment to high altitudes?

A

substantial increase in intra-erythrocyte concentration of BPG

318
Q

where does BPG bind Hb?

A

in a cleft between two beta subunits that has an abundance of positive charges to neutralize the negative BPG

319
Q

why is is problematic that stored blood decreases in BPG concentration?

A

as BPG drops, Hb holds onto its oxygens more tightly, this wont help patients who need RBCs to deliver oxygen

320
Q

what is the function of inosine

A

inosine is used to replenish BPG in stored blood becuase it can be taken up by RBCs (BPG cant pass the membrane), and converted to BPG

321
Q

How does Hb transport CO2? does this favor T or R state

A

the N-termini of both alpha and beta subunits are carbamoylated (essentially a carboxylic acid is added to N-termini), this stabillizes the T state over the R state

322
Q

what percent of CO2 is transported by Hb?

A

20%

323
Q

alpha2 beta2 is what type of Hb? seen in?

A

HbA. see in adults (normal Hb)

324
Q

HbA2 is seen in?

A

this is a minor adult form of Hb

325
Q

HbF is seen in? Role?

A

this is fetal Hb. has i higher affinifty for Oxygen and ensures the fetus is supplied oxygen (alpha2 gamma2)

326
Q

what chromosome are alpha-globin sequences found?

A

chromosome 16

327
Q

what chromosome are beta-globin sequences found?

A

chromosome 11

328
Q

myoglobin folding most closely resembles the folding of which subunit of Hb?

A

beta

329
Q

what is an alpha thalassemia?

A

a lack of the alpha subunit of Hb which decreases total Hb

330
Q

what is a beta thalassemia?

A

a lack of the beta subunit of Hb which decreases total Hb

331
Q

describe thalassemia in heterozygous individuals?

A

the affected subunit (alpha or beta) is present in significantly lower levels than normal (>50%,

332
Q

how do we compensate for thalassemias?

A

our bodies will express fetal or embryonic subunits in an upregulated form to help compensate

333
Q

how many copies of the alpha-globin gene do we have? What type of mutation alter these?

A

4 copies, 2 copies on each chromosome 16. Deletions!

334
Q

If 1 out of the 4 alpha globin copies is muated, what are the effects

A

silent carrier, asymptomatic

335
Q

if 2 of the 4 alpha globin gene copies is mutated, what are the effects?

A

alpha-thalassemia trait; reduced mean cell volume, mild anemia

336
Q

if 3 of the 4 alpha-globin gene copies is mutated, what are the effects?

A

Hemoglobin H disease; detectable levels of Beta tetramers (dont work well), moderate anemia, not lethal

337
Q

if all copies of the alpha-globin gene are mutated, what are the effects?

A

Hemoglobin barts; no oxygen carrying capacity; neonatal (newborn) death (gamma chain tetramers that done function)

338
Q

Beta thalassemia: how many mutations lead to it. Types of mutations?

A

-over 100 different mutations. promoter mutations, splice site mutatoins, missense mutations (result in a decrease in beta subunits, of varying degrees)

339
Q

What is clinical heterogeneiy

A

a disease with varying degrees of severity

340
Q

what are some symptoms of major beta-thalassemia?

A

Cooley’s Anemia: transfusion-dependent, infants are pale and listless (unenergetic), enarged spleen, liver and hear, deformed bones

341
Q

Heinz body hemolytic anemias: cause of disease, effect

A

caused by severeal different point mutations that do not alter beta subunit number but make the subunit unstable. and degrade Hb

342
Q

what casues sickle cell anemia (HbSS)

A

a single point mutation (on chromosome 11) that causes an amino acid change from glutamate (charged) to valine (nonpolar) at position 6 of the beta subunit

343
Q

Hemoglobin C: what is it casued by. what are the effects?

A

a change in the same amino acid that causes sickle cell but this time it is a Glu6Lys (negative charged AA to positive charged AA). Results in premature lysis of RBCs

344
Q

HbSC, HbSS, HbCC

A

HbSC; one allele has C mutation, the other allele has S mutation; often milder than HbSS HbSS: traditional sickle cell, both alleles have S mutation HbCC: both alleles have C mutaion, mild anemia due to moderate reduction in red blood cell lifespan

345
Q

Describe glycosylation of Hb

A

glucose in blood can bind to exposed amino groups and form glycosylated proteins. This can be used as a diagnostic for diabetes (HbA1c) and does not impact function of Hb

346
Q

What is the role of dystrophin?

A

a protein that connects the cytoskeleton of muscle fibers to the extracellular matrix

Foundations 1 (65 decks)

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