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Qbanks > w/c 29/01 > Flashcards

w/c 29/01 Flashcards

1
Q

whats the most common physical health complication in children w downs syndrome?

A

congenital cardiac abnomrmality

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2
Q

what is the most common congenital cardiac abnormality in children with downs syndrome?

A

atrioventricular septal defect

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3
Q

what ix confirms diagnosis of CF

A

chloride sweat test

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4
Q

what ix is done in neonates to screen for CF and whats the result of it

A

neonatal blood spot test, raised immunoreactive tripsinogen is found in CF

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5
Q

what is given for RSV/bronchiolitis prophylaxis?

A

pavilizumab

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6
Q

how do you treat neonatal jaundice that is within 50 micromoles/L of treatment threshold?

A

admit and recheck levels in 18 hrs

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7
Q

what pulse do you check for in an unresponsive child under the age of 1?

A

brachial

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8
Q

what is the first step in asthma management when a child first presents

A

start SABA and very low dose ICS

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8
Q

whats the most common congenital heart defect in those with Turner’s syndrome? what is often associated with?

A

bicuspid aortic valve, associated with coarctation of the aorta

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9
Q

what murmur does ventricular septal defect cause and where is it best auscultated?

A

pansystolic murmur
heard best over the lower left sternal edge

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9
Q

what murmur does atrial septal defect cause, what is heard and where is it best auscultated?

A

ejection systolic murmur
first heart sound normal, wide fixed splitting of second heart sound
heard best over upper left sternal edge

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10
Q

what is seen on otoscopy in acute otitis media?

A

a bulging tympanic membrane

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11
Q

what organism causes acute epiglottits?

A

h.influenzae

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12
Q

at what age can a child provide legal consent to have sex?

A

13

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13
Q

what are the 3 main deficiencies in someone with bone marrow failure?

A

anaemia
neutropenia
thrombocytopenia

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14
Q

what are some RF for DDH?

A

female
first born
breech

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15
Q

describe the course of symptoms in someone presenting with measles?

A
  1. high fever and coryzal sx
  2. conjunctivitis 2-5 days after sx onset
  3. followed by a macropapular rash starting on face behind ears and spreading downwards
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16
Q

what is a pathognomonic for measles?

A

koplik spots

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17
Q

what sign is seen on x ray for acute epiglottitis?

A

thumb or thumbprint (lateral x ray)

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18
Q

what is seen on blood film with G6PD deficiency?

A

heinz bodies and red cell fragments

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19
Q

what medicates trigger acute haemolysis in g6pd deficiency?

A

sulphonylureas
ciprofloxacin
nitrofurantoin

20
Q

what do you need to do if someone has meningitis caused by nisseria meningitidis?

A

notify public health england

21
Q

what are the 3 main live vaccines?

A

MMR
inhaled influenza
varicella

22
Q

when are live vaccines contraindicated?

A

in immunosupression

23
Q

what 4 issues are present in tetralogy of fallot?

A
  1. ventricular septal defect
  2. aortic arch overriding the VSD
  3. outflow obstruction from right ventricle
  4. right ventricular hypertrophy
24
Q

in tetralogy of fallot what determines the degree of cyanosis? why?

A

the severity of outflow obstruction from the right ventricle, as this determines the magnitude of the shunt and therefore degree of cyanosis

25
Q

what is the definitive diagnostic test for coeliacs disease?

A

small bowel biopsy

26
Q

what triad is seen on small bowel biopsy in coeliac disease?

A

subtotal villous atrophy
crypt hypertrophy
lymphocytic infiltrates

27
Q

whats the first step in paediatric BLS after you notice theres no respiratory effort?

A

5 rescue breaths

28
Q

whats the mx for localised impetigo?

A

topical fusidic acid

29
Q

what sign is seen in duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

gowers sign: when a patient is supine, they are unable to stand up without walking their hands over their legsa

30
Q

what blood test is done when you suspect duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

creatinine

31
Q

describe the pathophysiology of kallmann syndrome

A

failure of GnRH producing neurons to migrate to the hypothalamus causing hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism

32
Q

what are features of kallmann syndrome

A

delayed puberty (late menarche, small testes, small breasts, less body hair etc)
loss of smell

33
Q

what is the most common causative organism for acute gastroentertitis?

A

rotavirus

34
Q

describe a typical presentation of henloch schonlein purpura

A

viral URTI followed by:
purpura over legs/buttocks
nephritis
abdominal pain
arthralgia

35
Q

what is the word for when hands/feet peel in kawasaki disease?

A

desquamation

36
Q

what is the most important ix for someone who has orbital cellulitis?

A

CT orbit

37
Q

whats the definitive mx of volvulus? what does it entail

A

ladds procedure, it involves untwisting the volvulus, fixing the gut to the correct position, removing ladds bands and doing an appendicectomy

38
Q

what might you see on mri joint in juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

effusion
bone erosion
synovial hypertrophy

39
Q

what ix would you do for juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

bloods: FBC, ESR, CRP, ANA antibodies, anti CCP antibodies
imaging: MRI

40
Q

how is juvenile idiopathic arthritis managed?

A

1st line: NSAIDs
2nd line: steroids (oral or intra articular)
3rd line: steroid sparing agents eg methotrexate, TNF alpha inhibitors

41
Q

what is eisenmenegers syndrome?

A

when a shunt from VSD is reversed as the RV pressure rises above LV pressure, so deoxygenated blood enters the systemic circulation

42
Q

what direction is the shunt in VSD?

A

left to right

43
Q

what direction is the shunt in eisenmenegers syndrome?

A

right to left

44
Q

what antidepressant during pregnancy increases risk of VSD?

A

sertraline

45
Q

what congenital cardiac abnormality is associated with maternal lithium use during pregnancy?

A

ebsteins anomaly

46
Q

what genetic abnormality causes edwards syndrome?

A

trisomy 18

47
Q

what are some features of edwards syndrome?

A

low set ears
overlapping digits
heart defects eg VSD
omphalocele (intestines outside body)
microcephaly

48
Q

what is the first line ix for suspected coeliacs disease?

A

anti Ttg IgA antibody

49
Q

what malignancy is poorly controlled coeliacs associated with?

A

enteropathy associated t cell lymphoma

50
Q
A

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