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Qbanks > w/c 04/03 > Flashcards

w/c 04/03 Flashcards

1
Q

what is an absolute contraindication to ECV?

A

antepartum haemorrhage in past 7 days

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2
Q

whats is capgras vs cotards delusion

A

capgras= close people/self have been replaced by clones (cap=captured=captured and replaced)
cotards= rotting inside

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3
Q

what antiepileptic is best during pregnancy?

A

lamotrigine

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4
Q

what does herpes simplex virus present as?

A

painful vesicular lesions around the vagina

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5
Q

how is HSV infection in pregnancy managed?

A

oral aciclovir
c section if infection within 6 weeks of delivery to avoid transmission to baby

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6
Q

how often are blood tests needed in severe pre eclampsia?

A

3 times a week

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7
Q

how is hand foot and mouth disease managed?

A

supportive
ensure fluid intake and paracetamol if needed

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8
Q

what criteria is used to assess for septic arthritis?

A

kocher

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9
Q

how does threadworm present?

A

vulval/genital/anal itching worse at night with no abnormalities on examination

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10
Q

how is threadworm managed?

A

oral mebenazole
hygiene measures for house

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11
Q

for how long after birth should the COCP be avoided?

A

6 weeks
also if the women is breastfeeding

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12
Q

how long after birth should insertion of an IUS be avoided?

A

6 weeks

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13
Q

when can lactational amenorrhoea be used as contraception?

A

complete amenorrhoea
fully breastfeeding
for 6 weeks after giving birth

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14
Q

when does ovarian cyst rupture pain start?

A

usually during physical activity eg sexual intercourse or sports

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15
Q

what is likely diagnosis if bHCG continues to rise after management for a molar prganancy?

A

choriocarcinoma

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16
Q

what abx are given for PID?

A

oral doxy
oral metronidazole
IM ceftriaxone

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17
Q

what ix confirms diagnosis of hirschsprungs disease?

A

rectal biopsy

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18
Q

how do you differentiate OCD and obsessive compulsive personality disorder?

A

OCD= not pleasurable
obsessive compulsive personality disorder= patient derives pleasure from their actions and are happy to do them

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19
Q

what organisms commonly cause impetigo?

A

staph aureus
strep pyogenes

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20
Q

what are complications of orbital cellulitis?

A

blindness
meningitis
sepsis

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21
Q

what is alpha synuclein associated with?

A

Parkinsons and lewy bosy dementia
found in substantia nigra

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22
Q

what is seen on histopathology in alzheimers?

A

beta amyloid plaques
neurofibrillary triangles made of tau protien

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23
Q

at what age should a child have hand preference? why might it be concerning if this is abnormal

A

2 years
before this can indicate cerebral palsy

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24
Q

what is the most accurate ix for bacterial sepsis?

A

procalcitonin

25
Q

how do you identify fibroids on examination?

A

firm, irregular, enlarged uterus

26
Q

how does nisseria meningitides stain on gram stain?

A

gram negative diplococci

27
Q

how does listeria stain on gram stain?

A

gram positive rods

28
Q

what are some rf for ovarian cancer?

A

HRT >5yrs
increasing age
endometriosis

29
Q

how is metastatic ovarian cancer mx?

A

surgery aiming to remove macroscopic disease, then chemotherapy

radiotherapy is not commonly used, usually after surgery and chemo if the cancer comes back

30
Q

what is normal foetal head position in labour?

A

occiput anterior

31
Q

what happens in normal labour after delivery of the foetal head?

A

external rotation of the foetus
shoulder is in antero posterior position
anterior shoulder can be delivered

32
Q

whats the success rate of ECV?

A

around 50%

33
Q

whats an absolute indication to VBAC?

A

classic c section scar (vertical)

34
Q

when is booking appt, dating and anomaly scan performed?

A

booking= 6-8 weeks
dating= 10-13+6 weeks
anomaly= 18-20 +6 weeks

35
Q

whats is the aim of the dating scan?

A

to date the pregnancy
to rule out multiple pregnancy

36
Q

how do you differentiate bartholins cyst vs abscess?

A

cyst= mass palpable, not painful, no systemic illness
abscess= mass palpable, painful, systematic illness

37
Q

how is the squat test performed?

A

patient is asked to stand up from a squatting position without using their hands

38
Q

what is first line abx for acute tonsilitis?

A

phenoxymethylpenicillin
if allergic= macrolide

39
Q

if a patient declines voluntary admission, what section of the MHA is used to detain them while awaiting assessment?

A

2

40
Q

if a patient accepts voluntary admission, what section of the MHA is used to detain them while awaiting assessment?

A

section 5(2)

41
Q

whats the diff between section 5(2) and 2

A

2= for non voluntary admissions, lasts up to 28 days
5(2)= for voluntary admissions while awaiting assessment, lasts 72 hrs

42
Q

what enzyme does CF affect? what does this result in

A

lipase
steatorrhoea and vit A/D/E/K deficiency

43
Q

what are sx of ovarain hyperstimulation syndrome?

A

abdo discomfort
weight gain
N+V
fluid retention

44
Q

what are consequences of oligohydramnios?

A

fetal lung hypoplasia
fetal clubbed feet
fetal congenital hip dysplasia

45
Q

how would dx recognise oligohydramnios?

A

exam= prominent fetal parts, low SFH
US= low amniotic fluid index

46
Q

how is oligohydramnios managed?

A

monitoring and referral
maternal fluid resus
amniotic saline infusion
delivery if foetal distress

47
Q

when should instrumental delivery be abandoned? what should be performed after?

A

after 3 unsuccessful pulls
convert to a lower segment c section

48
Q

what are some indications for elective c section?

A

previous c section
multiple pregnancy
placenta praevia
vasa praevia
uncontrolled HIV

49
Q

what are complications of c section

A

surgery risks: infection, bleeding, pain, damage to surrounding structures
to mum: PPH, VTE, future= repeat c section, placenta praevia, uterine rupture
to baby= transient tachyponoea of newborn, aspiration pneumonia, lacerations during delivery

50
Q

what are trisomy 21, 18 and 13

A

21= downs
18= edwards
13= pataus

51
Q

what are features of edwards and patuas syndrome at birth

A

edwards= ‘ocker-bottom’ feet, low birthweight, prominent occiput, small mouth and chin, shortened sternum and flexed overlapping fingers

pataus= microcephaly, micropthalmia, polydactyly, low set ears and congenital heart disease

52
Q

what complication should you think of when assessing for PID?

A

fits hugh curtis syndrome= perihepatitis (inflammation of liver capsule and peritoneum)

53
Q

when is membrane sweep for IOL offered?

A

between 41-42 weeks GA

54
Q

what syndrome arises due to oligohydramnios? describe it?

A

potter syndrome
flattened nose, recessed chin, low-set ears (fetal squashing), and the presence of respiratory distress due to pulmonary hypoplasia
assoc with renal angenesis

55
Q

what is venlaflaxine? what monitoring does it require?

A

SNRI (3rd line antidepressant/ anxiety medication)
requires BP monitoring as it causes hypertension
contraindicated in uncontrolled htn

56
Q

what is the difference between panic disorder and acute stress reaction?

A

panic disorder= not related to one thing/comes on randomly
acute stress reaction= clear trigger, <1month of sx

57
Q

whats the moa of sodium valproate?

A

blocks voltage gated na channels to supress neuronal firing
also inhibits CYP hepatic enzymes

58
Q

what are side effects of valproate and how do you rememeber them?

A

VALPROATE:
Vomiting
Alopecia
Liver toxicity
Pancreatitis/Pancytopenia
Retention of fats (ie. weight gain)
Oedema
Anorexia
Tremor
Enzyme inhibition

59
Q

what does cervical motion tenderness indicate?

A

PID

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