Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Qbanks > w/c 12/02 > Flashcards

w/c 12/02 Flashcards

1
Q

what organism usually causes bronchiolitis?

A

RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

a complication of bronchiolitis popcorn lung- terminal bronchiolar dilation, areas of air trapping seen on CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what causative organism usually causes bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

adenovirus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is raised immune tripsinogen on heel prick suggestive of?

A

cystic fibrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is raised phenylalanine on heel prick suggestive of?

A

phenylketonuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

when is the heel prick test done?

A

5-8 days old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how does congenital hypothyroidism present?

A

macroglossia
floppy baby/hypotonia
abdo distention/ constipation
umbilical distention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

whats the inheritance pattern of duchennes muscular dystrophy?

A

x linked recessive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is phrens sign?

A

does elevation of the testes relieve pain?
negative= no (seen in testicular torsion)
positive= yes (seen in epididymitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what organism commonly causes early onset sepsis?

A

group B strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why is IgA done with anti TTG?

A

lack of IgA leads to false negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

medical management for TOP is recommended for what GA?

A

10-23+6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what types of drugs are mifepristone and misoprostol? how do they work

A

mifeprostone= progesterone receptor antagonist, degrades endometrium, ripens cervix, opens os etc
misoprostol- prostaglandin analogue, causes smooth muscle contraction to expel uterine contents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

describe medical mx of TOP

A

give oral mifeprostone
give vaginal misoprostol 36-48 hrs after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what medications are given in antiphospholipid syndrome to prevent miscarriage? when are they started and how do they work

A

LMWH= start when foetal heartbeat detectable
low dose aspirin= start when pregnancy confirmed on urinalysis
they both prevent thrombosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what tests are done in the combined screening test

A

nuchal translucency
PAPP-A
free bHCG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is seen in the combined screening test in downs syndrome?

A

high nuchal translucency and b-HCG
low PAPP-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what nerve block is performed using local for instrumental delivery?

A

pudendal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how often do people with HIV need cervical screening?

A

every year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is given to babies when mum has hep B?

A

HBV IgG and HBV vaccination within 24 hrs of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what age does perthes disease occur in?

A

4-8 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are some RF for paediatric sepsis?

A

break in skin (cut/burn)
immunosupression (diabetes/splenectomy/cancer treatment etc)
surgery in past 6 weeks
indwelling catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is oesophageal atresia?

A

when the oesophagus ends blindly, failing to connect to the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the 4 main domains of developmental milestones?

A

gross motor
fine motor
social
hearing and vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what is rhesus status of mum and baby in haemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

mum= rhesus negative
baby= rhesus positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

how would you explain sepsis to someone?

A

a condition wherein the immune systems response to an infection leads to the compromise of many organs in the body, it is serious and can be lifethreatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what ix are done in paediatric sepsis?

A

bedside: obs, urine dip, urine mc/s, lumbar puncture, swabs, BG
bloods: FBC, UEs, LFTs, culture, lactate VBG/ABG, CRP, clotting screen
imaging: CXR, AXR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

how is sepsis in a child managed?

A

immediate hospital admission
administer broad spec IV abx
escalate to senior paediatrician for review within 1 hr, prepare for escalation to ITU/HDU
administer fluid bolus and maintenance fluids, high flow oxygen if needed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what is seen on bloods in women with turners syndrome?

A

high FSH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what drug is given in secondary nocturesis when conservative measures fail? at what age can it be given?

A

desmopressin
can be given to children above 7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what medication is given while awaiting surgery in babies with duct dependant lesions? whats the moa

A

prostaglandin E
it prevents the duct from closing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what medication should not be given while awaiting surgery in babies with duct dependant lesions? whats the moa

A

NSAIDs
COX inhibitors will cause the lesion to close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

how is transient synovitis mx?

A

rest and analgesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what type of abx are given in whopping cough? give examples

A

a macrolide
clarithromycin
azithromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is seen on electron microscopy in minimal change disease?

A

diffuse effacement of foot processes on podocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is meckels diverticulum and how does it present?

A

a congenital GI condition where there are remnants of the embryonic vitello-duct

can present with painless rectal bleeding, abdo pain etc and if obstructed more severe sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what ix are done for meckels diverticulum?

A

CT
99mTC scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

how is meckels diverticulum managed?

A

NG decompression
surgical resection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how is bilirubin measured in babies with jaundice first?

A

transcutaneous

40
Q

what are the other names for slapped cheek syndrome?

A

erythema infectiosum
fifth disease

41
Q

what age is premature ovarian insufficiency diagnosed in?

A

under 40

42
Q

what does a positive coombs test in a newborn baby confirm?

A

immune mediated haemolytic anaemia (rhesus disease)

43
Q

what medication regime is adopted in pregnant women with hypothyroidism?

A

increase levothyroxine by 25mcg daily even if the patient is euthyroid

44
Q

whats the most common type of vulval cancer?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

45
Q

in cervical ectropion what type of cell extends to where?

A

ectopic columnar epithelium extends from the endocervix to the ectocervix

46
Q

what HRT is recommend for perimenopausal vs most menopausal women? say how they differ

A

perimenopausal: monthly cyclical HRT where oestrogen is given always and progestogen last 10-14 days, induces a withdrawal bleed in final phase

postmenopausal: continuous combined HRT where oestrogen and progestogen are taken daily to mimic the effects of physiological menopause

47
Q

how do you differentiate pre eclampsia from pregnancy associated htn?

A

pre eclampsia= proteinuria present, >140 systolic and/or >90 diastolic

48
Q

list RF of ectopic pregnancy

A

endometriosis
PID
smoking
IVF
previous ectopic
age over 35

49
Q

whats the biggest risk with IOL for a healthy women who hasnt gone into labour on time?

A

failure of induction and c section required

50
Q

what is given in paracetamol overdose

A

n acetylcystine

51
Q

what is significant paracetamol overdose?

A

> 75mg/kg

52
Q

how is delirium managed

A

de escalation techniques
IM haloperidol

53
Q

how long does section 5(2) last?

A

72 hrs

54
Q

what are common side effects of SSRI in first 2 weeks?

A

GI disturbance
agitation
increased anxiety

55
Q

whats the difference between schizoid vs schizotypal personality disorder?

A

schizoid= detachment from social relationships and emotional withdrawal
schizotypal= magical/strange beliefs

56
Q

what are class a personality disorders?

A

paranoid
schizoid
schizotypal

57
Q

what blood test is done for biliary atresia and what is seen?

A

serum total and conjugated bilirubin
both are high

58
Q

what organism commonly causes croup?

A

parainfluenza

59
Q

what are hyperinflated lungs and fluid level in a newborn characteristic of?

A

transient tachypnoea of the newborn

60
Q

what conditions are those with downs syndrome at risk of developing?

A

ALL
Alzheimers

61
Q

what differetiates oligoarticular vs polyarticular juvenile idiopathi arthritis?

A

oligo= four or fewer joints
poly= more than four

62
Q

how is oligoarticular polyarticular juvenile idiopathic arthritis managed?

A

intraarticular steroids

63
Q

what is seen on xray in someone with ewings sarcoma?

A

lamellated (onion skin) periosteal reaction

64
Q

what is seen on mri in someone with ewings sarcoma?

A

a large mass with evidence of necrosis

65
Q

what is seen on histology in someone with ewings sarcoma

A

small round cells with clear cytoplasm on haematoxylin and eosin staining

66
Q

what are the 2 common causes of not passing meconium

A

cystic fibrosis
hirschsprungs disease

67
Q

what rf ellicit OGGT in pregnancy?

A

BMI >30
previous macrosomic baby
previous gestational diabetes
1st degree relative with diabetes
ethnic origin

68
Q

when is OGTT in pregnancy done?

A

26-28 weeks

69
Q

what folic acid supplementation is recommended for pregnant women? include doses and times

A

400 mcg folic acid daily until 12th week

70
Q

what is the high dose for folic acid supplementation in pregnant women?

A

5mg

71
Q

what is seen in the baby when there is maternal alcohol consumption

A

congential heart defects (VSDs)
abnormal face: thin lips, smooth philtrum, small jaw

72
Q

how uterine atony addressed in PPH?

A

IV oxytocin
Bimanual uterine compression

73
Q

what is erbs palsy, whats it associated with and how is it managed?

A

palsy of the arm: flaccid upper arm, extended lower arm rotated towards body and hand in waiters tip position
associated with shoulder dystocia- damage to brachial plexus
usually resolves in 12 months

74
Q

what bloods would you do in someone with alcohol withdrawal?

A

TFTs
FBC
ESR
CRP
B12
folate
UEs
LFTs
BG and Hba1c

75
Q

what is first line treatment for acute mania?

A

antipsychotics
(those with mood stabilising properties are used and include olanzipine, haloperidol, risperidone, quetiapine)

76
Q

what electrolyte abnormality may be seen in someone after a panic attack? why?

A

hypocalcaemia
hyperventilation causes alkalosis with promotes calcium binding to albumin

77
Q

how does osteosarcoma in a child usually present?

A

localised pain for several months not associated with trauma or injury, sometimes palpable lump

78
Q

whats the most common primary malignant bone tumor in kids and adolescents?

A

osteosarcoma

79
Q

what depth are compressions done in paediatric basic life support?

A

1/3rd chest depth

80
Q

how do you differentiate transient synovitis and septic arthritis?

A

joint aspirate- septic arthritis will grow bacteria and transient synovitis wont

81
Q

how does tetralogy of fallot present?

A

tet spells- episodic syanosis
left lower sternal edge murmur

82
Q

how does transposition of the great arteries present?

A

constant cyanosis
appears hours after birth
prominent right venticular heave
single second heart sound

83
Q

where does fluid accumulate in a hydrocele?

A

tunica vaginalis

84
Q

when is surgery for a hydrocele required?

A

if persistent beyond the age of 2

85
Q

how long is folic acid taken for?

A

before conception through to 12 weeks

86
Q

what are indications for high dose folic acid?

A

partner with NTD
previous pregnancy with NTD
coeliac disease
diabetes
thalassaemia trait
obese

87
Q

what microbio tests are done at booking appt?

A

HIV
Hep B
spyhillis

88
Q

how long should you take iron for if you are anemic?

A

3 months
even if levels are normal

89
Q

what do you need to screen for when someone presents with suspected pre eclampsia

A

HELPP syndrome

90
Q

how is hyperemesis gravidarum managed?

A

electrolyte and fluid replacement
anti histamine first line (cyclizine or prochlorperazine) then anti emetics (ondansetron/metacloperamide)
thiamine and folic acid supplementation to prevent wernickes enceph
TED stockings to reduce risk of thrombosis due to pregnancy, dehydration and immobilisation

91
Q

how is primary ovarian insufficiency diagnosed?

A

menopausal sx
2 elevated FSH 4-6 weeks apart

92
Q

when is the booking appt done?

A

8-10 weeks

93
Q

what cancers does PCOS increase the risk of?

A

endometrial and ovarian

94
Q

when are anti D rhesus injections given?

A

one injection 28-30 weeks
2 injections one at 28 weeks and one at 34 weeks

95
Q
A

Qbanks (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions