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Qbanks > w/c 08/04 > Flashcards

w/c 08/04 Flashcards

1
Q

what is pco2 in a life threatening asthma attack? why?

A

normal
this indicates poor respiratory effort

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2
Q

how is whooping cough mx?

A

admit if under 6 months
macrolide abx if within 21 days of onset

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3
Q

when are patients reviewed after starting an SSRI?

A

in one week if under 25
in 2 weeks if over 25

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4
Q

how is haemophilia a inherited?

A

x linked recessive

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5
Q

what vaccines are routinely given to pregnant women? when are they given

A

pertussis- 16 to 32 weeks, note this is given again in pregnancy even if they have had it previously
influenza- anytime

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6
Q

what does paediatric diarrhoea after gastroenteritis indicate?

A

lactose intolerance
transient intolerance is common in children after viral gastroenteritis, exclude lactose from diet and reintroduce gradually to mx

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7
Q

whats in the quadruple test for downs and what suggests high likelihood

A

bHCG and inhibin A high
oestriol and AFP low

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8
Q

what is given first line in alcohol withdrawal?

A

chlordiazepoxide

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9
Q

whats done if there are late decelerations on CTG?

A

foetal blood sampling- if acidosis emergency c section

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10
Q

what indicates septic arthritis on kochers criteria?

A

high temp
raised WCC
raised CRP
non weight bearing joint

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11
Q

what exactly are diagnostic criteria for pre eclampsia

A
  1. > 20 weeks GA
  2. hypertension:
    2 readings taken 4-6 hrs apart with systolic >140 or diastolic >90 OR over increase of 30 SBP or 20 DPB from booking
  3. proteinuria (dip at least +1)
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12
Q

what ix do you do when you suspect henloch schonlein purpura and why?

A

urine dip
to assess kidney involvement

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13
Q

whats the triad for henloch schonlein purpura?

A

purpura over legs/buttocks
arthralgia
abdo pain

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14
Q

what scale can you use to assess stage of puberty?

A

tanner

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15
Q

what organism causes scarlet fever?

A

streptococcus

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16
Q

in babies, what is done to reduce secondary reperfusion injury?

A

cooling to 33-34 degrees

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17
Q

what is a classical c section

A

c section with vertical scar

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18
Q

whats the triad for shaken baby syndrome?

A

retinal haemorrhage
subdural haematoma
encephalopathy

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19
Q

what is avoidant personality disorder?

A

avoiding relationships (friends/romantic), social inhibition, interpersonal inhibitions due to fear of rejection and negative evaluation

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20
Q

what are caput succedaneum and cephalohaematoma?

A

caput succedaneum= present at birth, at vertex and crosses suture lines, resolves in days
cephalohaematoma= develops after birth, in parietal region, doesnt cross suture lines, resolves in months

both are mx conservatively

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21
Q

interpret the bishop score

A

<5= IOL needed, spontaneous labour unlikely
8 or greater= spontaneous labour likely

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22
Q

what are the ESPEs and how are they mx?

A

acute dystonia= sustained muscle contractions, mx with procyclidine
tardive dyskinesia= abnormal repetitive movements, mx with tetrabenazine
parkinsonism
akathisia= severe restlessness

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23
Q

what GA is lack of fetal movements concerning?

A

24

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24
Q

when can you put the progesteron implant in after birth?

A

immediately

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25
Q

whats the most common risk of TOP

A

infection

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26
Q

what are rules for going to school in hand foot mouth disease?

A

no exclusion needed

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27
Q

when can you do cone biopsy for mx of cervical cancer?

A

stage 1a

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28
Q

whats the difference between stage 1a and 1b cervical cancer?

A

1a= less than 7mm visible by micrsocpy
1b= more than 7mm visible by eye

both confined to cervix cos stage 1

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29
Q

what is the neonatal period?

A

0-28 days of life

first 7 days= early
7-28= late

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30
Q

when do you do kleihauer test?

A

any sensitising event after 20 weeks

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31
Q

how long after starting ellaone can you start long term hormonal contraception?

A

5 days

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32
Q

when is indomethacin given for PDA?

A

in the neonatal period
can do echo before giving it

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33
Q

whats the first step in PPH?

A

resus:
2 wide bore cannula
group and save, cross match, FBC, clotting studies
start IV fluids
lay flat
high flow oxygen

34
Q

what happens when during controlled cord traction a women starts to bleed and the uterus is not palpable in the abdomen?

A

uterine inversion

35
Q

how is uterine inversion managed?

A

push fundus of uterus back into the abdomen

36
Q

what are some contraindications for lumbar puncture?

A

meningococcal septicaemia- risk of coning
raised ICP
focal neurological deficit
coagulation disorder
cardiovascular instability

37
Q

what are the sx of hereditary haemochromatosis?

A

liver fibrosis
diaebetes
joint pains
secondary amenorrhoea

38
Q

how can you differentiate ovarian torsion from ovarian cyst rupture and haemorrhage?

A

torsion will have whirlpool sign on US

39
Q

what is a high vaginal swab culture used for?

A

gonorrhoea (it can be cultures, chlamydia cannot)

40
Q

what is a NAAT vulvovaginal swab used for?

A

chlamydia or gonorrhoea

41
Q

what does a NAAT vulvovaginal swab look for?

A

bacterial DNA

42
Q

what is cervical motion tenderness and cervical excitation suggestive of?

A

PID

43
Q

what is a seizure after a child has been crying inconsolably indicative of?

A

breath holding spell
they can be reassured and discharged

44
Q

how does hydrocephalus present?

A

enlarged head circumference
sunsetting eyes
bulging anterior fontanelle

45
Q

what are RF for hydrocephalus?

A

prematurity
spina bifida
meningitis

46
Q

how can you differentiate inhaled foreign body from asthma?

A

asthma ALWAYS has a wheeze

47
Q

how does the progesterone implant work?

A

inhibits ovulation

48
Q

how do you differentiate somatisation vs hypochondriasis?

A

somatisation= symptoms are present
hypochondriasis= symptoms not present

49
Q

whats first line abx for UTI while breastfeeding?

A

thrimethorpim

50
Q

what is the test done if newborn otoacoustic emission test is abnormal?

A

auditory brainstem response test

51
Q

what can someone with migraines on an SSRI not take

A

triptans

52
Q

what do you need to monitor in someone on SNRI?

A

BP

53
Q

name an SNRI

A

venlaflaxine

54
Q

how is new onset confusion in someone starting an SSRI/ increasing their SSRI dose indicative of?

A

hyponatraemia
check their UEs

55
Q

what ovarian pathology is associated with meigs syndrome?

A

fibroma

56
Q

whats the most common benign ovarian tumor in women under 25?

A

dermoid cyst

57
Q

how long after birth is contraception not needed in a women who isnt breastfeeding?

A

21 days

58
Q

what are rocker bottom feet associated with?

A

edwards syndrome

59
Q

where does gestational trophobastic disease metastasise to?

A

lungs

60
Q

what vol of amniotic fluid is considered plyhydramnios?

A

2-3 l

61
Q

what medication switch can be done if someone on antipsychotics has espes?

A

put them on olanzapine- lowest risk of espes

62
Q

whats chlorpromazine?

A

a typical antipsychotic

63
Q

what medication can you not give to someone with lewy body dementia?

A

first gen antipsychotics

64
Q

why does downs syndrome increase risk of alzheimers?

A

amyloid protein gene is on chr 21 and downs is trisomy 21

65
Q

what are rules regarding breast cancer and HRT?

A

past or active breast cancer is a contraindication

even if they are in remission, HRT can accelerate recurrence

66
Q

whats the risk of transmission of HIV to baby if there is optimal treatment? outline what this treatment is

A

undetectable viral load
on ART
neonatal zidovudine
avoiding breastfeeding

risk of transmission is 2%

67
Q

how can you differentiate viral hepatitis in pregnancy from acute fatty liver?

A

viral hep= LFTs severely raised (>500)
acute fatty liver= LFTs raised but not severely

68
Q

whats the moa of tranexamic acid?

A

antifibrinolytic

69
Q

describe acetic acid and iodine staining in colposcopy

A

acetic acid= abnormal cells take it up and appear white, normal cells stay pink
iodine= stains normal cells so white cells from acetic acid appear more prominent

note acetic acid is applied first then iodine

70
Q

whats a missed miscarriage?

A

os closed
gestational sac in uterus
no symptoms
no heartbeat

71
Q

whats the hyperemesis gravidarum diagnosis triad?

A

5% weight loss
dehydration
electrolyte imbalance

72
Q

what is abx regime for PID?

A

IM ceftriaxone 1g

for 14 days
metronidazole 400mg orally twice daily
doxycycline 100mg orally twice daily

73
Q

how long does section 3 last?

A

6 months

74
Q

describe the renewal rules for section 3

A

initial 6 months
first renewal: 6 months
second renewals and thereafter: 1 year at a time

75
Q

what fluid is commonly given in hyperemesis gravidarum?

A

IV saline with potassium

76
Q

what BP are pregnant women admitted?

A

> 160/110

77
Q

what class of drugs is phenelzine?

A

MAOI

78
Q

what abx is given in children to cover for listeria?

A

IV amoxicillin

79
Q

what abx is given to all children for meningitis?

A

IV cefotaxime

80
Q
A

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