Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Qbanks > w/c 19/02 > Flashcards

w/c 19/02 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the most specific sign of meningococcal disease?

A

non blanching rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is kernigs sign?

A

inability to fully extend leg flexed at hip- seen in meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

whencan transcutaneous bilirubin be measured in babies?

A

GA >35 weeks
>24 hrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

at what level of transcutaeous bilirubin does serum bilirubin need to be checked?

A

> 250 micromoles/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what 2 tests are done on examination for suspected meningitis?

A

kernigs
brudzinskis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

whats the most common cause of precocious puberty?

A

idiopathic central precocious puberty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

how much adrenaline IM is given for anaphylaxis to kids of different ages?

A

under 6= 150 micrograms 1:1000
6-12= 300 micrograms 1:1000
over 12= 500 micrograms 1:1000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

how many parents consent does a doctor need to provide treatment to a child?

A

1
they can be a stepparent- married to the other parent either before or after the birth of the child, both ways they have parental responsibility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

whats gold standard ix for coeliacs and what is seen?

A

jejunal/duodenal biopsy
villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, intraepithelial lymphoycytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what murmur is seen on tetralogy of fallot, where is it auscultated and why?

A

harsh ejection systolic murmur on upper sternal border left side due to pulmonary stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

anatomically, what causes an inguinal hernia in children?

A

a patent processus vaginalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

whats the incubation period of chickenpox?

A

up to 3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the first signs of puberty in boys and girls? what age do they happen

A

boys= enlargement of testes at age 9
girls= development of breasts at age 8.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is adenomyosis?

A

presence of endometrial tissue in the myometrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are rf for adenomyosis?

A

multiple pregnancies
sustained trauma to uterus- multiple c sections
older reproductive age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how is adenomyosis managed?

A

wanting to concieve: mefanamic acid for analgesia
not wanting to concieve: hormonal contraception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what medication can be used to stop breastfeeding and how?

A

carbergoline
dopamine receptor agonist inhibiting prolactin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what abnormality occurs in baby with maternal lithium use?

A

ebsteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is ebsteins abnormality?

A

congenital heart defect associated with maternal lithium use- 2 leaflets of the tricuspid valve are displaced the long way so blood leaks from the right ventricle to the right atrium leading to right atrial enlargement and congestive heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is lynch syndrome?

A

a genetic condition causing familial malignancy at a younger age, its associated with ovarian, endometrial and bowel cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

when are women admitted for placenta praevia?

A

if its symptomatic past 34 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the 7 layers to get through in a c section

A

skin
subcut fat
rectus sheath
rectus abdominis
peritoneum
myometrium
amniotic sac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how long after delivery is contraception not required?

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

whats the most common type of fibroid?

A

intramural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what antidepressants cause anticholingeric side effects?

A

TCAs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are anticholingeric side effects?

A

falls
dry mouth
drowsiness
blurred vision
constipation
urinary retention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what class of drugs are given for dementia?

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what is splitting?

A

a phenomenon seen in EUPD where people regard others as wholly good or wholly bad as their relationships fluctuate between idealisation and devaluation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

whats given to household contacts for meningitis?

A

cipro or rifampicin

30
Q

how is mild croup managed?

A

single dose oral dex

31
Q

how is severe croup managed?

A

IV dex
adrenaline nebs
high flow oxygen

32
Q

what type hypersensitivity reaction is asthma?

A

type 1

33
Q

what is transient tachpnoea in the newborn associated with?

A

c section
prematurity

34
Q

how might you identify an innocent murmur?

A

soft systolic
no diastolic component
no radiation, localised
no heaves/thrills
not symptomatic
may vary with posture

35
Q

what age do children with UTIs need to be admitted?

A

under 3 months

36
Q

what is galaezzi test?

A

the test used to indicate wether shortening is femoral or tibial

37
Q

when is jaundice abnormal in neonates?

A

first 24 hrs of life

38
Q

when does physiological jaundice usually present?

A

after 24 hrs

39
Q

how is foreign body ingestion managed?

A

is patient is asymptomatic and theres no evidence of obstruction they can be discharged

40
Q

what mutation is associated with digeorge syndrome?

A

22q 11.2 deletion

41
Q

what heart defects are seen in digeorge syndrome?

A

interrupted aortic arch
VSD

42
Q

what is salmon pink rash in paediatric MSK indicative of?

A

JIA

43
Q

what are other features of JIA?

A

salmon pink rash
lymphadenopathy
uveitis
pyrexia
anorexia
weight loss

44
Q

describe wilms tumor

A

most common primary renal tumor in kids
nephroblastoma
usually unilateral
painless mass in abdomen with distention
fever and haematuria

45
Q

how is wilms tumor imaged?

A

ultrasound

46
Q

how do you recognise croup?

A

high pitched barking cough and hoarse voice

47
Q

how is severe croup managed in the community

A

give steroids (oral dex or budesonide nebs) and transfer to hospital

48
Q

what are features of severe croup?

A

stridor
resp distress
hypoxia

49
Q

what is otitis media with effusion?

A

presence of fluid behind in the ear without infection

50
Q

what are the causes of conjugated vs unconjugated hyperbilirubinaemia?

A

conjugated: biliary atresia, CF
unconjugated: breast milk jaundice, gilberts syndrome, crigler-najjar syndrome

51
Q

how does cerebral palsy affect development?

A

delay in one specific developmental region

52
Q

what chromosome and gene are affected in cystic fibrosis?

A

CTFR gene on chromosome 7

53
Q

what sign do you see on x ray in croup?

A

steeple sign- due to subglottic narrowing

54
Q

how do you differentiate croup and whooping cough

A

croup= barking cough, inspiratory stridor
whooping cough= severe bouts of coughing, cant breath during so inspiration when cough ends

55
Q

how is croup managed?

A

supportive
responds well to steroids- dexamethasone especially

56
Q

how is whopping cough managed

A

supportive care
macrolide abx

57
Q

how does clomiphine work?

A

selective oestrogen receptor modulator
reduced negative feedback from oestrogen so increases fsh and lh to encourage ovulation

58
Q

when is clomiphine given/

A

day 2 and 6 of the cycle

59
Q

what weight is defined as macrosomia?

A

over 4 kg

60
Q

in what patients is ergometrine contraindiciated?

A

hypertension
PVD
heart disease

61
Q

when is ECV performed?

A

nulliparous= 36 weeks
multiparous= 37 weeks

62
Q

regarding the cervix, when can you perform artificial rupture of membranes?

A

when the cervix is ripe and dilated to 4cm

63
Q

how do you differentiate postpartum blues and depression

A

blues= presents 3-7 days post delivery
depression= presents after 6 weeks/present for 6 weeks

64
Q

what is capgras delusion?

A

a belief that close people (friends/family) have been replaced by clones

65
Q

what is the belief that close people (friends/family) have been replaced by clones?

A

capgras delusion

66
Q

when can therapy be started after a traumatic event?

A

immediately
a diagnosis of ptsd is not needed, trauma focused cbt can be given in acute stress disorder

67
Q

what medication is used for extrapyramidal side effects of antipsychotics? whats the moa

A

procyclidine- anticholinergic

68
Q

what extrapyramidal side effects does procyclidine improve vs not?

A

improves: tremor, akithesia, dystonia
doesnt improve: bradykinesia and rigidity

69
Q

whats the tetrad for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

hypertonia
hyperthermia
autonomic instability
mental state change

70
Q

what medication is neuroleptic malignant syndrome associated witgh?

A

antipsychotics

71
Q

what is lewy body dementia associated with?

A

visual hallucinations- often small/non harmful creatures/animals
REM sleep disorder
falls

72
Q
A

Qbanks (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions