w/c 26/02 Flashcards

1
Q

what are some causes of macrocephaly

A

meningitis
traumatic brain injury
haemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

whats gold standard emergency contraception?

A

IUD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

whats the difference between IUD and IUS

A

IUS= mirena/hormonal coil
IUD= copper coil (not hormonal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

out of IUD and IUS which is hormonal?

A

IUS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in the first stage of labour what is an appropriate rate and duration for contractions

A

rate= 3-5/10 mins
duration= 30-60 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what do you need to monitor in molar pregnancy and why?

A

bHCG
to ensure all contents are expelled as retained products will increase risk of developing choriocarcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

and what time should women with gestational diabetes deliver?

A

no later than 40+6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what class of medications will cause the ductus arteriosus to close vs stay open? give examples of both

A

close= prostaglandin inhibitor eg indomethacin
stay open= prostaglandin E1 eg alprostadil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how is pain in endometriosis managed?

A

COCP or POP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what organism commonly causes bartholins cyst?

A

e coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is seen on x ray in rickets?

A

widened epiphyseal plates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what acronym is used for remembering innocent murmurs?

A

6 S:
short
soft
systolic
S1 normal
S2 normal
standing/sitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is fitz hugh curtis syndrome and how does it present?

A

a complication of PID
adhesions form due to inflammation of the liver capsule
upper right quadrant pain, shoulder tip pain, previously untreated STI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are sx of vulval cancer?

A

mass, pruritus, bleeding, burning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where are vulval cancers commonly found?

A

labia majora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are rf for vulval cancer?

A

HPV
chronic inflammation eg lichen sclerosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is first line contraception for a women with menorrhagia but no pathology?

A

doesnt want to get pregnant= IUS
wants to get pregnant= mefanamic/tranexamic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when are abx given in GBS infection?

A

intrapartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what does parvovirus b19 infection during pregnancy cause?

A

hydrops fetalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how does parvovirus b19 infection present?

A

bright red rash across cheeks, reticular rash across body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

whats an advantage of dermal hrt compared to tablets?

A

no increased risk of VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what score is used for IOL? what does it look at

A

bishop score
looks at the cervix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what bishop score indicates labour is unlikely to occur without induction?

A

5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the 5 components of the bishop score?

A

cervix:
position
consistency
effacement
dilation
station

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how many presentations of tonsilitis are needed for tonsillectomy in:
a single year
over 2 years
over 3 yrs

A

single yr= 7
over 2 years= 5 per year
over 3 years= 3 per year

26
Q

when should a child be admitted for anaphylaxis and why?

A

always admit for at least 6 hrs
anaphylaxis can occur as a biphasic reaction with the second phase in 4-6 hrs

27
Q

whats the difference between CIN grade 1 vs 2 vs 3

A

1= affects lower 1/3 of epithelium or less
2= affects between 1/3 and 2/3 of epithelium
3= affects more than 2/3 of epithelium

28
Q

what is the biggest rf for rectocele?

A

straining due to constipation

29
Q

what do you always prescribe with opiates and why

A

laxative for constipation

30
Q

what infection is most likely to cause a paediatric febrile seizure and why?

A

roseola infantum
the fever is fast rising

31
Q

what condition in paeds is HHV 6 infection associated with?

A

roseola infantum

32
Q

when does transient tachypnoea of the newborn present?

A

2hrs-72hrs then resolves

33
Q

what is first line medication for delirium tremens?

A

oral lorazepam

34
Q

what nerves are affected in erbs palsy?

A

C5-C6

35
Q

what imaging is used for pyloric stenosis?

A

abdo US

36
Q

what electrolyte and pH abnormality is seen in pyloric stenosis?

A

metabolic hypochloraemic hypokalemic alkalosis

37
Q

what is used to mx meningitis caused by nisseria?

A

IV ceftriaxone

38
Q

what is first line mx in PCOS?

A

weight loss

39
Q

when does the 3rd stage of labour start and end?

A

start= after delivery of foetus
end= expulsion of placenta and membranes

40
Q

what does cottage cheese discharge indicate?

A

vulvovaginal candidiasis

41
Q

how is vulvovaginal candidiasis treated?

A

clotrimazole cream or pessary

42
Q

at what GA should twins be delivered by c section?

A

37 weeks

43
Q

what ECG change is seen most commonly in anorexia nervosa?

A

prolonged QT interval

44
Q

what feature of tetralogy of fallot determines the severity?

A

pulmonary stenosis

45
Q

what clinical findings will coarctation of the aorta cause?

A

weak femoral pulses
mid systolic murmur heard best in between scapulae

46
Q

what murmur is associated with turners syndrome?

A

mid systolic murmur heard best in between scapulae

47
Q

what abx are used to mx meningitis in hospital?

A

penicillin or 3rd gen cephalosporin
specifics depend on local guidelines

48
Q

what 2 things are applied to the cervix during colposcopy?

A

acetic acid
iodine

49
Q

how might a symptomatic imperforate hymen present?

A

a young girl who hasn’t menstrauted yet (but is having her first period)
worsening abdo pain, bloating
blue bulging membrane seen overlying the vagina

50
Q

when do you admit a child with croup?

A

any sign of respiratory distress

51
Q

whats the moa of naloxone?

A

opiod receptor antagonist

52
Q

how do you differentiate schizoaffective disorder from mania with psychosis?

A

schizoaffective= needs periods of depression as well as mania, features of schizophrenia and affective changes without qualifying for a diagnosis of both of those

53
Q

how do you differentiate delusional perception from thought insertion?

A

thought insertion= thoughts are inserted directly into the mind ie telepathically
delusional perception= thoughts come from incorrect perceptions of physical things eg newspapers/ radio

54
Q

what bloods do you need to check before starting someone on lithium and why?

A

TFTs
lithium somehow inhibits thyroid hormone causing hypothyroidism

55
Q

what 2 cancers need to be assessed for in PMB and how?

A

endometrial= TVUS
cervical= colposcopy

56
Q

what test should a pre menopausal women with PV bleeding have?

A

chlamydia

57
Q

what type of bacteria is bordetella pertussis?

A

gram negative cocobacillus

58
Q

whats the aetiology behind antiphospholipid syndrome causing recurrent miscarriage?

A

the antibodies= hypercoagulable state
insufficient placental development due to thrombi in placental vessels

59
Q

when might it be ok if a child isnt walking by 18 months?

A

if they bottom shuffle

60
Q

what abx are used to treat PID?

A

third gen cephalosporin eg doxy of ceftraixone with or without metronidazole

61
Q

what is a missed miscarriage?

A

when the foetus is dead but in utero (not expelled)
often asymptomatic

62
Q
A