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VTT 244 Pharmacology > VTNE Questions from powerpoints > Flashcards

VTNE Questions from powerpoints Flashcards

1
Q

Neonatal animals are less tolerant of some drugs than older animals because in neonates the drugs are:

A

Biotransformed more slowly—the neonatal liver is not equipped to deal efficiently with the biotransformation of most drugs until approximately 1 month of age

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2
Q

Pharmacodynamics may be defined as:

A

The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug

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3
Q

The generic name for a drug is also called

A

The nonproprietary name—generic and nonproprietary names are interchangeable; no one company owns the right to these types of names.

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4
Q

Intradermal injections are used primarily for:

A

Allergy testing

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5
Q

Most biotransformation occurs in which organ?

A

Liver

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6
Q

Repository forms of parenteral drugs

A

Are formulated to prolong absorption

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7
Q

What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously?

A

Solution

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8
Q

When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means what?

A

Its effective and toxic doses are close to each other.

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9
Q

A drug given by which route reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest?

A

Intravenously

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10
Q

Cholinergic agents do all of the following except: (slow heart rate, increase blood flow to tintestinal tract, decrease diameter of bronchioles, cause peripheral dilation)

A

Cause peripheral dilation—cholinergic agents (parasympathetic) have minimal effect on peripheral vessels

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11
Q

Pain receptors are called

A

Nociceptors

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12
Q

Epinephrine does what?

A

Increases the heart rate

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13
Q

What drug is contraindicated in the treatment of glaucoma?

A

Atropine—a mydriatic that is used to examine the eye which results in dilatation of the pupil

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14
Q

Norepinephrine, epinephrine, and dopamine are the primary neurotransmitters for the Parasympathetic nervous system Sympathetic nervous system Central nervous system Peripheral nervous system

A

Sympathetic nervous system

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15
Q

Atropine is often used as a pre-anesthetic agent. It is classified as an anti-cholinergic drug and will produce what effects:

A

Increased HR, decreased salivation, decreased GI motility.

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16
Q

T/ F Xylazine is an example of an Alpha 2 agonist.

A

True

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17
Q

T/F Doxapram is a respiratory stimulant.

A

True

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18
Q

If using a regular disposable-type, which of the following drugs must not be preloaded and left for a period of time?

A

Diazepam

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19
Q

The benzodiazepine derivative diazepam is often administered in combination with

A

Ketamine (i.e., KetVal)

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20
Q

Acepromazine maleate causes

A

Hypotension

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21
Q

Xylazine provides some analgesia. True or False?

A

True

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22
Q

A 50-lb dog is to be given a 1 mg/kg dose of diazepam. How many mg’s will he receive?

A

22.7 mg

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23
Q

A dog was given a sedative which resulted in its HR=50 bpm (n=60-120). Which drug was likely used to sedate this dog?

A

Dexmedetomidine (DexDomitor)

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24
Q

Acepromazine should be avoided in patients with a history of seizures. True or False?

A

True

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25
Q

What is not a potential side effect of the phenothiazine antiemetics

A

Diarrhea

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26
Q

Which of the following drugs does not have an antiemetic action? (Pheothiazines, Metoclopramide, Antihistamines, Apomorphine)

A

Apomorphine

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27
Q

Butorphanol is an antitussive. True or False?

A

True

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28
Q

Butorphanol is an agonist/antagonist. True or False?

A

True

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29
Q

An opioid analgesic often used in transdermal patches to control postsurgical pain is

A

Fentanyl

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30
Q

The reversal agent used for opioid toxicity is

A

Naloxone (Narcan)

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31
Q

Loperamide, an opioid, is not a controlled substance. True or False?

A

True

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32
Q

Thiobarbiturates should be administered with care or not at all to:

A

Greyhounds—sight hounds have minimal body fat so the drug remains in circulation at high levels

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33
Q

What is absolutely necessary when terminating anesthesia when nitrous oxide was used?

A

Oxygenate for 5 to 10 minutes

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34
Q

After receiving an analgesic dose of morphine, a cat will likely demonstrate all of the following except:

A

Elevated respiratory rate

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35
Q

You observe a post-op cat patient with wide-open, unblinking eyes; salivating profusely; and rigid, extended limbs. Which anesthetic was likely used for this cat’s surgery?

A

Ketaset

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36
Q

What gas anesthesia demands the greatest degree of patient monitoring because of rapid depth changes?

A

Sevoflurane (SevoFlo)

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37
Q

Cats given ketamine for anesthesia may show what side effects?

A

Apneustic breathing

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38
Q

Which of the following drugs is the most common active ingredient in euthanasia drugs? (Phenobarbital, Methohexital, Pentobarbital, Thipental)

A

Pentobarbital

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39
Q

Propofol must not be returned to the refrigerator for future use if the bottle has been opened for more than six hours because:

A

Bacteria will readily grow in propofol and will produce endotoxins

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40
Q

Loop diuretics such as furosemide

A

May cause hypokalemia with chronic use

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41
Q

A chronotropic agent affects the

A

Rate of a contraction

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42
Q

Which type of drugs would you use to treat a cat with an aortic thromboembolism?

A

Fibrinolytic drugs

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43
Q

The diuretic drug used most commonly in patients with congestive heart failure is

A

Furosemide

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44
Q

Digoxin is

A

A negative chronotrope and a positive inotrope

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45
Q

The drug of choice for the treatment of a surgical patient in cardiac arrest is:

A

Epinephrine

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46
Q

Which drug is used to treat feline hypertension?

A

Amolodipine (Norvasc). It is a Calcium-Channel Blocker

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47
Q

ACE inhibitors have what effects on the body?

A

Decreased preload and afterload on the heart

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48
Q

Nitroglycerin is given primarily to achieve what effects?

A

Vasodilation (venodilator)

49
Q

Which of the following are calcium channel blockers used to relax the heart of patients with HCM? (Procainamide, Diltiazem, Lidocaine, Digoxin)

50
Q

Lidocaine is used to control which of the following abnormalities? (Atrial bradyarrhythmias, Ventricular tachyarrhythmias, Hpertenstion, Excessive urine output)

A

Ventricular tachyarrhythmias

51
Q

Which of the following drugs is classified as an osmotic diuretic used to reduce intracranial pressure or treat oliguric renal failure? (Furosemide, Propranolol, Mannitol, Bethanechol)

52
Q

Hyperthyroid cats have heart rates over 200 bpm which poses an anesthetic risk. What drug would be used to slow the heart rate in patients with this condition?

A

Propranolol. Because it is a Beta1 receptor blocker

53
Q

Drugs classified as ACE inhibitors have what effect on the body?

A

Vasodilation

54
Q

Captopril is an example of a(n):

A

Vasodilator

55
Q

Heartgard contains ivermectin, which

A

Is used to prevent heartworm infection

56
Q

The active drug in ProHeart is moxidectin, a member of the drug class

A

Avermectin

57
Q

Most OTC wormers contain which of the following drugs:

Pyrantel pamoate (Nemex)
Piperazine (Pipa-tabs)
Fenbendazole (Panacur)
Ivermectin (Ivomec)

A

Piperazine

58
Q

If a drug package insert states that the drug is a coccidiostat, against which group of parasites is this effective?

Ascarids (Toxacara, Toxascaris)
Tapeworms (Taenia)
Protozoa (Eimeria, Isospora)
Flukes (liver fluke, lung fluke)

59
Q

T/F Organophosphates have relatively few side effects.

60
Q

Which drug is used to treat a heartworm positive dog?

Melarsomine (Immiticide)
Ivermectin (Heartgard)
Milbemycin (Interceptor)
Moxidectin (ProHeart)

A

Melarsomine (Immiticide)

61
Q

Dogs with heartworm disease are treated with aspirin because it

A

Decreases the risk of clot formation

62
Q

What is the treatment of choice for organophosphate toxicity (dips, powders, sprays)?

63
Q

What insecticide is effective in treating demodectic mange?

64
Q

All of the following drugs are antagonists, used to reverse the effects of another drug except: Yohimbine Detomidine Atipamazole Naloxone

A

Detomidine (Dormosedan)

65
Q

As compared to horses, when using xylazine in cattle, you must Use adequate doses because cattle seem to be resistant to the effects of this drug Always use it with a barbiturate to achieve adequate analgesia Not use xylazine because it is contraindicated in cattle Use it at 1/10th the equine dose

A

Use it at 1/10th the equine dose

66
Q

Atropine is often used as a pre-anesthetic agent. It is classified as an anti-cholinergic drug and will produce the following effects:

A. Increase Heart rate, decrease salivation, decrease GI motility

B. Increase Heart rate, Increse salivation, increase GI motility

C. Increase heart rate, decrease salivation, decrease GI motility

D. Decrease heart rate, increase salivation, increase GI motility

A

Becase it is an anti-choliergic drug it will Increase Heart rate, decrease salivatin, decrease GI motility

67
Q

A 10-kg dog was inadvertantly given a dose of xylazine appropriate for a 30-kg dog. Which drug would you use to reverse the xylazine?

Atipamezole

Yohimbine

Atropine
Noradrenalin

68
Q

T/F Propofol can be given in incremental doses?

69
Q

Thiobarbiturates should be administered with care or not at all to which of the following (Collies, Greyhounds, Rottweilers, Spaniels)

A

Greyhounds (sight hounds have minimal body fat so the drug remains in teh circulation at high levels)

70
Q

A dog was given a sedative which resulted in its HR=50 bpm (n=60-120). Which drug was likely used to sedate this dog?

Acepromazine (Promace)
Ketamine (Ketaset)
Diazepam (Valium)
Dexmedetomidine (DexDomitor)

A

Dexmedetomidine (DexDomitor)

71
Q

Which of the following drugs would you not use in a patient with seizures?

Diazepam
Thiopental
Acepromazine
Fentanyl

A

Acepromazine

72
Q

The NSAID that is extremely toxic to cats is:

Aspirin
Carprofen
Acetaminophen
Flunixin

A

Acetaminophen—while technically not an NSAID, it is commonly grouped with them

73
Q

Aspirin may safely be used in cats as an NSAID, but it should be noted that its half-life in this species approximates:

2 hours
8 hours
15 hours
30 hours

74
Q

What is not a short-term effect of corticosteroid therapy?

Polyuria
Polyphagia
Delayed healing
Osteoporosis

A

Osteoporosis is a long-term effect

75
Q

A common effect of antihistamine drugs such as diphenhydramine is

Polyuria
Sedation
Pruritus
Panting

76
Q

Parenteral administration of phenylbutazone should be via which route only?

SC injection
IM injection
SC or IM injection
IV injection

A

IV injection

77
Q

Chronic use of moderate-to-high doses of glucocorticoids may cause:

Addison’s Disease
Cushing’s Disease
Diabetes mellitus
Insulinoma

A

Cushing’s Disease—when the glucocorticoids are exogenous, the cause is iatrogenic

78
Q

Glucocorticoids are often used in veterinary medicine for treatment of all the following except:

Allergies
Musculoskeletal problems
Infections
Immune-mediated disease

A

Infections

79
Q

Which of the following glucocorticoids has the shortest duration of activity?

Hydrocortisone
Prednisone
Dexamethasone
Triamcinolone

A

Hydrocortisone

80
Q

What drug is not an NSAID?

Prednisone
Flunixin
Phenylbutazone
Aspirin

A

Prednisone

81
Q

Flunixin Meglumine (Banamine) is an NSAID most commonly used

In dogs for the treatment of chronic osteoarthritis
In horses for the treatment of colic
In horses for reducing fever
In dogs for its anticoagulant activity

A

In horses for the treatment of colic

82
Q

The most common side effect of NSAIDs is

Polyuria
Gastrointestinal ulceration
Diarrhea
Constipation

A

Gastrointestinal ulceration

83
Q

Which statement is most accurate pertaining to insect growth regulators (ie. fenoxycarb, methoprene)?

The prevent the female from laying eggs
They effectively kill all adult stages
They are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals
They are neurotoxic to mammals

A

They are insecticidal with very low risk of toxic effects in mammals

84
Q

The regulatory agency that oversees the development and approval of animal topical pesticides is the

FDA
EPA
USDA
DEA

85
Q

What breed of dog has a blood-brain barrier that allows ivermectin to reach toxic concentrations within the brain more readily than other breeds?

German Shepherd
Collie
Schnauzer
Cocker Spaniel

86
Q

Guaifenesin is an example of

Expectorant
Antitussive
Bronchodilator
Mucolytic agent

A

Expectorant

87
Q

Which of these drugs is available over the counter as an antitussive?

Codeine
Dextromethorphan
Hydrocodone
Butorphanol

A

Dextromethorphan

88
Q

Which of these drugs is used to stimulate puppies who are breathing poorly after a C-section?

Theophylline (Theo-Dur)
Albuterol
Doxapram HCl (Dopram)
Terbutaline

A

Doxapram HCl (Dopram)

89
Q

The type of drug that would be effective for a patient with a productive cough is:

Antitussive
Antihistamine
Expectorant
Analgesic

A

Expectorant

90
Q

Which of the following drugs decrease gastric acid by blocking histamine receptors (H2) in the stomach?

Famotidine (Pepcid)
Sucralfate (Carafate)
Omeprazole (Prilosec)
Erythropoietin

A

Famotidine (Pepcid)

91
Q

All of the following drugs are used in the treatment of chronic renal failure except:

Famotidine (Pepcid)
Amlodipine (Norvasc)
Furosemide (Lasix)
Erthropoietin (Epogen)

A

Furosemide (Lasix)

92
Q

Amphogel and Basaljel are drugs in the general category of:

Potassium supplements
Antihypertensives
Urinary acidifiers
Phosphate binders

A

Phosphate binders

93
Q

A stool softener often helpful in patients recovering from anal surgery:

Docusate sodium succinate (DSS, Colace)
Magnesium hydroxide
Mineral oil
Bran

A

Docusate sodium succinate (DSS, Colace)

94
Q

The most widely used antiemetics used in dogs and cats to prevent motion sickness:

Antispasmodics
Antihistamines
Phenothiazines
Anticholinergics

A

Phenothiazines

95
Q

The emetic of choice in cats is

Syrup of ipecac
Xylazine
Apomorphine
Hydrogen peroxide

96
Q

The emetic of choice in dogs is

Syrup of ipecac
Xylazine
Apomorphine
Hydrogen peroxide

A

Apomorphine

97
Q

Fleet enemas are contraindicated in what species?

Horses
Ruminants
Cats
Pigs

A

Cats—Sodium phosphate enemas cause lethal electrolyte shifts in cats. Saline enemas are safe to use however.

98
Q

A coating agent that forms an ulcer-adherent complex at the ulcer site is

Kaopectate
Sucralfate
Cimetidine
Misoprostol

A

Sucralfate

99
Q

A progestin that was once used for inappropriate elimination in cats but is not now used due to potential serious side-effects is:

Megestrol acetate (Ovaban)
Oxazepam (Serax)
Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Fluoxetine (Prozac)

A

Megestrol acetate (Ovaban)

100
Q

A 12-yr old spayed Golden Retriever is presented with a history of waking up in her bed in a puddle of urine. Physical and lab exams are normal. The medication dispensed for her condition is PPA (phenylpropanolamine). Why?

It treats bladder atony by increasing bladder tone
It treats urinary incontinence by decreasing urethral sphincter tone
It treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone
It treats bladder atony by decreasing bladder tone

A

It treats urinary incontinence by increasing urethral sphincter tone

101
Q

A cat diagnosed with hyperthyroidism may be offered the following treatment options except:

Radioactive Iodine–I131 treatment
Fenbendazole (Panacur) medical management
Thyroidectomy surgery
Methimazole (Tapazole) medical management

A

Fenbendazole (Panacur) medical management

102
Q

A veterinarian prescribes erythropoietin (Epogen) for use in a dog in renal failure. Why was this drug prescribed?

For its fibrinolytic activity
For its immunosuppressive activity
For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release
For its ability to reduce hypertension

A

For its ability to stimulate red blood cell production and release

103
Q

Resuspension of NPH insulin is done by:

Gently rolling the bottle
Vigorous shaking of the bottle
Gently heating of the bottle in warm water
Refrigeration of the bottle

A

Gently rolling the bottle

104
Q

Altrenogest, which is used for estrus synchronization in female animals, is a synthetic:

Estrogen
Androgen
Progestin
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

105
Q

Serious potential side effects of estrogen administration include:

Hemorrhage and thromboembolism
Bone marrow suppression and pyometra
Cardiac arrhythmias and pulmonary edema
Renal failure and gastric ulcers

A

Bone marrow suppression and pyometra

106
Q

What drug is used to return a mare to proestrus from diestrus through lysis of the corpus luteum?

Progesterone
Estrogen
Prostaglandin
Gonadotropin

A

Prostaglandin

107
Q

The drug most commonly used in treating animals with hypothyroidism is:

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Thyroid extract
Synthetic levothyroxine (T4)
Synthetic liothyronine (T3)

A

Synthetic levothyroxine (T4)

108
Q

Which of the following statements about drugs used for cancer chemotherapy is true?

They are usually given by mouth
They usually have low (narrow) margins of safety
They are available over the counter
They are all nephrotoxic

A

They usually have low (narrow) margins of safety

109
Q

Which of the following side effects is commonly seen with many cancer chemotherapeutic drugs?

Hyperglycemia
Immunosuppression
Constipation
Hyperphagia

A

Immunosuppression

110
Q

Oral hypoglycemic drugs such as glipizide (Glucotrol) are used to treat

Diabetic keto-acidosis
Non-insulin-dependent diabetes
Hypoglycemia
Pancreatitis

A

Non-insulin-dependent diabetes

111
Q

Which class of drugs generally poses the greatest potential health threat to those handling the medication?

Antibiotics
Antineoplastics
Antinematodals
Antiprotozoals

A

Antineoplastics

112
Q

Pharmacodynamics may be defined as:

A

The method by which the function of the living body is affected by the drug

113
Q

The generic name for a drug is also called:

A

The nonproprietary name—generic and nonproprietary names are interchangeable; no one company owns the right to these types of names.

114
Q

Intradermal injections are used primarily for:

A. Insulin injections
B. Antibiotic injections
C. Vaccinations
D. Allergy testing

A

Allergy testing

115
Q

Most biotransformation occurs in the

Liver
Kidney
Lungs
Spleen

116
Q

Repository forms of parenteral drugs

Contain a special coating that protects the drug from the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach
Are formulated to prolong absorption
Are composed of plant or animal parts as opposed to manufactured chemicals
Are extremely irritating to the tissues

A

Are formulated to prolong absorption

117
Q

What liquid form of drug is most commonly administered intravenously?

Emulsion
Solution
Suspension
Elixir

118
Q

When a drug is said to have a narrow therapeutic range, it means that

A. It must be dosed frequently
B. It may be used for a few disorders only
C. Its effective and toxic doses are close to each other
D. It must be given in greater concentrations to be effective

A

Its effective and toxic doses are close to each other

119
Q

A drug given by which route reaches its peak plasma concentration the fastest?

A. Orally
B. Intramuscularly
C. Subcutaneously
D. Intravenously

A

Intravenously

VTT 244 Pharmacology (15 decks)

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