Viral Diseases - Microbiology Flashcards

1
Q

Describe what Baltimore’s classification is

A
  • Based on method of viral synthesis
  • Groups viruses into families according to their type of genome
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2
Q

Name all the types of viruses in the baltimore classification of viruses from group I to VII

A
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3
Q

How do we differentiate between a bacterial and viral cause of infection and course of illness

A

Some symptoms are pathognomonic

  • productive (phlegm) vs non-poductive cough

Course of illness

  • Secondary bacterial infection symptoms persist longer than the expected 10 days virus tends to last
  • Fever is higher than in viral infections

Diagnostic tests

  • To differentiate between the two: CRP, ESR, FBC, PCR and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF count)
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4
Q

What are the moleculer techniques that have allowed multiple, rapid and ofen quantative tests that impact on therapeutic patient managment?

A
  • Nuclei acid-based technonlogies e.g. PCR
  • The Next Generation Sequencing (NGS)
  • Monoclonal antibodes
  • Enzyme immune essays e.g. ELISA
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5
Q

Name the methods used to detect viral infection

A
  • Detection of viral antigens
  • Detection of nucleic acids (PCR)
  • Electron microscopy
  • Virus culture
  • Histopathology staining
  • Serelogy staining: presence of virus specific antibodoies (lgM and lgG)
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6
Q

Describe the rapid viral diagnostic test - Point of care test (POCT)

A
  • Test for key respiratory viruses
  • By the bed side
  • Tests for influenza A/B and respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
  • PRC based
  • Take 20 mins
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7
Q

How has the huge diversity of viral diagnostic methods made it increasinging complex for clinicians?

A

Increasing complex to:

  1. Request the appropriate test
  2. Interpret the test result
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8
Q

Describe the 3 important variables are the detection of viral pathogens highly dependable on?

A
  1. Specimen - obtaining an adequete specimen from the appropriate site
  2. Collection - Proper timing of speciment collection relative to onset of symptoms
    * For many viral infections. viral shedding begins shorty after symptoms peak rapidly after onset and celines steadily as infection resolves (exluding chronic viral infections e.g. HIV)
  3. Processing - Timely processing of samples
    * Samples should be collected as soon as possible after the onset of symptoms
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9
Q

What is the duty of all registered medical practioners in the UK regarding infective notfiable diseases?

A

All have a statutory duty to notify their local health security agency team of suspected cases of certai infectious diseases

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10
Q

What should registered medical practitioners do in regards to urget cases of infective notifiable diseases?

A

Urgent cases should be reported by phone within 24hrs

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11
Q

What are the possible outcomes of reporting an infective notifialbe disease?

A
  • Isolation
  • Exclusion
  • Post-exposure prophylaxis
  • Immunisation
  • Further laboratory testing
  • Control measures
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12
Q

What are the considersation for when to notify about an infective disease?

A
  • The nature of suspected infection (how contagious)
  • The ease of spread
  • The ways in which the spread of the infection can be prevented or controlled
  • The patients circuumstances (age, sex, occupation)
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13
Q

Name 10 examples of notifiable diseases

A
  • Covid-19
  • SARS CoV-2
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14
Q

What are needlestick injuries?

A

An incident in which the blood of a patient comes into contact with the blood of a health care worker

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15
Q

What are the three types of exposure in healthcare settings associated with significant risk from blood or higher risk body. Provide examples

A
  1. Percutaneous injury - e.g. from needles, sharp instruments, bone fragments, significant bites which break the skin
  2. Expsoure of broken skin - e.g. abrasions, cuts, eczma
  3. Exposure of mucous membranes including eyes and mouth
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16
Q

a) What are blood born viruses (BV)?
b) What are the 3 blood born viruses?
c) Put them in order of most infectious to least infectious
d) What are the transmission rates for these blood born viruses?

A

a) Viruses which can be present in blood or other bodily fluids, and which have high potential for transmission to another person by direct contact with their blood or susceptible fluids
b) Hepatitis B (HBV), Hepatitis C ( HBC), Human immunodefeciency (HIV)
c) 1. Hepatitis B (HBV), Hepatitis C ( HBC), Human immunodefeciency (HIV)
d) HBV = 30% ; HCV = 3% ; HIV = 0.3%

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17
Q

a) Describe the management of exposure to HBV
b) Describe the managment of exposure to HCV

A

a) Immunisation status is paramount (immune/non-immune recieptant)

Booster dose of HBV vaccine or HBIG

b) No PEP

Follow-up is key to making sure any transmission is detected (blood test, regular follow-up by occupational health referal to viral hepatitis clinic)

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18
Q

a) What is the main infectious material?
b) What are other potential infectious material?

A

a) Blood

b)

  • Amniotic fluid
  • Vaginal secretion
  • Semen
  • Human breast milk
  • Cerebrospinal fluid
  • Peritoneal fluid (in abdominal cavity)
  • Pleural fluid (in layers of pleura that covers the lung and chest cavity)
  • Pericardial fluid (secreted by the serous layer of the pericardium in heart muscle)
  • Saliva in association with dentistry (likeley to be contaminated with blood even when not visibly so)
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19
Q

a) Which influenza vaccine is used in children?
b) Which influenza vaccine is used in ages over 65
c) Which type of influenza vaccine is used for quadrivalent: H1N1, H3N2, influenza B two subtypes?

A

a) Live attenuated (LAIV) quadrivalent
b) Trivalent adjuvanted inactivated vaccine
c) Inactivated influenzas vaccine

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20
Q

Name the non-infectious bodily fluids if there is no blood

A
  • Urine
  • Vomit
  • Saliva
  • Faeces
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21
Q

Describe the management of needle stick injury

A
  • Encourage the wound to bleed, ideally by holding it under running water
  • Wash the wound using running water and plenty of soap
  • Do not scrub the wound while you’re washing it
  • Do not suck the wound
  • Dry the wound and cover it with a waterproof plaster or dressing
  • Contact site nurse from operative centre - assess risk and requirements for attendance
  • If high risk for HIV - attend A&E for assessment staff member
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22
Q

What HIV Art drugs to prescribe for PEP?

A
  • Tenofovir disoproxil 245mg/emtricitabine 200mg and Raltegravir 1200mg once daily
  • PEP should be initiated as soon as possible after exposure, preferably within 24 hrs, but can be considered up to 72hrs
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23
Q

Describe how viruses infect human cells

A
  1. Attachment
    * Virus attaches to a specific human cell-surface receptor via their capsids or envelope proteins
  2. Penetration
    * Fusion: attachment to the receptor causes a change in the viral envelope, allowing the membranes to fuse.
    * Viropexis: Virus taken up in an endocytic vesicle and the virus enters the cytoplasm. If the virus has an envelope, this fuses with the vesicle membrane, from within the cell.
    * Receptor-mediated endocytosis: Virus particles are transported through the plasma membrane to clathrin-coated pits and enter the cell as the clathrin-coated pit invaginations. These vesicle fuses with an acidic endosome allowing uncoating to take place.
  3. Uncoating
    * Enzymes from the virus or host degrade the capsid and release the genomic material into the host cell cytoplasm.
  4. Replication
    * DNA-dependent DNA polymerase- makes a complementary strand of DNA, converting a single strand into a double strand.
    * DNA-dependent RNA polymerase- uses viral DNA to produce mRNA, which can then be translated into proteins and other enzymes on host ribosomes.
    * RNA-dependent DNA polymerase (reverse transcriptase)- makes a complementary strand of DNA from RNA strands.
    * RNA-dependent RNA polymerase- makes a complementary strand of RNA.
  5. Assembly
    * Some of the mRNA produced is translated on host ribosomes into viral proteins
    * Viral proteins assemble into new nucleocapsids with replicated viral genomic material.
    * May be followed by modification (or maturation) of the viral protein, which may take place after the virus has been released from the host cell, such as in HIV.

Release

  • Some viruses are released through lysis of the host cell, enveloped viruses bud off.
  • New virions accumulate near the cell membrane, which then envelopes them and forms a bud that breaks off from the host cell, releasing the virions into the environment.
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24
Q

a) What is influenza?
b) State the 3 types
c) Which types are responsibe for most clinical cases?
d) What is the usual incubation period of inflenza?

A

a) An acute viral infection of the respiratory tract with frequent antigenic changes
b) A, B and C
c) A and B
d) 1-3 days

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25
Q

a) Which family do the 3 types of influenza virus belong to?
b) How many different RNA segments do infleunza A and B carry? and how many different proteins do they code for?
c) Which infleunza virus do subtypes only occur in?

A

a) Orthomyxoviridae family
b) A and B carry 8 different RNA segments that code for 11 different proteins types
c) Subtypes only occur in A viruses

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26
Q

a) Where is the initial site of influenza infection?
b) Which receptors do human influenza viruses prefer?
c) What does infection result?

A

a) mucosa in respiratory tract
b) a2, 6-linked sialic acid receptors present in the upper and lower respiratory tract
c) Degeneration of respiratory epithelial cells with loss of ciliated tufts

Desquamation (shedding of the outer layers of the skin)

Oedema (Swelling in the ankles, feet and legs)

Hyperaemia (excess of blood in the vessels supplying oropharynx)

Mononuclear cell infiltrates in lamina propria in respiratory tract

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27
Q

a) What are the risk of complications from influenza?
b) What factors do these risks depend on?

A

a) 1. Infection of lower respiratory tract
2. Admission to hospital
3. Death
b) All depends on factors such as ages and type of commodities

28
Q

a) What does influenza in ‘at risk groups’ mean?
b) Name 6 ‘at risk groups’

A

a) Means infection in people who are more likely than others to develop severe disease if they should be infected

b)

  • Chronic respiratory system diseases
  • Cardiovascular system diseases
  • Endocrine system diseases
  • Hepatic system diseases
  • Renal system diseases
  • Neurological/neuromuscular conditions
  • Conditions compromising respiratory functions e.g. BMI > 40 , age > 65
  • Immunosuppression
  • Antenatal women
29
Q

What do health and safety authority recommend for antenatal women regarding influenza

A

Recomend annual immunisation of antenatal women

30
Q

Describe the managment of influenza in ‘at risk groups’

A
  • Immunisation with inactivated influenza vaccine is important
  • Exposure prophylaxis has its role in preventing serious infection
  • Clinicians managing immunosuppressed patients/patients in ‘at risk group’ with lower respiratory tract infection should always consider influenza in addition to other opportunuistic infections
  • Empirical treatment should be considered pendingresults of viral PCR screen
31
Q

What is the treatment for influenza?

A

Neuaminidase inhibitors: Oseltamvir, Zanamivir

32
Q

a) What is respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
b) What is it the major cause of?
c) What can it cause in the first 2 years of life?

A

a) A common respiratory virus
b) It is the major cause of lower respiratorty (LRT) and upper respiratory tract infection in young children and adults
c) Can life-threatening lower repiratory tract infections in first 2 years of life

33
Q

What are predisposing factors of respiratory syncytial virus?

A
  • Prematurity
  • Low birth weight
  • Congenital cardiopulmonary disease
  • Immunodeficiency
  • Maternal smoking (tobacco exposure)
  • Male sx
  • Day care attendance
  • Overcrowding
  • Lack of breastfeeding
  • Low socio-economic status
34
Q

a) Which family does respiratory syncytial virus (RVS) belong to?
b) Which genus does RSV belong two?
c) Name the two supgroubs it comprimises of

A

a) Paramyxovirdae family
b) Pneumovirus genus
c) RSV/A and RSV/B

35
Q

a) Describe how RSV is transmitted?
b) How does entry occur
c) What is the incubation period?

A

a) resparatory secretions

  • Direct conctact
  • Via fomites (objects or materials which are likely to carry infection, such as clothes, utensils, and furniture)
  • By large droplets

b) Through contact with nasal mucosa or eyes
c) Varies from 2-8 days

36
Q

Describe the pathogenesis of RSV

A
  1. Necrosis of bronchiolar epithelium with denudation (loss of surface layers) of the ciliated epithelial cells
  2. Lymphocytes migrate into affected tissue
  3. The submucosa and adventitia become oedematous
  4. Increased secretion from mucous-producing cells –> mucus builds up
  5. Plugs consisiting of mucous, cellular debris, fibrin strands occulade the smaller bronchioles
37
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of RSV in infants

A
  • Bronchitis
  • Pneumonia
  • Croup (infection of upper espiratory tract)
  • Exacerbation of asthma
  • Upper respiratory tract infection
  • Otitis media (ear infection of middle ear)
38
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of RSV in older childrean and adults?

A
  • Upper respirartory tract infection
  • Croup
  • Laryngitis (Larynx/voice box becomes swollen)
  • Bronchitis
  • Exacerbation of asthma
  • Pneumonia
  • Exacerbation of chronic obstruction pulmonary disease (COPD)
39
Q

What is the characteristic illness caused by RSV?

A

Bronchiolitis

40
Q

What are the clincal symptoms of RSV?

A
  • Expiratory wheezing
  • Cough and coryza
  • Air trapping
  • Nasal flaring
  • Subcostal retractions
  • Cyanosis
  • Fever only in 50% of infants requiring admission
41
Q

How do you diagnose RSV?

A

Clinical (age, season, clinical manifestation)

Lab diagnosis (samples to collect):

  • Nasopharyngeal aspirate
  • Nasal swabs
  • Endotracheal aspirate/BAAL from those intubated

Nucleic acid detection (Rt-PCR)

Antibody (acute and convalescent sera in adults)

42
Q

a) Describe prophylaxis of RSV?
b) Which type of ‘high risk’ people is prophylaxis of RSV recommended in?

A

a) Passive immuno-prohylaxis

  • Humanised monoclonal antibody specific for antigenic epitope A at the F protein of RSV
  • Provided passive immunity against RSV
  • Has been approved for use in high-risk children

b) Recommended to those high risk due to:

  • Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
  • Congenital heart disease
  • Severe combined heart disease
43
Q

Describe supportive treatment of RSV infection

A
  • Healthy children and immunocompetent healthy adults require supportive treatment only
  • Hypoxemia, aponea, and poor oral intake in children < 1 year of age require hospitalisation
  • Inspired O2 concentration and iv fluid may required
  • No recommendations for glucocorticoids or bronchodilators. Antibiotics only if bacterial superinfection
44
Q

a) Describe antiviral treatment of RSV infection in children?
b) Why is it being used rarely in children?
c) What is the duraton of therapy in immunocompromised?

A

a) Ribavirin has been licensed as an aerosol treatment of RSV in children
b) Due to concerns regarding efficacy in children and drug administration iusses it is being used rarely except in immunocompromised
c) 5 days

45
Q

What are the seasonal coronaviruses?

A

Alpha coronaviruses - 229E and NL63

Beta coronavirus - OC43 and HKU1

46
Q

a) What are the symptoms of upper respiratory infections (URI)
b) Name upper resipiratory viruses

A

a) sore throat,dry throat, rarely pneumonia (except sometimes NL63) , mild diarrhoea in children
b) Rhinovirus, Adenovirus, Parainfluenza 1-4, Human Metapneumovirus, Enterovirus

47
Q

a) What is SARS CoV-2?
b) Describe the transmission of SARS CoV-2
c) What is the incubation period?

A

a) A respiratory virus

b)

  • Respiratory droplets
  • Hand-to-mucus membrane contact - sticks to skin easily ( T zone area vulnerable)
  • Airborne
  • Faecal/Oral - viral shedding present in stool and diarrhoea is common

c) 2-10 days

48
Q

What are the symptoms of SARS-CoV-2?

A
  • Fever or chills
  • Cough
  • Short of breath or difficulty breathing
  • Fatigue
  • Muscle or body aches
  • Headache
  • Loss of taste or smell
  • Sore throat
  • Congestion or runny nose
  • Nausea or vomiting
  • Diarrhoea
49
Q

Describe the course of SARS-CoV-2 infection

A

Week 2

  • 15-20% develop severe dysponea due to viral pneumonia requiring hospitilization, supportive care and oxygen

Week 2-3

  • In hospitilised patients, 1/3 ultimately need ITU care, with up to half needing intubation
  • Can rapildy decline (over 12-24hrs) from mild hypoxia to frank ARDS (acute respiratory distress syndrome)
  • Cytokine storm, multi-ogan failure
  • Late stage sudden cardiomyopathy/viral myocarditis, cardiac shock
50
Q

List the co-morbidities and risk conditions of SARS-CoV-2

A
  • Age
  • Hypertension
  • Diabetes mellitus
  • Coronary Heart Disease
  • Cerebrovascular Disease
  • COPD
  • Malignancy
  • Immunosuppression
51
Q

How can you diagnose SARS-CoV-2 on pesenting symptoms and examination

A
  • Presenting symptoms: fever, cough
  • Chest examination: rales (small clicking, bubbling or rattlling sounds in lungs) or rhonchi (coarse rattling respiratory sounds)
  • Tachycardia and tachypnoea
  • May presentas severe asthma or COPD exacerbation
  • Hypoxia
52
Q

What are the possible results of a full blood count of someone with SARS-CoV-2

A
  • Lymphopenia (lower lymphocyte count)
  • Neutrophilia (higher neutrophil count)
  • Dernaged D-dimers (D-dimer is a protein fragment that’s made when a blood clot - significant blood clot
  • Elevated Alanaine aminotransferase (ALT) - ALT concentrated in liver could indicate liver damage
  • Elevated Lactated dehydrogenase (LDH) - possible tissue damage
  • High CRP
  • High ferritin levels (too much iron) may be associated with greater illness severity
53
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for SARS-CoV-2

A
  • Nose & throat swab for RT-PCR
  • Endotracheal fluid (ITU) for RT-PCR
  • POCT (Point of care testing): RT-PCR
  • LAMP (Loop-mediated isothermal amplification testing) – using genetic material
  • Antigen tests: Lateral flow
  • Anti-N antibody, Anti-S antibody
54
Q

What is the treatment of asymptomatic and have very mild symptoms (absence of viral pneumnia and hypoxia) of SARS-CoV-2?

A

No treatment

55
Q

Whatis the treatment of patients requiring hospital admission?

A

Anti-viral therapy: Molnupiravir, Remdesivir

Monoclonal antibodies(mAB): Ronapreve

Glucocorticosteroid (anti-inflammatory drug), Oxygen

56
Q

Which severe disases that can be caused by SARS-CoV-2 should you manage?

A
  • Pneumonia
  • Hypoxemic respiratory failure/ARDS
  • sepsis and septic shock
  • Cardiomyopathy (any heart muscle disease)
  • Arrhythmia (abnormality of heart rhythms)
  • Acute kidney injury (AKI)
  • Secondary bacterial and fungal infections
  • Thromboemolism (blood clots in the veins)
  • Gastrointestinal bleeding
57
Q

a) What are the types of HIV?
b) What is the family and genus of HIV?
c) Which enzyme in HIV transcribes the genome to form double-stranded DNA which integrated into host genomic DNA?
d) How many genetic groups of HIV are there? and name them
e) Which group of HIV-1 dominate the pademic and what are subtypes of this group?

A

a) HIV-1 and HIV-2
b) Family: Retroviridae, Genus: Lentivirus
c) Reverse transcriptase
d) 4 & they re: M,N,O,P
e) HIV-1 group M

Sub types: A, B, C, D, E, F, H, K

58
Q

Describe the HIV life cycle

A
  1. HIV approaches human CD4 T-lymphocytes
  2. Binding – HIV binds with glycoproteins to CD4 receptor and another co-receptor protein
  3. Fusion – virus fuses with host cell and releases RNA
  4. Reverse transcription – reverse transcriptase converts single stranded RNA into double stranded HIV DNA
  5. Integration – HIV DNA enters host nucleus and is integrated into hosts DNA, using integrase which creates provirus
  6. Transcription – provirus becomes active and creates copied of HIV genomic material using RNA polymerase
  7. Assembly – protease cuts long chain and assembles virus particle containing HIV RNA
  8. Budding – Newly assembled virus bud and takes a part of cells outer envelope
  9. Immature virus breaks free of infected cell
  10. Maturation – protease completes cutting and HIV can go and infect other cells
59
Q

a) Describe the transmission of HIV
b) Which type of people does the HIV population mainly comprise of?

A

a) When fluids (blood, semen, vaginal secretion sor breast milk) come into contact:

  • With mucous membranes, damaged tissue or is injected into the body
  • Through vagina,oral or anal sex, contaminated needles and IV drug use

b)

  • Men who have sex with men
  • People who inject drugs
  • People in prisons
  • Sex workers and their clients
  • Transgender people
  • Perinatala transmission during pregnancy
  • Labour and delivery or breastfeeding
  • Occupational exposure via needle stick
60
Q

What are the manifestations of HIV?

A
  • Fever
  • Pharyngitis
  • Headache
  • Myalgia
  • Arthralgia
  • Malaise (overall feeling of discomfort and lack of well-being)
  • Non-pruritic (non-itchy), maculopapular (flat and raises) rash on face and trunk
  • Generalised lymphadenopathy (swollen nodes)
61
Q

What are the systemic and oran-specific manifestation of HIV?

A
  • Dermatological
  • CNS
  • Peripheral NS
  • Respiratory
  • Mouth
  • Blood
62
Q

a) What is a CD4 count?
b) What does it measure in terms of a persons immune system?
c) What is it used to determine regarding HIV
d) What is the approximate adult value?

A

a) A test to measure the number of CD4 cells in your blood
b) Measures state of a person’s immune function
c) Determines stage of HIV progression and risk of opporunistic infection
d) 500-1300

63
Q

a) What type of test is HIV-1 virus load?
b) What does it detect?
c) When is it used?
c) What does a higher viral load mean

A

a) Serelogical test
b) Detects amount of virus present
c) During acute infection to detect virus
d) Higher viral load increases risk of diseases progression and HIV transmission

64
Q

What are the 5 C’s that the WHO recommends all HIV testing services must follow?

A
  • Informed consent
  • Confidentiality
  • Counselling pre- and post- testing
  • Correct test results
  • Connection (linkage to care, treatment and other HIV services)
65
Q

Describe the managment of HIV

A
  • No cure
  • Effective antiretroviral (ARVs) drugs can control virus and prevent transmission
  • Oral pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP) of HIV is the daily use of antiretroviral (drugs used to treat HIV - ARVs) by HIV-negative people to block the acquisition of HIV
  • Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) is the use of ARVs within 72 hours of exposure to HIV to prevent infection.
66
Q

a) Name the classes of anti-retroviral treatment
b) How many different ARV medications are used for therapy and what do they help prevent

A

a)

  • Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTIs)
  • Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTIs)
  • Protease inhibitors (PIs)
  • Integrase inhibitors (INSTIs)
  • Fusion inhibitors (FIs)
  • Chemokine receptors antagonist (CCRS antagonists)
    b) 3 or more
67
Q

a) Why does AIDS occur?
b) How is it diagnosed?
c) What are some of the systemic and organ-specific manifestations of AIDS?

A

a) If HIV patients go untreated
b) Diagnosis of AIDS is made when CD4 count is less than 200

c)

  • Opportunistic infections
  • Onological complication
  • Cardiovasuclar compplications
  • CNS complication