VetPrep-NonSA Flashcards
You have arrived at a farm with a history of acute outbreak of sudden death. Pigs average 80 lbs and the producer has lost 25 pigs out of 1,150 in the last 2 days. Several of the dead pigs have blood tinged fluid coming out of their noses. Which of the following is your top differential?
a. vit D deficiency
b. Actinobacilus pleuropneumoniae
c. mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
d. porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome (PPRS)
e. rodenticide poisoning
B. The correct answer is Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae (APP). The virulence of APP is due to exotoxin production by the bacteria which causes a vasculitis and hemolysis, especially in the lungs.
Rodenticide poisoning of an entire group of pigs is extremely rare as it would require large amounts of poison mixed in the feed. Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae is a slow growing organism and is not associated with an acute outbreak with sudden death. Porcine reproductive and respiratory syndrome is a common cause of respiratory outbreaks in pigs but usually does not cause high mortality by itself (co-infections are the culprit). Vitamin D deficiency alters calcium and phosphorus homeostasis.
A 4-day old bull calf has been unable to bear weight on the right forelimb since birth which was an assisted delivery in anterior presentation using a calving aid. There is loss of muscle tone and markedly reduced reflexes in the right foreleg (see image). The right foreleg is non-painful on palpation. The left foreleg and the hindlimbs are weight bearing with normal reflexes. What should you tell the farmer?
[pic - carpus bent, dorsal surface on ground]
a. The calf appears to have a radius fracture from traction at birth and is likely to improve with splinting of the distal limb
b. The calf appears to have right sided radial nerve paralysis due to traction at birth and prognosis for recovery is grave; the calf should be euthanized
c. The calf appears to have a fracture of the distal third metacarpal growth plate due to traction at birth and has an excellent prognosis to improve with supportive care
d. The calf appears to have a right brachial plexus avulsion due to traction at birth and it is unknown whether it will improve with time
The most likely conditions to consider for this calf are brachial plexus avulsion and radial nerve paralysis due to traction at birth. This injury results in an inability to extend the elbow, carpus and fetlock and bear weight on the affected limb with loss of muscle over the shoulder with resultant prominent spine of the shoulder blade. There is a dropped elbow, scuffing of the hooves as the leg is moved forward, and the foot is knuckled over at rest. Depending on the severity of injury, many calves can recover with supportive care. It is often recommended to carefully splint the distal limb to prevent contraction of the flexor tendons.
Other differentials could include spinal cord trauma or congenital sarcocystosis. Fractures are less likely given the presentation and lack of pain on palpation.
You are called to a farm that just purchased 500 head of feeder pigs averaging 55 lb. The pigs arrived 3 days ago and everything seemed fine until today. Today there are 6 pigs that are lying down on their sides and paddling and a few others that are weak and staggering. What should you do next?
a. check feed for mycotoxin
b. check for rodents
c. feed availability
d. water availability
e. check abx in ration
d. The correct answer is to check water availability in all pens. The clinical presentation is very typical for water deprivation/salt toxicity. Water deprivation will result in acute cerebral edema due to the accumulation of sodium ions in the brain. To prevent further water damage, water must be turned back on slowly (small amounts frequently) to prevent further cerebral edema from occurring as the animals become re-hydrated.
You are hired by the potential buyer to examine a valuable 3-month old calf for purchase as part of a pre-purchase examination. You note that the calf appears healthy other than having a temperature of 103F, 39.4 C and having some small raised lesions in the mouth around the gums of the incisors and on the dental pad, as shown in the photo. You suggest some lab tests and another exam in three weeks, and tell the buyer that you think the calf most likely has ________.
bovine papular stomatitis
BPS is one of two parapox viruses that affect cattle; the other is pseudocowpox. The third parapoxvirus is contagious ecthyma of sheep and goats. Humans can get all three. BPS is a common and usually mild “calfhood” disease, often unnoticed, but it has caused significant mortality in some groups of calves (perhaps due to some immunosuppression). The best course of action is to isolate this calf and rule out BVD by testing for it, then wait to see if the calf recovers in about three weeks. The raised lesions, and lack of other oral lesions, and lack of GI signs tend to make BPS more likely here than BVD.
You examine a herd of sheep and find that many sheep have proliferative, crusting lesions of the mucocutaneous junctions of the mouth and nose. They are otherwise relatively healthy, although some of the nursing females have similar lesions on their udders. The farmer reports that many of his sheep have had these before and that it eventually just goes away. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Foot-and-mouth disease
b. Vesicular stomatitis
c. Bluetongue
d. Contagious ecthyma
d. The correct answer is contagious ecthyma. FMD, VSV, and bluetongue cause vesicles and ulcers rather than proliferative, crusting lesions and usually will have other systemic signs as well; also, they are unlikely to recover spontaneously. Contagious ecthyma is a zoonotic poxvirus.
A group of 4-week old piglets presents for depression, anorexia, and lethargy. They all have brown exudative spots on the skin of their heads, axillae, and groins. Some of the lesions are brown to black crusts. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Pityriasis rosea
b. Staphylococcus hyicus
c. Pediculosis
d. Dermatosis vegetans
b. The correct answer is Staphylococcus hyicus. S. hyicus infections in pigs are also known as exudative epidermitis or greasy pig disease. The disease affects piglets less than 8 weeks of age and seldomly adults. The clinical signs and lesions are those described in the question. Morbidity and mortality is usually high in younger pigs. There are not many other swine diseases that appear clinically like this, so diagnosis is usually based on history and clinical signs.
Pediculosis causes pruritus and anemia. Dermatosis vegetans is a semilethal hereditary defect that causes macules and papillomas around the coronary band of pigs. Pityriasis rosea is characterized by raised circular lesions on the ventral abdomen. Pityriasis rosea resolves on its own in a few weeks without any treatment.
Greasy pig disease
staph hyicus
high morbidity and mortality in young pigs.
CS: brown exudative spots, some have brown/black crusts
Caseous Lymphadenitis
caused by corynebacteriumpsuedotuberculosis
Bovine diseases caused by clostridia
black leg
black disease
redwater (bacillary hemoglobinuria)
malignant edema
Aujeszky’s disease
eradicated from US
pseudorabies in pigs
CS: few day old pigments trembling, hypersalivation, ataxia, nystagmus, seizures, death.
A concerned client calls your clinic for information regarding a pet macaque she reluctantly inherited from her next door neighbor. She understands that non human primates should not be kept as pets and will be donating the animal to a primate sanctuary. She received the following health information from the neighbor and wants to make sure it is accurate since she will be forwarding it to the sanctuary with the macaque. Which of the these statements on the zoonotic diseases of macaques is NOT true?
a. Herpes B is viral disease of macaques but it is not transmissible to humans.
b. Macaques and other nonhuman primates can be vaccinated safely with killed rabies vaccines.
c. Macaques and other non human primates are susceptible to measles and, therefore, should be vaccinated.
d. Macaques and other non human primates are susceptible to tuberculosis.
a. Herpes B, caused by herpesvirus simiae, is transmissible to humans and can cause fatal infections through bites, scratches, or exposure to the tissues or secretions of macaques. Therefore, this is the only statement that is NOT true and therefore the correct answer for this question.
Killed rabies vaccines are safe and recommended in non human primates in contact with humans. Macaques and other non human primates are susceptible to tuberculosis cause by Mycobacterium tuberculosis, M. bovis, and M. avium. Measles can cause infection and disease in non human primates therefore measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) vaccines are recommended.
Several weaner pigs have developed anorexia, followed by diarrhea and edema of the eyelids, forehead and lips. The pigs also have dyspnea and are open mouth breathing. Some are weak and circling. What pathogen is the most likely cause?
a. Porcine Parvovirus
b. Transmissible gastroenteritis virus
c. Salmonella typhimurium
d. Clostridium tetani
e. Enterotoxogenic E. coli
The edema disease producing E. coli produce a heat stable toxin called Stx2e (Shiga toxin 2e). When absorbed into the blood, this toxin destroys endothelial cells in small vessels, resulting in blood clots, hemorrhage, ischemic necrosis, and edema in vital organs, including the brain.
Before administering a general anesthetic to a ruminant it is vital to do what?
a. Place a fistula in the rumen so that rumen gas can escape to prevent bloat
b. Feed only grain for 24 hours prior to surgery to allow the rumen to empty out
c. Withhold feed and water for a period sufficient to minimize the chance that bloat or regurgitation will occur
d. Use a large dose of atropine
e. Pass a large stomach tube and leave it in place
c. In cattle this usually require 36 hours or more without feed and 12 to 24 hours without water. In small ruminants it requires less time. You should also keep the head slightly lower than the body so that if any regurgitation does occur the feed material runs out of the mouth quickly.
Which of these treatments is least effective for treating cyanide toxicity?
Supplemental oxygen
Methylene blue
Sodium thiosulfate
Sodium nitrate
a. The answer is supplemental oxygen. Cyanide blocks cellular respiration and blocks oxidative transport. As a result, hemoglobin cannot release oxygen to the tissues and venous blood stays saturated with oxygen and is bright red. Supplemental oxygen is unlikely to change this. The other three options are the usual treatments for cyanide toxicity.
You examine a small flock of chickens and find that about 5% of the 1-2 week old birds are exhibiting neurologic signs of ataxia, imbalance, and head and wing tremors. Postmortem examination of one of the affected animals reveals neuronal axon-type degeneration (ghost cells) in the brain stem and anterior horn of the spinal cord. You suspect that this is a case of avian encephalomyelitis. Which one of these treatment/management strategies is most appropriate for this disease?
a. Vaccinate 10-15 week old breeding animals
b. Vaccinate chicks at 1-3 days old
c. Treat chicks with oxytetracycline
d. Identify heterozygotes and do not breed them
e. Administer serum from recovered animals to affected animals
a. Avian encephalomyelitis is caused by a picornavirus. Transmission is commonly vertical (transovarian) but also can be lateral (fecal-oral) as the virus can survive in feces for several weeks. Many older animals remain carriers. Therefore, treating only the symptomatic animals is not an effective strategy. This is not a genetic disease and cannot be bred out of the population.
The best prevention strategy is to vaccinate breeder animals to prevent vertical transmission to progeny and to provide them with maternal immunity during the susceptible period.
A pet rabbit presents to you for mild dermatitis. On physical exam, you note a scaly dermatosis with areas of thinning on the dorsum. What is the most likely etiology?
Cuterebra Notoedres Cheyletiella Demodex Sarcoptes
c. The correct answer is Cheyletiella. This is the fur mite of rabbits and typically causes clinical signs as described in this question.
You are examining a 5-year old pony for lethargy, anorexia, and mild intermittent colic. Upon physical examination, you notice the abnormal finding in the image. Consumption of which of the following can produce these clinical signs and physical examination findings?
a. Red maple leaves (Acer rubrum)
b. Oak leaves and acorns (Quercus sp)
c. Yellow star thistle (Centaurea solstitialis)
d. Black walnut (Juglans nigra)
a. The sclera appears icteric. In combination with the clinical signs, ingestion of Red maple leaves would result in these signs due to hemolysis and low oxygen content of the blood. Oak is toxic but causes diarrhea and abdominal pain, whereas Black walnut is associated with laminitis. Yellow star thistle causes nigropallidal encephalomalacia resulting in CNS signs.
You are asked to examine some feeder pigs that have stopped eating yesterday. The group is lying down and seems lethargic. They have fevers of 105-106F (40.6 -41.1 C), firm dry feces, and the skin has rhomboid-shaped red blotches scattered on it. What treatment should be recommended?
Chloramphenicol Metronidazole Streptomycin Penicillin Gentamicin
Erysipelas is susceptible to penicillins, as well as tetracyclines (usually), lincomycin and tylosin. Chloramphenicol and nitroimidazoles (including metronidazole) are not approved for food animal use.
A dairyman’s favorite cow was bred by a new bull a few weeks ago and now his cow has pyometra. What agent is most likely responsible for causing the cow’s pyometra?
Brucellosis
Campylobacter fetus
Leptospirosis
Tritrichomonas foetus
The correct answer is tritrichomonas foetus. This organism is commonly associated with a post-coital pyometra in addition to causing early embryonic death. Campylobacter is a cause of early embryonic death but does not usually result in pyometra. Brucella will result in late term abortion. Leptospirosis is a cause of mid- to late-gestation abortions and not post-coital pyometras.
Which of the following is not a cause of teat lesions?
Herpes mammillitis Pseudocowpox Anaplasmosis Bluetongue virus Vesicular stomatitis
The correct answer is Anaplasmosis, which is a cause of extravascular hemolysis. Pseudocowpox is a parapox virus and results in proliferative teat lesions. Vesicular stomatitis is a reportable disease caused by a rhabdovirus. It is reportable because it is similar in presentation to foot and mouth disease. Clinical signs include ulceration of the teats and mouth. Bluetongue and herpes mammillitis also result in ulcerative lesions.
You are asked to perform a post mortem examination on a 2-year old sheep recently moved to a feedlot after giving birth to twins in the early summer. The farmer noted no signs of illness prior to finding the sheep acutely dead in the morning. An image of the gross post-mortem finding is shown below. You note widespread necrosis of the small intestine with fetid smelling contents. No volvulus is seen. You evaluate the urine and find glucosuria. There is softening of the brain and kidney tissues. Which of the following management considerations should you look into?
a. Evaluate pasture for toxic plants and the medication history of the flock
b. Evaluate vector control program and shearing protocols
c. Evaluate the density of the herd and other causes of stress
d. Evaluate breeding soundness evaluation program and quarantine program for newly introduced sheep
e. Evaluate herd vaccination program and diet
You should be suspicious of type D Clostridial enterotoxemia based on the acute mortality and necropsy lesions in the intestines. Additional findings consistent with enterotoxemia are the glucosuria and soft kidneys. Enterotoxemia is sometimes referred to as overeating disease because of its association with changes in diet to concentrates or higher grain concentrations. It is also sometimes referred to as pulpy kidney disease because of the changes that occur to the kidneys.
Enterotoxemia caused by Clostridium perfringens type D affects sheep and goats of all ages (from 1 week to several years of age).
A diagnosis of enterotoxemia is suggested when the sudden death of concentrate-fed animals that have not been vaccinated for Clostridium perfringens type D occurs.
In young animals, this commonly occurs after abundant nursing or grazing on improved pastures, high quality hays and/or concentrates/grains. In older animals as in this case, the disease corresponds with the finishing or feedlot period and is often associated with a high grain diet. Enterotoxemia is one of the most common causes of death in feeding lambs.
Prevention depends on vaccination against Clostridial toxoid and avoiding rapid changes in diet.
Several 6 month-old calves have died on a large ranch, and you have performed a post-mortem exam and diagnosed blackleg (see image). The owner, who has never vaccinated his calves, would like your recommendations for prevention.
a. Give Fusobacterium necrophorum vaccine to to all calves starting at 4 to 6 months of age
b. Vaccinate all calves at 4 to 6 months of age with killed vaccine containing Clostridium septicum and several other common Clostridial organisms. Correct Answer
c. Vaccinate all animals starting at one year of age and annually thereafter, using killed vaccine containing several common Clostridial organisms
d. Give penicillin whenever handling the calves, as this eliminates the Clostridium chauvoei spores from tissues
e. Give Clostridial antiserum to all calves at the time they are handled for branding and castration
b. Blackleg is caused by Clostridium chauvoei, but can also be seen with Cl. septicum or Cl. sordellii (often called malignant edema). Vaccines containing up to 8 different Clostridia are often used. Calves under one year old are most susceptible. On high-risk farms it may be necessary to start vaccination at a younger age or also vaccinate cows to maintain high colostral levels of antibody, and/or to give a booster (second) dose 4 to 8 weeks following the initial dose to calves. Annual revaccination of at least yearlings is also recommended.
Which of the following viruses has a latent phase within the trigeminal ganglion of chickens, allowing a clinically healthy chicken to carry this virus into a new poultry flock?
Infectious bronchitis virus Infectious bursal disease virus Lymphoid leukosis virus Fowl pox virus Infectious laryngotracheitis virus
ILT is a herpesvirus with a latent phase in neural tissue.
A 5-year old ewe presents as a result of isolating herself. She had just twinned two months ago and she is not vaccinated. On physical examination, she has an enlarged left half of the udder. It is cold, blue, and black. Serosanguinous milk can easily be expressed, and it is foul-smelling (see image). What two organisms can cause this presentation?
a. Staphylococcus aureus and Mannheimia hemolytica
b. Arcanobacterium pyogenes and Streptococcus agalactiae
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa and Pasteurella multocida
d. E. coli and Mycoplasma agalactiae
Gangrenous mastitis is caused by Mannheimia spp. and Staphylococcus aureus and occurs sporadically during the first 3 months of lactation. It is generally associated with poor milk supply related to ewe undernutrition and over vigorous suckling by the lambs.
Despite antibiotic and supportive therapy, the prognosis is grave, and gangrenous udder tissue eventually sloughs leaving a large granulating surface with superficial bacterial infection. The granulation tissue continues to proliferate over the coming months. These ewes are unsuitable for breeding stock. The infected granulation tissue and resultant drainage lymph node enlargement would result in carcass condemnation (and raise genuine welfare concerns). The fleece is very poor because growth has occurred during this period of illness. The ewe should be euthanized for welfare reasons at first presentation.
Control measures include ensuring ewes are well fed. Concentrates should be supplied to ewes and lambs when pasture is poor. No ewe should be expected to rear triplets. Teat lesions should be identified and treated with topical antibiotics.
A client brings the one-half inch grub shown in the image to you one spring day, telling you it emerged from a hole in the back of one of his prize show cattle. He wants to know what to treat his cattle with and when.
a. Organophosphates in summer
b. Moxidectin now, in spring
c. Thiabendazole in early fall
d. Ivermectin in February
e. Ivermectin in early fall
This is a cattle warble called Hypoderma. The 2 species are H. bovis and H. lineatum. They undergo a long migration in tissues and only emerge from the back of the animal in spring. The crucial treatment time is early fall when larvae are just beginning to migrate in tissues. Organophosphates or one of the macrocyclic lactones (ivermectin, doramectin, eprinomectin or moxidectin) are effective.
What is the main vector of Heartwater disease?
Boophilus
Dermacentor
Amblyomma
Rhipicephalus
The correct answer is Amblyomma spp. Heartwater is a disease found in Africa and the West Indies, caused by Ehrlichia ruminantium. The disease is tick borne and results in fatal encephalitis in sheep, goats and cattle.
A herd of beef cows has been presented to you with an increase in lameness, diarrhea, poor body condition and infertility. You note achromotrichosis among several of the cows and decide to measure copper levels. What is the most sensitive way to measure copper levels?
a. Serum sample copper levels
b. Plasma sample for copper levels
c. Splenic biopsy copper levels
d. Brain sample for copper levels
e. Liver biopsy for copper levels
A liver biopsy is needed. Copper is stored in the liver, and the liver is very good at maintaining copper homeostasis until the very end. Therefore, the blood levels might look good, but in reality, the liver may have very little copper left to share with the rest of the body.
Which of the following mycotoxins can cause hyperestrogenism and pseudopregnancy in pigs?
Aflatoxin Ochratoxin Fumonisin Zearalenone Ergot
Zearalenone is a potent estrogenic metabolite produced by some Fusarium species. Young gilts will be most affected. Young boars will also have reduced libido.
A 16-year old budgerigar presents with progressive unilateral paresis of the right leg (see image). There is normal flexion and extension of the hip joint with decreased flexion, extension, and sensation below the knee. The remainder of your skeletal and neurologic examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is most likely in this bird?
Botulism Renal neoplasia Lead toxicosis Marek's disease Intervertebral disc disease
The signalment and progressive unilateral paresis are most suspicious for renal neoplasia of budgerigars. Affected birds develop paresis due to pressure exerted on the sciatic nerve by a renal tumor. There is typically normal flexion and extension of the hip joint with decreased flexion, extension, and sensation below the knee as described here.
Disc disease is uncommon in birds. Lead toxicity can lead to peripheral neuropathy and paresis but typically there are more multifocal or other accompanying signs such as polyuria/polydipsia, gastrointestinal signs, wing droop, head tilt, or convulsions. Marek’s disease typically affects younger animals. Botulism typically presents with flaccid paralysis of the legs, wings, and neck.
The carrier and reservoir of the herpes virus responsible for causing malignant catarrhal fever (MCF) in cattle in North America is chiefly the ____________?
Sand flies Culicoides sonorensis (a midge) Cattle persistently infected as a fetus Wildebeest Sheep
A high percentage of normal appearing sheep in North America are infected with MCF virus. Wildebeests are the reservoir of the African form of MCF.
Which of the following is not a form of anthrax in humans?
Ocular
Cutaneous
Intestinal
Pulmonary
The correct answer is ocular. Sorry, it’s a human health question, but it is a potential biochemical warfare agent and the public expects veterinarians like you to know this.
A 3-year old Holstein dairy cow, 3 weeks post partum, is presented with the complaint that she has dropped in milk production over the last several days. You perform a physical exam and the only abnormality you note is a large amount of ketone bodies in the milk and urine. You decide to administer glucose IV and insulin SQ. What else should this cow be administered?
IM parathyroid hormone Oral propylene glycol IV calcium gluconate SQ bovine somatotropin IM tetracycline
The oral propylene glycol will serve as a precursor for glucose production, and will help with the demands of lactation that are causing increased fat mobilization and ketosis. A fourth treatment that is sometimes used is corticosteroids, as they decrease milk production and increase gluconeogenesis.
