VetPrep - exotics Flashcards

1
Q

You are asked to examine a falcon which has been dysphagic and losing weight. You note whitish plaques in the back of the oral cavity. You make a saline smear of the feces and see motile trophozoites and suspect Trichomonas. What is the most appropriate treatment?

 Paraquat
 Ivermectin
 Metronidazole
 Clindamycin 
 Fenbendazole
A

The correct answer is metronidazole. The other drugs listed are not effective against Trichomonas. Carnidazole is another drug that is used frequently.

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2
Q

A chicken flock is having problems with mortality due to development of tumors, particularly in egg layers. You perform a post-mortem exam on a deceased chicken and find multiple focal grey tumors in the bursa, liver, spleen and kidney. Histologically, the tumors are composed of large lymphoid cells that are histologically uniform. You suspect that the flock may be affected by lymphoid leukosis. Which of the following is true about this disease?

a. The incubation period is 1-2 weeks
b. The most important route of transmission is respiratory
c. It is caused by viruses that are rapidly inactivated at ambient temperatures or by most disinfectants
d. Eliminating infected cocks will clear the flock of the problem within 4-6 months

A

Avian leukosis is caused by the strains of the leukosis/sarcoma group of avian retroviruses. Certain subgroups of these viruses can cause lymphoid leukosis which is a clonal malignancy of the bursal lymphoid system. Transformation can occur as soon as 1-2 months after infection although tumors can take several more months to develop.

The most important mode of transmission appears to be vertical due to shedding by the hen into the egg. This can result in a congenitally infected chicken that remains viremic for life. Horizontal infection can occur, primarily by fecal-oral transmission. For this reason, eliminating infected cocks will not dramatically influence the rate of infection.

In addition, the virus can cause a subclinical disease syndrome of decreased egg production without tumor formation that may actually be the more economically important form of the disease.

Lymphoid leukosis can be difficult to distinguish from Marek’s disease or from other B-cell lymphomas caused by reticuloendotheliosis virus. ELISA detection kits against several subgroups of avian leukosis viruses are available.

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3
Q

Many turkeys on a poultry farm develop whitish “wart-like” nodules and scabs on the comb, wattles, feet, and vent. Which management intervention would help prevent spread of the disease?

a. Add antibiotics to the drinking water
b. Immediate removal of fecal waste
c. Thoroughly disinfect pens and equipment
d. Raise the room temperature 5 degrees
e. Mosquito control
f. Tick control

A

e. The condition described here is the dry form of avian (fowl) pox. This is a relatively slow spreading disease that can be spread by contact or by mosquitoes that may harbor infective virus for greater than a month.

In the dry form of the disease, the main sign is raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas (head, legs, vent, etc.). The lesions heal in about 2 weeks. Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth may be seen. Mortality is low with this form of the disease. The wet form mainly involves the oral cavity and upper respiratory tract. Lesions are diphtheritic and can ulcerate or erode mucous membranes. Marked respiratory involvement can lead to mortality.

A diagnosis is usually based on flock history and presence of these lesions. This is a pox virus and there is no specific effective treatment but there is a vaccine. Disease control is best accomplished by preventive vaccine as sanitation alone will not prevent spread of disease. Several vaccines are available and a single application results in permanent immunity.

There are not many tick borne poultry diseases but they may include spirochaetosis and Pasteurella infection.

Raising the temperature 5 degrees may be part of the treatment for infectious bronchitis in chickens. Disinfecting pens +/- quarantine is done for quail bronchitis, aspergillosis, and ulcerative enteritis. Antibiotics in the drinking water are most effective for preventing secondary bacterial infections and for mycoplasma but not preventing spread of the virus.

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4
Q

When treating a foal with uroperitoneum, which of these fluids or fluid additives would be least appropriate?

 Saline 
 Potassium 
 Bicarbonate
 Insulin
 Dextrose
A

The correct answer is potassium. Animals with uroperitoneum are usually hyperkalemic and additional potassium in intravenous fluids would be contraindicated.

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5
Q

A horse presents to your clinic after ingesting a large amount of grain. What is your major concern?

 Impaction
 Acidosis
 Torsion
 Choke
 Laminitis
A

The correct answer is laminitis secondary to endotoxemia. Laminitis, endotoxemia, and diarrhea are commonly associated with grain overload and appropriate therapy to evacuate any remaining stomach contents, ameliorate endotoxin and prevent laminitis should be instituted immediately. Laxatives such as mineral oil are commonly administered.

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6
Q

A 5-year old mare is hospitalized for intestinal impaction. The horse passed the impaction today and now has diarrhea. How would you treat this horse?

 Intravenous fluids 
 Docusate sodium (DSS)
 Oral fiber
 Antibiotics
 Mineral oil
A

The correct answer is intravenous fluids. DSS, mineral oil, and fiber supplementation will likely not benefit a horse with diarrhea. There is no described infection, so antibiotics are not indicated at this time. IV fluids will help replace fluid losses associated with diarrhea and will help maintain a normal hydration state.

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7
Q

An adult horse presents to you for crusting lesions along the ventral midline. The lesions are relatively not pruritic and are very round and focal. What is the most likely cause of these lesions?

 Culicoides
 Hypoderma
 Habronema 
 Haematobia 
 Onchocerca
A

The correct answer is Haematobia. Haematobia irritans is a bigger problem in cattle than horses (they reproduce in cow feces) but can affect horses, especially ones that are near cattle. It typically causes ventral midline dermatitis with wheals with a central crust that progress to alopecia and ulceration with fairly focal lesions, rather than more diffuse lesions caused by culicoides. Onchocerca can cause dermatitis in the horse due to hypersensitivity to dying microfilariae. Lesions include alopecia and scaling of the ventral midline, face, and pectoral region. Often lesions are diamond shaped, and there may be a ““bull’s eye”” lesion on top of the head. Onchocerca is nonseasonal, in contrast to culicoides hypersensitivity, and variably pruritic. Ocular lesions can also occur with Onchocerca including uveitis, conjunctivitis, and keratitis. Culicoides hypersensitivity, also referred to as sweet itch, occurs due to allergy to the saliva of the gnat. It recurs seasonally in the warmer months and tends to worsen with age. Typically, horses are pruritic and develop lesions on the poll, mane, and tail from self trauma, although ventral midline dermatitis can occur as well. More chronically, scarring can occur. Treatment is to decrease exposure to the gnat and to treat with steroids. Habronemiasis is a condition where larvae of the stomach worm that emerge from flies feeding on pre-existing wounds or genitalia or eyes, then migrate into the tissue and cause a granulomatous reaction. Inside the granulomas, you can find dead larvae. Lastly, Hypoderma is a bigger problem in cattle but can occur in horses and typically creates nodules on the back that have a pore on top.

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8
Q

Entropion in foals?

A

normal. goes away spontaneously. Surgical correction if it doesn’t resolve.

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9
Q

horses with a-fib

A

tx. oral quinidine. (1a Na channel blocker) prolongs refractory period of myocardium, vagolytics.
doesnt work in all cases, side effects = oral ulcers, hypotension, allergic rxn.
Consider - electrical Cardioconversion, other drugs (flecainide)

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10
Q

You are called out to a horse farm to look into a recent storm of abortions. You find out that about 4 months ago, many of the foals developed copious nasal discharge. This was not treated, and the foals recovered over several weeks. The abortions that are currently occurring are in mares that are in their last trimester. What is your diagnosis?

Equine herpesvirus
Equine adenovirus
Equine viral arteritis virus
Equine influenza

A

The correct answer is equine herpesvirus. The key to answering this question is in the time frame. The foals developing clinical signs of herpesvirus infection several months prior to an abortion storm is classic for this virus. The mares are typically asymptomatic initially and then abort. It causes abortions in horses 7-11 months pregnant. Equine influenza and adenovirus do not cause abortions although they do cause respiratory signs. Equine viral arteritis is the second best choice, but it generally causes more mild respiratory signs and abortions during various stages of pregnancy. There also would not be the same lag period from when the foals got sick until when the mares started aborting.

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11
Q

An 8-year-old Warmblood gelding is presented to you for repeated but intermittent clinical signs of exercise intolerance, weakness, muscle fasiculations and a stiff abnormal hind-limb gait. The owners do not ride their horse regularly, but notice these clinical signs most often at the start of a trail ride. Based on the history, signalement and clinical signs, which of the following diseases to you suspect?

 Malignant Hyperthermia
 Polysaccharide Storage Myopathy (PSSM) 
 Glycogen Branching Enzyme Deficiency (GBED)
 Hyperkalemic Periodic Paralysis (HYPP)
 Immune-Mediated Myositis
A

Based on the breed and clinical signs, PSSM should be a top consideration. A subset of horses have a storage disorder in which there is an accumulation of glycogen and abnormal polysaccharide within the skeletal muscle. PSSM has been linked to an autosomal dominant mutation of the glycogen synthase gene in Quarter Horses. However, other breeds, such as Paint, Appaloosas, Warmbloods and draft horses can also be affected. Horses with PSSM often have elevations in creatine kinase and aspartate aminotransferase; rhabdomyolysis in PSSM likely results from an energy deficiency within the contracting muscles.

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12
Q

A 10-year old gelding presents for salivation and vesicular lesions on the tongue and on the inside of the mouth. A full physical exam shows that there are similar lesions on the feet of the horse as well. Which of the following is a possible diagnosis for this horse?

Foot-and-mouth disease
Swine vesicular disease
Vesicular stomatitis
Vesicular exanthema

A

The correct answer is vesicular stomatitis. Vesicular stomatitis is characterized by vesicle lesions on the tongue, inside of the mouth, teats, and feet. Besides horses, cattle, sheep, goats, and pigs are susceptible to the disease. The disease is differentiated from the others listed because horses are not naturally susceptible to the other diseases. The absence of papules and pustules allows us to differentiate vesicular stomatitis from horsepox.

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13
Q

Several of the 1-3 week-old broiler chicks on a small chicken farm are exhibiting stunted growth. On examination, you find that they also have decreased pigmentation of the skin, feet, and beak and many broken or twisted feathers. You perform a post-mortem examination of a few chicks and find that they have orange mucus in the small intestine, an enlarged proventriculus, a small gizzard and an atrophied pancreas. How should you treat the flock?

 Add fenbendazole to water for all birds
 Treat severely affected birds with oxytetracycline
 Cull affected birds daily 
 Spray birds with a permethrin solution
 In-ovo vaccination
A

The condition described is known as malabsorption syndrome, also known as runting-stunting syndrome or pale-bird syndrome. It is mainly seen in 1-3 week old chickens and appears to have a complex or multifactorial etiology related to numerous enteric viruses as well as possible mycotoxins.

Key clinical signs include the poor growth and feathering in birds of the appropriate age as well as abnormal feathers and pale feet and skin. Orange intestinal contents or feces is also a common finding.

There is no treatment and daily cull of affected birds in the appropriate age range is appropriate. Improved hygiene and sanitation, good nutrition and egg selection are also important management steps to minimize the damage from this condition. As no single specific cause is identified, the benefit of vaccination is unclear. There are vaccines against avian reovirus available but these are not given in-ovo.

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14
Q

Which of the following clinical signs would you expect in a rabbit with a gastric trichobezoar?

Diarrhea
Pruritus
Weight loss
Vomiting

A

The correct answer is weight loss. Trichobezoars (hair balls) get stuck in the stomach of rabbits and cause anorexia, weight loss, and scant stool production. Rabbits cannot vomit. Pruritus usually is not the predisposing factor to development of trichobezoars but rather, decreased gastrointestinal motility. Trichobezoars can be treated medically with supportive care and syringe feeding of a high-fiber food. Ideally, you want these to pass without surgery.

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15
Q

mycobacterium leprae reservoir

A

armadillo

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16
Q

You visit a fish hatchery and need to perform anesthesia on a fish to remove a foreign body. Which of these agents is approved for use in fish and what additional rules apply to its use?

a. Clove oil (Eugenol) - This can only be used in animals that will not be consumed by humans
b. Halothane - must be used in a vacuum system to collect volatile gas
c. Tricaine methanesulfonate (MS 222) - There is a 21 day withdrawal period before the fish can be consumed by humans
d. Chloral hydrate - There is a 14 day withdrawal period before the fish can be consumed by humans
e. Benzocaine hydrochloride - A mask and eye protection should always be worn when handling this agent

A

d.
Also known as Finquel, tricaine methanesulfonate (MS-222) is the only FDA approved agent for fish anesthesia. There is a mandatory 21 day withdrawal period before the fish can be used for consumption. The other agents listed have been used for fish anesthesia but are not FDA approved.

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17
Q

Nearly all of the turkeys in a small flock have acutely developed marked depression, anorexia, and diarrhea. Young turkeys are dying and older ones are failing to gain weight. You note that several turkeys have cyanosis and darkening of the head. You suspect that the turkeys have “bluecomb” and want to confirm your diagnosis. Which of following tests would be most useful in confirming this diagnosis?

a. Microscopic assessment of a blood smear
b. Direct fluorescent antibody for viral antigens in intestines
c. Bacterial culture of the feces using enrichment media
d. Blood culture
e. Fecal flotation and sedimentation
f. Histopathology of the comb

A

b. This condition, caused by a coronavirus is known as bluecomb, transmissible enteritis, or coronaviral enteritis. Signs may be similar to Salmonella or hexamitiasis (a protozoan parasite).

Definitive diagnosis is based on demonstration of coronaviral antigens in the intestines or by electron microscopy to detect coronavirus particles in the intestinal contents. There is also a commercial ELISA that can detect some infections.

The disease is usually treated supportively with supplemental heat, nursing care, and antibiotics to prevent secondary bacterial infections. There is no vaccine available so control depends on thorough cleaning and disinfection of buildings and equipment.

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18
Q

Which of the following diseases in chickens carries the best prognosis for recovery?

Avian influenza
Infectious laryngotracheitis
Infectious bursal disease
Infectious coryza

A

The correct answer is infectious coryza. Because infectious coryza is caused by a bacteria, it can be effectively treated in many cases with antibiotics, whereas the other diseases listed are viral and carry significantly higher morbidity and mortality with no specific treatment available.

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19
Q

What is the most common bacterial pathogen of fish worldwide? This organism is responsible for furunculosis of salmonids, goldfish ulcer disease, carp erythrodermatitis, and trout ulcer disease.

Aeromonas salmonicida
Flexibacter columnaris
Salmonella salmincola
Yersinia ruckeri

A

The correct answer is Aeromonas salmonicida. Yersinia ruckeri is the causative agent of enteric redmouth disease which is a benign disease with low mortality. Flexibacter columnaris is the causative agent of Columnaris disease (aka peduncle disease, fin rot, black patch necrosis, cotton wool disease). Clinical signs include whitish plaques that may have a red peripheral zone which then become erosions/ulcers and lead to necrosis of the skin.

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20
Q

A broiler flock has increased mortality and you conduct a necropsy to find three lesions: fibrinous pericarditis, perihepatitis and airsacculitis. What infectious agent is usually the cause of this classic triad of lesions?

 Staphylococcus aureus
 Mycoplasma synoviae
 Escherichia coli 
 Clostridium perfringens 
 Bordetella avium
A

E.coli is typically the cause of disease when this triad of lesions is seen. Large numbers of E. coli are often found in poultry houses due to fecal contamination. Poultry that are systematically infected with large numbers of pathogenic E coli gain access to the bloodstream from the respiratory tract or intestine. If the bird survives septicemia, they often develop subacute fibrinopurulent airsacculitis, pericarditis and perihepatitis as well as lymphocytic destruction of the bursa and thymus.

21
Q

Ich in fish

A
white spot disease
ichthyophthirius multifiliis
highly contagious
dx: microscopy at 40x
rx: formalin(and malachite green) or CuSO4 q2-3d for at least 3weeks
22
Q

whirling disease in fish

A
  • myxosoma cerebralis
  • rapid tail chasing in fingerlings
  • parasite infects cartilage in vertebral column and skull -> skeletal deformities
23
Q

amyloodinum in fish

A

‘velvet’ or ‘coral disease’

  • fish get gold/brown color
  • dino-flagellates - high mortality in marine fish
24
Q

chilodonella in fish

A

resp distress

dx: microscopy, heart shaped with parallel bands of cilia

25
Q

aphanomyces invadans in fish

A

REPORTABLE

epizootic ulcerative syndrome

26
Q

ulcerative enteritis in chickens?

pathogen?

A

clostridium colinum

CS: diarrhea(bloody or white), intestinal lesions, humped back, listless

27
Q

Cnemidocoptes pilae

A

Scaly face or scaly leg mite

  • beak deformity
    tx: dilute bovine ivermectin 10mg/mL 1:4 in propylene glycol and dose .01mL of diluted solution PO or IM
  • usually only show signs if immunocompromised.
28
Q

Ulcerative dermatitis

A

aka scale rot, necrotic dermatitis

tx: topical and systemic abx, hygeine
- in ball pythons, no underlying cause
- other snakes - poor hygiene, husbandry)infection of cutaneous erosions)

29
Q

Metabolic bone disese in reptiles

A

swollen limbs, face, abnormal gait, pathologic fractures, cloacal prolapse, muscle fasiculations, tetany

dx: rads show demineralization
tx: low plasma 25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

30
Q

uroliths in repitles

A
  • uroliths can surround eggs in the bladder. not uncommon, can be incidental. large ones can cause anorexia, egg binding
  • uric acid most common. +/- inflam leukogram.
  • UA doesnt help bc normal to have urate crystals
    dx: rads
31
Q

fowl cholera

A

pasteurella multocida
TURKEYS most severe
- outbreaks in young adults, physiologic stress , COOLER season
Acute: swelling of wattles, footpads, bursa, joints, ruffled feathers, cyanosis, sudden death (survivors -> carriers)
vs. Chronic: localizd infections

32
Q

fowl typhoid

A

salmonella enterica.

33
Q

Egg binding

A

prevent by feeding adequate calcium, minimize double yolking (excess methionine, light stimulation) and large eggs

34
Q

Vit A deficiency in birds

A
  • common predisposing factor for sinusitis
  • squamous metaplasia of epithelial tissue (GI, resp, urogen)
  • hyperkeratosis of feet
  • white hyperkeratotic plaques around eyes

dx: clinical signs and response to abx
tx: spirolina (vitA precursor) in feed
for sinusitis - culture and sen

35
Q

Rabbits - pastuerella multocida

A

ocular - conjunctivitis, epiphoria, NL duct obstruction, dacryocystitis
other - rhinitis, pneumonia, OM, abscess, genital infections, acute septicemia
tx: difficult, many remain persistently infected

36
Q

Cheyletiella in rabbits

A

tx: ivermectin or selamectin
weekly permethrin dusting of animals and bedding for environment
dichlorvos n o pest strip can be used in cage for ectoparasites but q24 twice weekly for 3 weeks

37
Q

Avian Influenza

A
  • Low Pathogenic (majority of infections) URI, dec egg production (low threat to people)
    vs. High Pathogenic (less common) REPORTABLE, zoonotic, cull
    CS: peracute death, severe URI, cyanotic comb/wattle
    *H5 and H7
  • Quarantine
  • necropsy: edema, multifocal HEMORRHAGE
  • reservoir: clinically noraal shorebirds and waterfowl
38
Q

Infectious Bronchitis

A

Infectious Bronchitis Virus - Coronavirus
Highly contagioius URI
*YOUNG gasping chickens
WRINKLED EGGS
CS: asymptomatic to RRR(resp, renal, repro)
- Reportable in some states
*Does not Hemagglutinate RBCs

39
Q

Which bird diseases have positive hemagglutination?

A

avian flu and Newcastle

40
Q

Infectious Coryza

A

CHICKENS
SWOLLEN INFRAORBITAL sinus
- avibacterium/ Haemophilus paragallinarum

41
Q

Infectious laryngotracheitis

A

REPORTABLE
>4wk
CS: neck extended, gasping, blood stained mouth
necropsy: bloody, caseous exudate in TRACHEA
- intranuclear inclusion bodies
IMMEDIATE VACCINATION

42
Q

Newcastle Disease

A

ALL REPORTABLE
1. Viscerotropic (VVND)
SQUARE HEAD (bilateral swelling)
100% Mortality in 2-3 days
CS: resp, neuro, green diarrhea, sudden death
HEMORRAGE and necrosis of LYMPHOID organs

  1. Neurotropic
    50% mortality
  2. Mesogenic
    low mortality

Lentogenic and asymptomatic enteric are not reportable

43
Q

Marek’s Disease

A

down, TORTICOLLIS, paralyzed chickens, one leg FORWARD, distorted iris shape
- 2-5m chickens (or turkeys raised near chickens)
- LARGE peripheral NERVES (sciatic)
LYMPHOID TUMORS
- vax at hatching or in ovo d18
HIGHLY CONTAGIOUS
4 forms: neuro, ocular, cutaneous, visceral, subclinical

44
Q

Infectious bursal disease

A
GUMBORO DISEASE
birnavirus
affects hematopoiesis and b-cell 
IMMUNOSUPPRESSION
CS: prostration, ataxia, diarrhea, vent picking
45
Q

Fowl pox

A
  • spread by mosquitoes
  • dry form: raised, whitish wart-like lesions on unfeathered areas, lesions heal in about 2 weeks.
  • Unthriftiness, decreased egg production and retarded growth
  • low Mortality
  • Wet form, oral cavity - diphtheritic, ulcerate MM
  • no specific effective treatment but there is a vaccine.
46
Q

mycoplasma gallisepticum

A

chronic respiratory in chickens

infectious sinusitis in turkeys

47
Q

Coccidiosis in fish

A

laying on side, lethargy, pale feces

tx: sulfamethazine

48
Q

Necrotic enteriits in chickens

A

CS: inc. mortality, sudden death, depressed, ruffled feathers, diarrhea
- bloated friable jejunum, malodorous brown fluid, psuedomembrane covering mucosa
- scraping -> G+ rod
Clostridium PERFINGENS