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Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) > Veterinary Nutrition > Flashcards

Veterinary Nutrition Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is maltose

A

Disaccharide

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2
Q

What are peanut hulls considered

A

Non fermentable fiber

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3
Q

What is wheat considered

A

Digestible polysaccharide

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4
Q

What is beet pulp considered

A

Moderately fermentable fiber

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5
Q

What is galactose considered

A

Monosaccharide

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6
Q

What is maltase considered

A

Mucosal brush border enzyme

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7
Q

What is amylase considered

A

Pancreatic enzyme

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8
Q

Name to general functions of fiber in the diet of dogs and cats

A

Provide satiety which is by the delayed gastric emptying. Form stool: allows for hardening of stool due to water retention and absorption

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9
Q

Explain how fermentable fiber is beneficial

A

It is beneficial because it promotes the growth of good bacteria in her intestines. Also the short chain fatty acids feed lining of large intestines

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10
Q

Insulin facilitates the entry of what importing nutrients from the blood into cells

A

Glucose

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11
Q

What is the name of the enzyme produced by the pancreas to digest starch

A

Amylase

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12
Q

Where are the enzymes lactase sucrose and Maltase located

A

All three are located in the brush border of the small intestine

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13
Q

What are the three nutrient classes that supply energy

A

Carbs, fat and protein

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14
Q

What are the energy requirements of cats and dogs as well as the energy content of petfood expressed as

A

Gross energy

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15
Q

Which nutrient is the most concentrated source of calories in petfood

A

Fat

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16
Q

Name for functions of proteins of the animals body

A

❤️Helps create the structure for cells. ❤️Helps in the production of keratin. ❤️Help support the muscles of the animal. ❤️Helps act as a secondary source of energy in energy deficient situations

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17
Q

In the process of digestion protein is broken down into what

A

Amino acids

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18
Q

Name two factors that determine protein quality

A

Digestibility of the protein and the biological value of the protein

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19
Q

Name a medical condition that would require restricted protein diet

A

Renal problems

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20
Q

Which amino acid is essential for the cat but not for the dog

A

Taurine

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21
Q

Where does protein digestion start

A

In the stomach

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22
Q

Protein digestion continues where

A

In the small intestine

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23
Q

Where are the enzymes trypsin and Chymotrypsin produced by

A

Pancreas

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24
Q

What is the definition of polypeptide

A

Long chains of peptides

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25
Q

What are polypeptides broken down into by the mucosal brush border

A

Amino acids

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26
Q

How do absorbed amino acids travel to the liver

A

Through they hepatic portal vein

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27
Q

If the amino acid is going to be used for energy what must the liver remove from it

A

Nitrogen

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28
Q

When the nitrogen is removed from the amino acid it’ll enter the ammonia cycle and be converted to what

A

Urea

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29
Q

What is the energy cycle of all cells

A

Krebs

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30
Q

Give me example of what can happen to an amino acid if it isn’t used for energy

A

Can be used to rebuild cells

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31
Q

In cats which amino acid is essential for the ammonia cycle

A

Argenine

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32
Q

State four functions of fat in the diet

A

❤️Provide energy for body. ❤️Allow body to dissolve fat-soluble vitamins. ❤️Insulate body to protect from Harsh temperatures. ❤️Fat storage on body

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33
Q

What is the optimal ratio of n6 and the n3 in the diet

A

5:1

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34
Q

Name two ingredients that supply Omega 3 fatty acids

A

Fish oil and fish meal

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35
Q

Which essential fatty acid is required preformed by the cat but can be synthesized from lenoleic acid in the dog

A

Arachodonic

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36
Q

Both dogs and cats require the essential fatty acid

A

Linoleic acid

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37
Q

What is the enzymes from the pancreas that helps with fat digestion

A

Lipase

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38
Q

What is the substance produced in the liver that helps with fat digestion

A

Bile

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39
Q

Which diet would you expect to have the lowest fat content

A

Obesity diet

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40
Q

Name the prescription diet that is high in omega-3’s that will benefit an older dog with arthritis

A

Mobility support or JD

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41
Q

What is the general purpose of a diet with a higher level of omega 3

A

Anti-inflammatory or anti-oxidant

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42
Q

What is a fermentable Fiber - pre biotic

A

MOS

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43
Q

What vitamin is necessary for normal blood clotting

A

Vitamin K

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44
Q

What is a synthetic preservative

A

Ethoxyquin

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45
Q

What is considered antioxidant

A

Lutein

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46
Q

What allows more efficient use of insulin

A

Chrominum

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47
Q

What is good for joint cartilage

A

Glucosamine

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48
Q

What is a nonessential amino acid that promotes Enterocyte health. In medical gastro diet helps to maintain health of gut lining.

A

Glutamine

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49
Q

What Transports long chain fatty acids across inter-mitochondrial membrane for Beta oxidation

A

Carnithine

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50
Q

What vitamin strengthens connective tissue’s muscles and skin. It also hastens wound healing and increases resistance to infection

A

Vitamin c

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51
Q

A deficiency of which vitamin and selenium can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy in sheep and crazy chick disease

A

Vitamin E

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52
Q

Which B vitamin is the only one that is stored in the body and works with the mineral cobalt

A

B12

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53
Q

Which vitamins are not stored in the body and must be provided in the diet every day

A

Water-soluble vitamins

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54
Q

Which fat-soluble vitamin helps and calcium and phosphorus absorption and assist with normal bone mineralization

A

Vitamin D

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55
Q

What is the main function of vitamins

A

Regulate body processes

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56
Q

Carotene could not be used as a source of vitamin A in the diet of a

A

Cat

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57
Q

Which vitamin is not a fat-soluble vitamin

A

Vitamin C

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58
Q

Which vitamin promotes normal vision and reproduction care and it helps maintain healthy skin

A

Vitamin A

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59
Q

An all meat diet will have an excessive amount of which mineral

A

Phosphorus

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60
Q

High milk producing dairy cow can develop a syndrome where she is unable to get up. This condition is called downer cow and is a result of what leaving the body to rapidly to go into the milk

A

Calcium

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61
Q

A similar solution can happen in bitches called eclampsia. Describe when this problem is going to likely occur in the bitch

A

3 weeks into nursing

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62
Q

What would a vitamin a deficiency in the turtle look like

A

Swollen eyes

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63
Q

At what age can you start offering solid food to puppies and what would you offer

A

3 to 4 weeks and you offer a dry food that is been mixed with a water or canned food to make Gruel

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64
Q

What food would a pregnant great Dane get

A

Puppy food

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65
Q

What medical conditions are large breed puppy is prone to

A

Dysplasia and degenerative joint disease

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66
Q

Large breed puppies have special nutritional requirements

A

Growth rate is a lot more exponential and if they’re fed incorrectly they can develop severe skeletal issues or become obese

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67
Q

How is the nutrient composition of a diet of a large breed puppy different than that for small breed

A

❤️Puppies are prone to skeletal issues so they need 30% less calcium and phosphorus in a ratio of 1.2 to 1❤️large breed puppies have a different activity level and growth rate so they need a different amount of calories. Less energy dense and less fat content❤️they need to be formulated with a high-quality protein

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68
Q

What are two important things to emphasize to an owner of an eight week old Labrador

A

❤️The importance of feeding a puppy lifestage diet that is catered to his proper calories. ❤️The importance of adequate exercise in moderation to discourage obesity

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69
Q

Do pet foods that are labeled as treats or snacks have to have a nutritional adequacy Statement

A

No

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70
Q

What moisture percent is typically listed as the maximum that a canned pet food can contain

A

78%

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71
Q

Can the nutritive value of ingredients be determined from the ingredient statement on the pet food

A

No

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72
Q

Which of the following is always required in the guaranteed analysis

A

Maximum moisture

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73
Q

Which of the following is the preferred method for substantiating a labor claim

A

Feeding trials

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74
Q

Can the crude fat percentage be used to estimate the energy content of the food

A

Yes

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75
Q

Which part of the pet food label is the primary means of attracting the pet owners attention to the product

A

The principal display paddle

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76
Q

It’s a product label reads with beef what percent of the total product must come from the beef ingredients

A

At least 3

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77
Q

What percent of the product does chicken flavour have to have

A

Less than 3 percent

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78
Q

What does beef dinner have to have

A

At least 25%

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79
Q

What does shrimp in jelly mean

A

At least 3 percent of total product.

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80
Q

What does tuna for cats mean

A

Tuna is at leAst 70% of total product

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81
Q

What does aafco regulate

A

Ingredient lists Nutritional adequacy of foodNutritional claims

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82
Q

How much water loss will kill an animal

A

15%

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83
Q

What is complimentation

A

Putting 2 incomplete proteins together

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84
Q

What does digestibility mean

A

Hooves vs muscle meat

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85
Q

What is the advantage to free choice feeding

A

Less labour intensive

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86
Q

What is the disadvantage of free choice feeding

A

Less control over food intake

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87
Q

What is the advantage of time restricted meals

A

15 mins - control of food amount

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88
Q

What is the disadvantage of time restricted feeding

A

Obesity

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89
Q

What is the advantage to food restricted meal

A

Better weight control

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90
Q

What is the disadvantage of food restricted meal

A

More labour intensive

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91
Q

When is the highest energy demand in the bitch

A

3rd trimester

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92
Q

When do you increase the food for a bitch

A

6th week. 50% more than maintence

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93
Q

What are the goals of lactation

A

Energy for adequate milk productionDrastic weight loss in dam

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94
Q

When is the peak milk demand ?

A

3 weeks

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95
Q

What is periodontal disease

A

Plaque induced disease of the peridontium that includes both gingivitis and periodontitis

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96
Q

What characteristics of pet food can affect plaque and calculus build up

A

Form (canned vs. dry)Kibble size Kibble texture

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97
Q

Describe stage 1 periodontal disease

A

Dental plaque is the transparent film and bacteria cells and food particles that form on tooth surfaces. bad breath and reddening and inflammation of the gumline occurs even though teeth appear clean

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98
Q

What is stage 2 periodontal disease

A

Within 72 hours dental plaque can begin to calcify forming tartar. Increasing inflammation is evident along with swelling of the gum line

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99
Q

What is stage 3 periodontal disease

A

Left untreated, gingivitis may progress to an infection of the tissues with subsequent tooth loss, gum recession and bone loss

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100
Q

What is stage 4 periodontitis

A

Tartar is covered with newly formed plaque. Toxins and enzymes secreted by plaque bacteria cause further inflammation of the periodontal tissues along with some loss of tissue attachments and the beginning of bone loss

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101
Q

T/f: plaque is the first stage of periodontal disease

A

True

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102
Q

T/f: plaque is readily visible

A

False

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103
Q

T/f: plaque is composed of bacteria, cells and food particles

A

True

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104
Q

T/f: plaque cannot be removed by mechanical brushing

A

False

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105
Q

T/f: tartar is mineralized plaque

A

True

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106
Q

T/f: tartar prevention is the number one priority in preventing periodontal disease

A

False

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107
Q

T/f: periodontal disease has been linked to tissue change in canine kidneys, heart muscle and liver and oral bacteria may cause pneumonia if it’s aspirated into the lungs

A

True

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108
Q

Uroliths are least likely to form when urine is what for a particular urolith type

A

Undersaturated

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109
Q

What are the most common types of feline lower urinary tract disease

A

Idiopathic cystitis and urolithiasis

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110
Q

Dietary manipulation maybe used to dissolve which type of urolith in cats

A

Sterile struvite

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111
Q

T/f: Dietary magnesium restriction may increase the risk of calcium oxalate urolith formation

A

True

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112
Q

True or false: idiopathic cystitis often involves a bacterial infection

A

False

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113
Q

True or false: younger cats are more prone to get calcium oxalate crystals

A

False

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114
Q

True or false: purebred cat such as Burmese and Persian are more prone to get calcium oxalate crystals

A

True

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115
Q

True or false indoor cats are more prone to develop struvite crystals

A

True

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116
Q

What type of crystals are Dalmation dogs prone to

A

Urate

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117
Q

What may occur in pets with chronic renal failure

A

Anemia, weakened bones, uncontrolled blood pressure

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118
Q

Describe the typical change in water intake and urination When a pet has chronic renal failure

A

Polyuria and polydipsia

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119
Q

True or false: chronic renal failure patients consuming excessive dietary protein and inorganic ions will accumulate nitrogen containing wastes resulting in a life threatening the syndrome called uremia

A

True

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120
Q

What are the first clinical signs clients notice when their pet has chronic renal failure

A

Drinking more water, more frequent urination with greater volume

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121
Q

True or false: chronic renal failure is reversible even though it develops over months or years

A

False

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122
Q

It is recommended that the protein level in the diets of canine and feline patients with chronic renal failure be

A

Restricted

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123
Q

Dietary phosphorus should be what in dogs and cats with chronic renal failure to help preserve renal function

A

Restricted

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124
Q

It is recommended that the fat level in the diets of canine and feline patients with chronic renal failure be what

A

Increased

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125
Q

Dietary potassium should be what in dogs and cats with chronic renal failure to help preserve renal function

A

Increased

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126
Q

What is the nutrient of greatest concern in food allergy reactions

A

Protein

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127
Q

Dogs and cats with food allergies typically present with what clinical signs

A

Redness and constant licking

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128
Q

Which type of test is the most useful for diagnosing food allergy

A

Elimination diet

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129
Q

True or false: food allergy is an adverse immune mediated reaction to a specific food

A

True

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130
Q

Which nutritional factors promotes skin health

A

Omega-3 and omega six fatty acids, zinc, vitamin a and E, protein

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131
Q

As an alternative to a hypoallergenic diet containing hydrolyzed protein dogs with confirmed food allergies can be managed by feeding a diet that contains what

A

The novel protein to which the dog has not been previously exposed

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132
Q

And elimination diet may need to be fed exclusively for at least how many weeks as part of an elimination diet trial

A

8 to 16

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133
Q

Explain hypoallergenic diet

A

The diet uses a novel proteins source that the animal has not previously been exposed to. They do not have a reaction

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134
Q

Explain the Hydrolyzed diet

A

All of the allergens are removed from the proteins so there won’t be a reaction

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135
Q

Describe an important client recommendation when using one of these diets

A

Keep on it for three months

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136
Q

State two ways that obesity increases the incidence of osteoarthritis in the dog

A

Adds more weight on the joint. Increase in fat promotes inflammation of the joint

137
Q

In what anatomical area do older cats get arthritis

A

The spine

138
Q

State two nutraceuticals that are beneficial to cartilage

A

Glucosamine and condroitin

139
Q

Which general type of nutrient when added to a dogs diet helps reduce production of inflammatory mediators such as PGE2

A

Omega-3 fatty acid

140
Q

What is the main reason the senior animals require less daily calories

A

They’re resting metabolic rate is lower

141
Q

Diets formulated for seniors will have a lower caloric density state two ways that these diets are formulated to reduce a caloric density

A

They contain less fat, less carbs, high biological value and highly digestible protein. Adds more fiber to dilute the calories

142
Q

State to minerals that will be restricted in a diet formulated for seniors

A

Phosphorus and sodium

143
Q

Which mineral is increased especially in cats

A

Vitamin K

144
Q

When do large breed puppies reach adult size

A

18 to 24 months

145
Q

What are advantages to slowing down the growth rate for large breeds

A

Reduces risk of osteochondrosis and canine hip dysplasia

146
Q

What is the minimum protein to feed the puppy

A

22%

147
Q

What is the ideal protein for a puppy

A

25 to 29% and high biological value and digestible

148
Q

What should you limit for a puppy

A

Energy and calcium. Excessive energy during growth results in rapid growth rate. Excessive calcium during growth especially calcium to phosphorus ratio increases the risk of developing hip dysplasia.

149
Q

And appropriate diet for large breed dog will have what

A

A lower energy density thus less fat content. The balance level of high-quality protein. 30% less calcium phosphorus than puppy food ratio of 1.2 to 1

150
Q

Why will portion controlled feeding make house training easier for large breeds

A

Due to Gastro colic reflex. Having to defecate almost immediately after eating.

151
Q

How often should large breed puppies be getting weighed

A

Every two weeks

152
Q

How much exercise should large breed puppies be getting

A

Moderate exercise

153
Q

What is Halitosis caused by

A

Microbial metabolism of protein containing substances create volatile sulfur compounds which smell

154
Q

How do you remove plaque

A

Requires mechanical abrasion from chewing and teeth brushing to remove

155
Q

How do you remove tartar or calculus

A

Requires professional dentistry

156
Q

What is tartar or calculus

A

Mineralized plaque

157
Q

What are neck lesions, cervical line lesions and feline odontoclastic resorptive lesions associated with

A

Chronic inflammation results in demineralization by odontoclasts

158
Q

What is the goal of the dental diet

A

minimize plaque and calculus formation.

159
Q

How do you minimize plaque and calculus formation

A

Daily teeth brushing, chlorhexidine rinses, dentistry diet

160
Q

What happens if a dog chews it’s food slowly

A

Less calculus formation

161
Q

Did cats chew their food ?

A

No

162
Q

What do dental diets have that binds calcium and prevents plaque from becoming tartar

A

Phosphates

163
Q

What do dental diets do to the texture of the kibble

A

Change it so that it will have more of a brushing effect and will remove plaque

164
Q

What are the key nutrients for the skin

A

Protein, EFA’s, vitamin A, vitamin E, zinc

165
Q

How much of the daily protein requirement does skin and hair coat account for

A

30%

166
Q

Describe the epidermis

A

Outer layer of the skin that provides a structural barrier protecting the body from the environment. Covered by an antibacterial lipid layer which prevents water loss from the body

167
Q

What cells make up the epidermal layer

A

Keratinocytes

168
Q

What is the brick and mortar comparison of the structure of the epidermis

A

The bricks are the keratinocytes and the mortar is that ceramide of a wall

169
Q

Why is ceramide important

A

Allows the skin to maintain a protective barrier against allergens and bacteria and prevents the skin from drying out

170
Q

What is pruritis caused by

A

Bacteria, yeast, parasites, Allergan

171
Q

What is atopy caused by

A

Environmental allergy

172
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for skin problems

A

GPE, skin scraping, cytology, biopsy, bloodwork

173
Q

What are the treatments for skin problems

A

Anti-parasite, antibiotic, anti-inflammatory Cortizone, shampoo and topical medication, diet

174
Q

What is atopy

A

Inappropriate immune response to a foreign substance. Immune system reacts and produces IGE and he bodies against the allergen. Anti-bodies cause the release of histamine that causes skin to be pruritic.

175
Q

What are common allergies

A

Pollen, mold, dust, mites

176
Q

Are allergies breed predisposition

A

Yes

177
Q

How do you diagnose allergies

A

Intradermal skin test

178
Q

How do you treat allergies

A

Hyposensitization shots, immune suppressant’s: Cortizone, EFA’s to suppress inflammation

179
Q

How is food allergy different then allergies

A

Exposure is through the digestive tract

180
Q

What is specific about food allergy

A

Requires time to develop and most animals have been eating the offending food for years with no trouble because it involves the immune system.

181
Q

What is food intolerance

A

Immediate reaction to an offending food that does not involve the immune system

182
Q

What are the clinical signs of food allergy

A

Facial itching, foot or limb chewing, belly itching, reoccurring ear infections, pruritis

183
Q

What dogs are predisposition to food allergies

A

Labrador, golden retriever, cocker spaniel, German Shepherd

184
Q

What causes food allergies

A

Protein molecules between 18 and 36,000 Dalton’s. Needs to be a protein of this size so that the immune system thinks it is foreign and will react to it

185
Q

Where are the proteins coming from

A

Beef chicken, gluten

186
Q

What is hydrolyzed protein

A

Conventional protein source is used but broken down into molecules too small to excite the immune system.

187
Q

Why can you only feed elimination diet for three months and not any other treats

A

Because it’ll change the results. No edible to toys or treats unless they are the same food source as the test diet.

188
Q

What is Royal canin skin support for

A

Specially formulated to assist in the management of skin diseases and environmental allergies

189
Q

What is feline lower urinary tract disorder caused by

A

Infections, urolith, urinary crystals, congenital, idiopathic, behavior

190
Q

What are the clinical signs of feline lower urinary tract disease

A

Dysuria, pollakiuria, hematuria, innapropriate urination, frequent licking genital area, anuria

191
Q

What are the causes of flutd

A

Idiopathic feline cystitis, urolith, bacterial infection

192
Q

How do you diagnose flutd

A

GPE, urinalysis and urine culture, x-ray and ultrasound

193
Q

How do you treat FLUTD

A

Subcutaneous fluids, painkillers, anti-inflammatories, antibiotics, behavior drugs, encourage water drinking, diet

194
Q

What is crystalluria

A

Urinary crystals

195
Q

What are the risk factors for struvites

A

Less than five years old, high magnesium diet, female more frequent, low water consumption, high urine specific gravity by Crystal saturation, obese, indoor cat, free choice, dirty litter box, stress.

196
Q

What is the target urine ph

A

6.2-6.4

197
Q

Why do we restrict magnesium

A

Reduce dietary magnesium intake to reduce the likelihood of struvite crystals or stone formation

198
Q

What are the risk factors for calcium oxalate stones

A

Himalayan Burmese Persian cats. Male more frequent, more than six years old. Excessive calcium and excess protein. Excessive magnesium restriction, obese sedentary cat.

199
Q

How do you prevent calcium oxalate stones

A

Treat hypercalcemia if it exists, select food with optimal calcium and magnesium levels, increased water intake, add potassium citrate, restrict protein

200
Q

Why do dogs get struvite stones

A

In dogs associated with bladder bacterial infections

201
Q

Why do dogs get oxalate stones

A

Small breeds may be more susceptible diet high in calcium phosphate. May be secondary to above more than females

202
Q

Which certain breeds of dogs are predisposed to calcium oxalate crystals

A

Miniature Schnauzer, Lhasa apso, Yorkey

203
Q

How do you prevent dalmatians from getting urate stones

A

Feed a low-protein diet

204
Q

Why is it easier for cats and dogs to vomit

A

Cats and dogs have striated muscle in the esophagus

205
Q

How do you manage megaesophagus

A

Please food at an elevated position, make a more liquid consistency, Bailey chair

206
Q

What is the HCl in the stomach responsible for

A

Acidic environment. Turns Pepcinogen into pepsin

207
Q

What did the mucous glands in the stomach do

A

Protect the stomach from acid

208
Q

What do diets that contains soluble fiber do

A

Cause decreased rate of emptying when compared with diets that contain insoluble fiber which can be beneficial to animals with diabetes. Also fiber in small intestine can slow absorption of glucose

209
Q

Which breeds are prone to gastric dilation volvulus

A

Deep chested breeds. Older dogs, overeating over drinking after exercise, eating air, gastric fermentation

210
Q

How do you prevent gastric dilation volvulus

A

Feed highly digestible low residue and low-fat

211
Q

What is a symptom of gastritis

A

Vomiting

212
Q

How do you treat gastritis

A

Withhold food for 24 to 48 hours. Offer small amounts of easily digested food

213
Q

Describe the what the pancreatic duct delivers

A

Enzymes and bicarbonate salts that help neutralize acid chime and provide proper pH for digestive enzymes to function. Pancreatic enzymes are delivered in the in active form

214
Q

What are the clinical signs of pancreatitis in dogs

A

A cute

215
Q

what are the signs of pancreatitis in cats

A

Chronic

216
Q

How do you test for pancreatitis

A

Blood test

217
Q

What is the bile duct do

A

Delivers bile acid’s for the emulsification of fats and activates lipase to form the micelles. In the cat bile duct and pancreatic duct meet to form the common bile duct

218
Q

How do you treat pancreatic exocrine insufficiency

A

Foods low in fiber restricted and fat and highly digestible

219
Q

What viruses can cause malabsorption

A

Parvovirus and coronavirus

220
Q

What is small intestinal bacterial overgrowth

A

Change to the bacterial population of the proximal small intestine

221
Q

What are the clinical signs of small intestinal bacteria overgrowth

A

Reoccurrence episodes of soft diarrhea, vomiting, anorexia

222
Q

What does small intestinal bacterial overgrowth cause

A

Impaired gut motility, prolonged use of antibiotics, Mal digestion, mal absorption, genetic predisposition

223
Q

What do the good bacteria do

A

Inhibit growth of bad bacteria, help to stimulate the immune system, synthesize essential vitamins, ferment the soluble fiber to make short chain fatty acids.

224
Q

What do short chain fatty acids do for the good bacteria

A

Create an environment more favorable

225
Q

What are the causes of exocrine pancreatic insufficiency and what does it cause

A

Idiopathic, immune destruction of pancreas, repeated episodes of pancreatitis. Causes mal digestion due to no digestive enzymes

226
Q

What are the clinical signs of Exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

A

Loose or semi-formed stools or diarrhea, weight loss, polyphagia

227
Q

What is specific to small bowel diarrhea

A

Increased volume, no straining, often weight loss, dehydration

228
Q

Described large bowel diarrhea

A

Straining, frequent accidents in the house, mucus, fresh blood, no weight-loss or dehydration

229
Q

What are the characteristics of G.I. diet

A

Highly Digestible protein, high biological value, single protein source. Single source of carbohydrates, very digestible, avoid gluten. Reduced fat content but increased percent of omega-3 fatty acid’s for anti- inflammatories, moderately fermentable fiber to create growth of good bacteria

230
Q

What percent of fiber should a Gastro intestinal diet have

A

3 to 6

231
Q

What is lymphangectasia

A

Lymphatic vessels are dilated and congested and lymph fluid leaks out into the intestinal lumen. Protein losing enteropathy

232
Q

What is the diet treatment for Lymphangectasia

A

Moderate amount of highly digestible protein, low-fat, high-fiber

233
Q

What are five functions of the kidney

A

Water balance, filter a waste, acid-base balance, hormones, blood-pressure maintenance

234
Q

How much cardiac output through the kidneys per minute

A

One fourth of blood

235
Q

What is Renal reserve loss

A

Don’t see clinical signs till 66% of nephrons are gone. No clinical signs possible proteinuria

236
Q

What is renal insufficiency

A

66 or more percent nephrons lost. Loss of ability to concentrate urine but can still get rid of waste

237
Q

What are the clinical signs of renal insufficiency

A

PUPD, inability to concentrate urine, low specific gravity, increase in blood pressure, proteinuria

238
Q

What is renal failure

A

75% or more nephrons lost. Progressive loss of urine concentrating ability, accumulation of waste product

239
Q

What are the clinical signs of renal failure

A

PUPD, Lethargy, weight loss, dehydration, vomiting, diarrhea, increased blood pressure

240
Q

What are the laboratory changes for renal failure

A

Increased BU in and creatinine, increased phosphorus, hypokalemia

241
Q

What is advanced renal failure

A

90% or more nephrons lost. Leads to uremic state

242
Q

What are the clinical signs of advanced renal failure

A

Profound weight loss, vomiting, anorexia, depressed

243
Q

What are the laboratory signs of advanced renal failure

A

Anemia, very elevated BU in and creatinine, elevated phosphorus, low potassium

244
Q

In Renal failure do you reduce protein

A

Yes

245
Q

In renal failure do you reduce phosphorus

A

Yes. Use phosphorus binding agents.

246
Q

In renal failure do you increase b vitamins

A

Yes

247
Q

In renal failure do you decrease sodium

A

Yes

248
Q

In Renal failure do you increase potassium.

A

Yes to help control metabolic acidosis

249
Q

In renal failure do you increase fat

A

Yes

250
Q

Why do you add fermentable fiber to renal diets

A

Nitrogen trap

251
Q

What is a cat or dog considered senior

A

At seven

252
Q

What causes aging

A

Free radicals, waste product accumulation, gene regulation, mean system failure, obesity

253
Q

How do you increase pet lifespan

A

Avoid obesity, proper nutrition, regular wellness exams, early disease detection with bloodwork, preventative healthcare such as dental

254
Q

What happens with aging

A

Resting metabolic rate slows, lean body mass decreases, more fat

255
Q

After neuter what happened

A

Metabolic rate slows down

256
Q

In aging what happens to the protein

A

They are less likely to use protein for energy rather than to build muscle so you feed high biological value protein.

257
Q

Does organ function decline when animals age

A

Yes, liver, kidney, pancreas, digestive tract declines

258
Q

What happens to eyes with aging

A

Increased conjunctivitis, decreased tear production, lens cataracts

259
Q

What happens to ears with aging

A

Degeneration of cochlea apparatus. Repeatered Otitis externa

260
Q

What are the clinical signs of osteoarthritis

A

Less active, reluctant to perform certain tasks, lame after after activity, irritable,slow to rise after lying down

261
Q

What causes osteoarthritis

A

Age-related in large breed dogs. Underlying joint problems such as hip dysplasia, obesity, lack of proper exercise

262
Q

How do you manage osteoarthritis

A

Weight loss, exercise, anti-inflammatories, nutrition

263
Q

What are the cat clinical signs of osteoarthritis

A

Not jumping up so high places, behavior change, inappropriate urination

264
Q

What are some gastrointestinal problems seniors are more susceptible to

A

Decreased gastric secretions, decreased functional salivary tissue, More fecal incontinence, more prone to vomiting and diarrhea

265
Q

What is cognitive dysfunction

A

Confusion, disorientation, change in sleep pattern, loss host training, decreased activity.

266
Q

Loss of ability of pancreas to produce insulin. Blood sugar will be high but Artemel cannot metabolize glucose. Consequentially they metabolize fat and produce Keytone bodies

A

What is diabetes mellitus

267
Q

What are the clinical signs of diabetes mellitus

A

PUPD, polyphagia, weight loss

268
Q

What are the clinical signs of hyperthyroidism in cats

A

PUPD, increased appetite, weight loss, vocalization, vomiting, diarrhea

269
Q

Why is insulin secreted by the pancreas

A

In response to increasing glucose levels

270
Q

What does insulin do

A

It allows the cells to use glucose. Even though the blood glucose is high the cells cannot use the glucose so they break down fat and use protein from the lean body mass

271
Q

What is special about insulin

A

It is the only hormone to lower blood glucose. Causes blood glucose uptake by cells

272
Q

Which hormones cause blood glucose to rise

A

Glucagon, Adrenaline, cortisol, growth hormone

273
Q

What is type one diabetes

A

Insulin-dependent diabetes more common in dogs. Pancreas is not producing enough insulin usually because of immune destruction of the beta cells of the pancreas

274
Q

What is type two diabetes

A

Non-insulin-dependent diabetes. Insulin resistance. The receptors on the cells do not respond to insulin

275
Q

Are cats or dogs more likely to get type 2 diabetes

A

Cats

276
Q

Which diabetes is associated with obesity

A

Type two. Fat cells hide receptors for insulin

277
Q

What are the predisposing factors for diabetes

A

Obesity, middle age, genetics, other hormones. Elevated levels of Cortizone, progesterone can cause insulin resistance

278
Q

Describe carbohydrate metabolism in cats

A

They only have one enzyme so it takes longer to clear the glucose from the blood

279
Q

What are the clinical signs of diabetes

A

Polyphagia, polyuria polydipsia, weight loss, cataracts in dogs, polyneuropathy, Plantigrade posture in cats, prone to bacterial infections, hyperglycemia, glucosuria, hepatic lipidosis, renal disease

280
Q

What is the goal in treatment for diabetes

A

Stabilize glucose levels without causing hypoglycemia. Minimize hyperglycemia, provide optimal amount of nutrients, minimize clinical signs, avoid hypoglycemia

281
Q

What is the blood glucose concentration normally for dogs

A

5-10 to 12 mmol/l

282
Q

What is the blood glucose concentration normally for cats

A

5-14-16 mmol/l

283
Q

What is the renal threshold

A

14 mmol per liter

284
Q

What is the normal blood glucose range in non-diabetic cats

A

2.6 to 8.4 mmol per liter

285
Q

What is the goal of an ideal blood glucose curve

A

To produce a blood glucose curve that approaches the reference range but avoids potentially fatal hypoglycemia for example 5 to 14mmol for most of each 24 hour period.

286
Q

What is the three important dietary treatments for diabetes

A

Be consistent with amounts, consistent time in consistent ingredients consistent proportion of carbohydrates fat and protein. Slow absorption of glucose from the intestine by having a food low in simple sugars high in complex carbohydrates such as barley to slow glucose absorption. Add fiber to slow gastrointestinal transit time.

287
Q

What should a diabetic diet have

A

Good quality and quantity of protein to protect lean body mass will also provide amino acids for gluconeogenesis. Antioxidants such as vitamin E, fat content will depend on body score: obese versus skinny diabetics

288
Q

What nutraceutical should a diabetic diet contain

A

Chromium to use insulin better, Carnithine to help with fat metabolism, antioxidants

289
Q

How do you reduce glucose elevations in cats

A

Reduce carbohydrate and increase protein to result in slower glucose elevations

290
Q

What are some common causes of critical illness

A

Trauma, neoplasia, anemia, organ failure, sepsis, central nervous system disease, toxins, immune mediated diseases

291
Q

How is starvation different in the sick animal

A

A sick animal up regulates its metabolism in spite of starvation

292
Q

What happens when a healthy animal is in starvation

A

It down regulates its metabolism in the face of starvation because he wants to conserve energy

293
Q

What happens to the G.I. tract during starvation

A

The intestinal villi get nutrition directly from intestinal contents. If there’s no food in the G.I. tract you get Villas atrophy where you cannot digest and absorb food, greater chance of bacterial translocation. Also due to starvation the stomach shrinks.

294
Q

What happens in starvation

A

The body uses that stores for energy. Sacketts metabolized into key tones which may be used as an energy source in some tissues. As there’s no storage form of protein in the body muscle proteins are cannibalized into energy. This results in the loss of lean body mass. There’s a rapid loss of lean body mass in the anorexic sick animal.

295
Q

What does a sick Animal need

A

Increased protein

296
Q

What diet does an anorexic sick Animal need

A

High-quality protein and high energy (fat)

297
Q

How do you administer nutritional support to an animal

A

Force-feeding, tube feeding such as the nasogastric tube, esophageal tube, pharyngostomy tube, gastric tube, jejunal tube

298
Q

What are the advantages of tube feeding

A

Less stressful for the animal. Can meet the daily caloric needs. Can easily give small of those often which will be easier for the animals digestive system to handle

299
Q

What are the benefits of nutritional support

A

Decreased morbidity. improved tolerance to invasive procedures, shorter hospitalizations. decreased incidence of infection, rapid wound healing, fewer complications.

300
Q

What food can you put in a feeding tube

A

A/d, recovery. Mix one to one with water

301
Q

How many calories are liquid diets

A

1 cal per milliliter approx. 0.6 for a/d

302
Q

What are the diet characteristics for a critical care diet

A

High-fat, high biological value protein, low carbohydrate. Increased branched-chain amino acid’s, glutamine to feed small intestine, arginine to metabolize ammonia, B vitamins, Add zinc.

303
Q

What is the function of the liver

A

Metabolism of fats carbs and protein, glucose that is stored there, produces albumin, detoxification for the ammonia cycle, bile metabolism, makes coagulation factors

304
Q

What is idiopathic hepatic lipidosis

A

Occurs when cat stops eating or is that the negative calorie state for period of time. Approximately two weeks of eating 1/2-3/4 of the normal portion. Obese cats are more predisposed. Protein malnutrition develops very fast when cats do not eat

305
Q

What are the clinical signs of fatty liver disease

A

History of anorexia, weight loss, lethargy, vomited, jaundice, diarrhea

306
Q

How long do do you Normally place a feeding tube

A

6-8weeks or until eating on his own

307
Q

How do you avoid refeeding syndrome

A

Feed small amounts for the first few days even though caloric requirements aren’t being met

308
Q

What is the minimum daily recommended calories for a cat

A

60kcal/kg/day

309
Q

What are the dietary goals for liver disease

A

Reduce livers workload by provided adequate daily energy intake. Moderate level of fat and highly digestible carbohydratesAvoid hyperammonemia. Feed high-quality protein. Feed small amounts often to avoid getting undigested protein in the large bowel.

310
Q

Why do you want branched chain amino acids

A

They get used up faster for gluconeogenesis

311
Q

Why do you include arginine in the liver disease diet

A

Because it is involved in the urea cycle

312
Q

Why do you include Taurine in cats

A

Because it is an essential amino acid

313
Q

What are common heart problems

A

Congestive heart failure, mitral valve insufficiency, cardiomyopathy, arrhythmia

314
Q

How does the body compensate in heart failure

A

The heart pumps less so the body thinks it needs more blood volume. Increased blood pressure plus more work for the heart

315
Q

What is a drug that can treat heart failure

A

Lasix, diuretics, fortekor, vetmedin

316
Q

What are the dietary considerations for heart disease

A

L-Carnithine, restricting sodium, add Taurine, omega-3 fatty acid EPA’s DHA.

317
Q

Why is cancer a form of accelerated starvation

A

Due to the change in metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins, fat, due to the tumor and the stress factor.

318
Q

What does the tumor require

A

Glucose for energy. Cannot use fat or protein. Tumor also requires amino acids.

319
Q

What is the initial phase of cancer

A

No clinical signs but there are biochemical changes

320
Q

What is the second stage of cancer

A

Anorexia, weight loss, loss of body fat and protein

321
Q

What are the changes in carbohydrate metabolism in cancer

A

Tumor cells use anaerobic glycolysis. They use a large amount of the hosts glucose and produce a lot of lactate acid. Other changes result in insulin resistance

322
Q

What is the change in protein metabolism and cancer

A

Tumor uses amino acids. Use up gluconeogenesis amino acids. Result in rapid loss of lean body mass

323
Q

Describe the change in fat metabolism in cancer

A

Growing tumor incorporates fat into it. Add omega-3 fatty acid’s because it makes it more susceptible to chemotherapeutic agents

324
Q

What are the diet goals of cancer

A

Maintaining body weight is known to improve the prognosis and to withstand chemotherapy. A diet high in fat and protein but low in simple carbohydrates will help.

325
Q

What is the most common form of the malnutrition in dogs cats and humans in the Western world

A

Obesity

326
Q

What are the effects of obesity

A

Increased inflammation, joint problems, glucose intolerance, great anesthetic risk

327
Q

What happens to caloric needs in older pets

A

It decreases

328
Q

What are the causes of obesity

A

Food taste too good, owner overfeeding, neutered pets sometimes, couch potato

329
Q

What are you pets need before going on a weight-loss plan

A

A gpe

330
Q

What are we due to rule out in the GPE before Pet goes on a weight-loss plan

A

Endocrine disorder such as hypothyroidism, genetic predisposition.

331
Q

What is the dynamic phase of obesity

A

Where weight gain is happening. Eating more calories than what you were using

332
Q

What is the static phase of obesity

A

Maintenance of overweight condition by not eating that many calories

333
Q

What happens to your genes when you’re obese

A

Different genes get activated

334
Q

What is the amount of weight loss to lose per week

A

0.5-2%

335
Q

If they are body score3.5 how much weight do you expect themto lose

A

10%

336
Q

If they are body score 4 how much weight do you expected to lose

A

15%

337
Q

If their body score 4.5 how much weight do you expect them to lose

A

20%

338
Q

If their body score 5 how much weight do you expect them to lose

A

25

339
Q

Even during moderate weight loss programs how much is the percent weight loss from body tissue

A

Ur mom

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) (26 decks)

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