Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) > Practice Management > Flashcards

Practice Management Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What are the objectives of a vet clinic

A

Quality of medical care, client education, good working conditions, efficient operating procedures and financial growth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How much did client spend on food

A

$20 billion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does a mobile clinic have to be affiliated with

A

A vet clinic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe a vet office

A

Consultations and hospitalization for diagnostic purpose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe a vet clinic

A

Offers hospitalization and treatments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe a vet hospital

A

Number of vets, opening hours an emergency service

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the OMVQ regulate

A

Radiology, treatment, Anastasia, surgery, isolation, necropsy, library, consults, equipment, pharmacy, lab, safety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the changes and establishment do too

A

Client demands and competition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the seven broad sectors of the veterinary management

A

Strategic planning, human resources, finance, general management, health and safety, IT, marketing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why are tasks delegated to a practice manager

A

They do the work so that the vet can focus on clinical duties

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe the role of a strategic planner

A

Plans for growth and checks output frequently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the role of the general manager

A

Scheduling, purchasing, building maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the role of human resources

A

Staff meetings, discipline employees, payscales, payroll

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the role of the finance worker

A

Bank account , accounting, record production, payables and receivables, taxes, year end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the role of a health worker

A

Safety manuals, CSS T, first aid provisions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the role of IT

A

Computer maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe the role of marketing

A

Promotions, client surveys, open house

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the three ways you can define a successful practice

A

By the owners perception, client perspective, employees perspective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe the owners perspective of a successful practice

A

Client trust, efficient management, satisfied customers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Describe the employees perspective of a successful practice

A

Good salary, work conditions, growth in job, client trust

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe the client perspective of a successful practice

A

Consistency breeds confidence. Timely appointments call backs, cost and value

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How many technicians should there be per veterinarian

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the five C’s of teamwork

A

Cooperation, combination, commitment, contribution, communication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the team goal

A

Cohesive, efficient and supportive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Describe an extrovert

A

Action oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Describe an introvert

A

Thought oriented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Describe a sensor

A

Needs facts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Describe an intuitive person

A

Relies on abstract information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Describe a judger

A

They plan everything

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe a perceiver

A

Spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Describe the seven strategies of successFul staff

A

Teamwork, professional conduct, flexibility, recordkeeping, follows instructions, safety, people business, good communication skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Half of a conversation is talking and half is what

A

Listening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are some good interpersonal skills

A

Patients, tact, kindness, courtesy, empathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is paralanguage

A

Non vocal communication and body language. Such as clothes or smile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the rule for confrontation

A

Wait for three incidents and then wait 24 hours after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the ways people can take confrontation

A

Conflict, competing, accommodating, avoiding, compromising, collaborating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the three types of clients

A

Exceptional, average and poor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Where is the best area to open up a vet clinic

A

In a middle-class area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What does the client want

A

Recognition, consideration, individual attention. Offer good services provided, convenience, fair billing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

How long do you have to keep records

A

Five years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Why do we use soap

A

It’s standardized everywhere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the S in soap

A

Subjective. Client information

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the O in soap

A

Information gathered and lab results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the a in soap

A

Assessment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the P and soap

A

Plan.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

In the GPE what do you evaluate

A

Eye, mucous membranes, lymph nodes, digestive system, urinary system, circulatory system, respiratory system and integument

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the levels of legislation for the law

A

federal legislation provincial legislation municipal legislation job governing agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does the federal legislation control

A

The criminal code of Canada, health of animals act, controlled drugs and substances act, food and drug act and regulations, pest control products act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What does provincial legislation control

A

Civil Code of Quebec, animal health protection act (mapaq) agricultural abuse act, conservation and development of wildlife act, veterinary surgeons act, law on the disposal of biomedical waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What was the original anti-animal cruelty law and what year was it created

A

1892It is criminal to kill or wound livestock in a cruel way. Is criminal to kill or wound other animals voluntarily and without cause. It is criminal to cause undue pain and suffering to an animal voluntarily or through negligent acts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are some issues with the initial law against cruelty to animals

A

Property offenses, willful neglect requires proof of persons intent. Currently an offense to kill owned animals without lawful excuse but stray animals can be killed for any reason. Does not address brutal or vicious killings in which the animal dies immediately.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Describe the current bill for animal cruelty in Canada

A

All animals were included. Willful or reckless killing or harming of animals was considered illegal failure to provide adequate care such as food water air or shelter and willful recklessness or abandonment is a legal negligently means departing marked from the standard of care that a reasonable person would use. Increased fines and incarceration order of prohibition for further owning animals.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What happened to Bill C373

A

It did not pass instead Bill S23 past with exemptions to lawful excuse such as hunting trapping fishing farming euthanasia scientific research protection of life and property maximum penalty is five years in jail $10,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Describe the health of animals act and what they’re responsible for

A

Protection of animal and human health for the control or illumination of diseases and toxic substances by: ownership of animal with reportable disease, transport of infected or contagious animals but in Canada, import or export of animals, disposal of carcasses from infected animals, Corentine of animals and places as requested by federal inspectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who do the food and drug act and regulations concern

A

Regulates anything related to drugs. DI and number on the bottle, clinical trials, production, manufacturing, labeling prescription and nonprescription drugs. No regulations exist about supplements and nutraceuticals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe the pest control products act

A

All pesticides including flea products have to be sold in their original packaging with the approved and registered label so that the user can read all detailed instructions easily and use the product safely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the safety and welfare of animals act

A

The owner or custodian of an animal shall ensure that this safety and welfare of the animals not jeopardized. Every owner of animal kept for the purpose of sale or breeding shout in addition to comply with the provisions of the previous section in sure that the premises in which the animals are kept our clean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In 2012 what law passed

A

The law on the security and the well-being of dogs and cats. Fines and restrictions are more severe. First infraction from $600-$12,000. If commercial purpose $25,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What kind of dog is considered a vicious dog

A

Dogs exhibiting behavior outside of the Masters property limits.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the agricultural abuse act

A

Must report dog ownership to municipality within eight days. Must prevent damage stray dogs may cause. Stray dogs can be caught and destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Describe the conservation a development of wildlife act

A

Killing of wild animals only authorized for self-defense. Wild animal killed accidentally or for self-defense must be reported to wildlife protection officer. Only legal persons authorized by the minister are allowed to kill wild animals that are sick. No person may disturb destroy or damage at Beaverdam or the eggs nest or Den of an animal. No one is allowed to capture or keep a wild animal in captivity without a permit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the law on veterinary drugs

A

List of drugs exclusively used or sold by or under the supervision of a licensed vet or pharmacist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is considered biomedical waste

A

Anatomical waste consisting of animal body part or organs with the exception of nails claws blood and biological liquids. A sharp, biological tissue, live culture vaccine, container of blood, whole animal body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Describe municipal legislation and what they control

A

Animal licensing for pet ownership, number of animals allowed per household, presence of dogs and public areas of parks, necessity for dogs to be on a leash, dog droppings, breed-specific legislation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Who reprimands ethical miss behavior for veterinarians

A

Professional inspection committee, disciplinary committee

66
Q

What is a veterinarians duty towards animal

A

Needs of the patients come first necessary to relieve an animal suffering. Must refrain from performing any act that may be detrimental or cause unnecessary pain to animals.must obtain owner consent before giving selling or getting rid of animal. Must report cases of cruelty to animals to authorities. Must provide a sensual emergency care

67
Q

What are veterinarians duty towards the public

A

Promote quality available veterinary services, protect and improve public health, protect the environment

68
Q

What are veterinarians duty towards the client

A

No false representation of skills, availability, right to choose clients, copies of files, known fees, advertising

69
Q

What are you veterinarians duty towards the profession

A

Image, colleagues, enhancing knowledge and skills

70
Q

Describe ethical conduct role of animal health technicians

A

Any ethical miss behavior of a vet tech to be declared to be the responsibility of the employer only if tech is following the vet orders.

71
Q

What is the employer liable for

A

Accident occurring on premises such as animal biting owner, someone falling, malpractice, lost pets

72
Q

What number does an over-the-counter drug have

A

Drug identification number

73
Q

What number does a prescription drug have

A

Drug identification number and PR number

74
Q

What number does a controlled substance have

A

Drug identification number, PR number and a schedule 1 to 4 number

75
Q

What information has to be on a prescription drug label

A

Name, address and telephone number of the establishment. Clients name. Identification or description of the animal. Name of the veterinarian prescribing itConcentration of the medication, method of administering medication, special precautions, expiry date

76
Q

What are the two schedules of controlled drugs that are often missed used veterinary practice

A

Class 1: Opioids morphine derivative, cocaine, ketamine. Class 4: barbiturates benzodiazepines and anabolic steroids

77
Q

What are the regulations for possession and sale of controlled drugs

A

Records need to be kept for all transactions for two years. Drugs must be kept in a locked place. Theft or loss to be reported within 10 days. Disposal of outdated bottles follow specific rules

78
Q

Describe the legality of controlled drugs

A

Ordering forms must be signed by licensed veterinarian, done through special order form that sent to the federal government, received drugs are immediately recorded in logbook, all drug usage to be kept in logbook

79
Q

Every time you use a controlled drug what do you have to put in the log

A

Date, file number, patient name, I’m out used, amount left, initials of user

80
Q

What is a practices desire in terms of fees

A

Covering the operating cost making a profit and to continue providing veterinary care

81
Q

What percentage of cost is rent

A

5%

82
Q

What percentage of cost is insurance

A

0.8%

83
Q

What percent of rent is CSST

A

2%

84
Q

What percent of rent is professional fees, professional liability insurance

A

2%

85
Q

What percent is employees salaries of cost

A

20%

86
Q

What percentage of cost is accounting and bank fees

A

2.5%

87
Q

What percentage of cost is office expenses

A

1.6%

88
Q

What percent of cost is utilities

A

1.6%

89
Q

What percentage of cost is supplies in inventory

A

26%

90
Q

How many percent is the normal net revenue

A

23% but it should be 30%

91
Q

What is better. To increase revenue or to reduce expenses

A

To increase revenue byways of better management and fair and profitable pricing

92
Q

What is the active revenue

A

The revenue generated by the veterinarian

93
Q

What is the passive revenue

A

The revenue generated by the animal health technician

94
Q

What should be the bulk of the revenue for a clinic

A

Medical services

95
Q

What is a baseline fee

A

The minimum that you must charge to break even

96
Q

What are shopped services

A

Services pet owners shop around for i.e. vaccines, heartworm test, spay, neuter

97
Q

What is the formula for overhead cost

A

Hospital costs -(vet time + material cost). Generally 2-3$ per minute

98
Q

What is the formula for in hospital services

A

Overhead cost per minute + direct costs + Dr. time

99
Q

What is considered a direct cost

A

All materials used in a given procedure. Generally double the amount

100
Q

What is the doctor time

A

Cost to pay vet for their skill

101
Q

What is the general mark up for pharmaceuticals

A

2 to 3 times the cost.

102
Q

Do we charge more for the expensive pills or for the cheaper pills

A

The cheaper pills because you can have a higher mark up without people feeling like they’re spending too much money

103
Q

Why do we charge a dispensing fee

A

Due to the cost of prescription labeling, preparation costs

104
Q

What is the tax rate for GST

A

5%

105
Q

What is the tax rate for QST

A

9.975%

106
Q

Why would we use a computer program for fee billing

A

It’s more accurate. Taxes are calculated automatically. Less mistakes in less we forget to sell items

107
Q

Why should we never weigh a fee at the vet clinic

A

Because it convinces the owners that are services are not worth any money

108
Q

Are deposits legal

A

Yes up to 50% of cost

109
Q

List some ways to avoid problems with billing

A

Have clients find an estimate, make clients aware one extra fees are incurred, make sure all items have been billed for properly

110
Q

What’s wrong with having too much inventory

A

Cuts in the profits, takes up space and cost money per square foot

111
Q

What’s the problem with having two little inventory

A

Constantly running out of product’s, affect quality of patient care, loss of sales

112
Q

What are the goals of inventory

A

To control product to use flow what is used and at what frequency.

113
Q

How do you control product to use flow

A

Establish the present stock level. Establish how much stock is needed every month or every two months

114
Q

What Are the goals of the inventory

A

To avoid loss byways of unused items, expired items, damaged, stolen+ to improve profit return on investment

115
Q

What are the three types of inventory

A

Manual. Computerized. Managed by C DMV

116
Q

How do you improve stock management

A

I’m at the range of stock, respect maximum stock levels, timing and quantities to order, reduce stock losses, optimize special offers when purchasing, communicate with the team.

117
Q

What would you do manual inventory management for

A

For items that cannot be billed or invoiced individually

118
Q

When would you use computerized inventory management

A

For items I can be billed. But requires that the initial inventory must first be entered into the computer system so all items can be counted.

119
Q

Advantage having properly set up computerized inventory control

A

Detecting theft

120
Q

How do you calculate ideally yearly turnover of the inventory

A

(beginning inventory $ + end inventory) /2

121
Q

How many times should you ideally have inventory turnover

A

Between eight and 12 times per year

122
Q

What is the reality of most vet clinics with yearly inventory turnover

A

4-8 times per year

123
Q

What is euthanasia

A

Stress-free or pain-free death

124
Q

What are the ethical and excepted methods of euthanasia

A

Intravenous, intraperitoneal, intracardiac, inhalant, cervical dislocation, decapitation, shooting, exsanguination

125
Q

What animals would you do cervical dislocation or decapitation with

A

Mice

126
Q

What animals would you shoot as a method of euthanasia

A

Farm animals that aren’t going to be consumed

127
Q

What do clients like with euthanasia

A

Offering pets a treat, creating a sense of comfort, Momento

128
Q

What do clients dislike with euthanasia

A

Being kept waiting, given a warning, handling pets body roughly, mentioning ownership of new pet

129
Q

What should a receptionist do before the euthanasia in order to ensure that it goes smoothly

A

Inquire about the reason for euthanasia, assess the client situation to determine emotional needs, schedule euthanasia, don’t make clients wait, have all paperwork prepared

130
Q

What should a veterinary team do before euthanasia

A

Facility Clay decisions, go over procedures, offer clients a choice about being present, be supportive, create a respectful atmosphere

131
Q

What should a client expect from euthanasia

A

Reflex breathing, muscle twitches, sphincter relaxation, rigor mortis

132
Q

What are some ways a euthanasia can go wrong

A

Stress, needle not in the vein, hemorrhage, vocalization, trembling, urination and defecation

133
Q

Who is at the federal level who oversees workplace safety

A

CCOHS Canadian center for occupational health and safety. Nonprofit, concerned with the safety and welfare of workers for physical and mental health

134
Q

Who oversees hazardous waste at a federal level

A

WHMIS health Canada. National hazard communication standard. Workplace hazardous materials information system.

135
Q

What are the three key elements of the workplace hazardous materials information system

A

Worker education and training. Labeling of containers. Provisions of MSDS is gives information on potentially hazard and how to work safely with the chemical product

136
Q

What is a class A WHMIS

A

Compressed glass

137
Q

What is a class B WHMIS

A

Flammable and combustible material

138
Q

What is a class C WHMIS

A

Oxidizing material

139
Q

What is a class D WHMIS

A

Materials causing immediate and serious toxic affects, materials causing other serious toxic affects, biohazardous infectious material

140
Q

What is the class E WHMIS

A

Corrosive material

141
Q

What is class F WHMIS

A

Dangerously reactive material

142
Q

What are the two American organizations for safety in the workplace

A

OSHA and NIOSH

143
Q

Who is responsible for safety in the workplace in Quebec

A

CSST

144
Q

What are the two roles of CSS T

A

Prevention and inspection and compensation and readaptation

145
Q

Who pays for CSST

A

The employer

146
Q

How do they determine how much CSS T costs

A

1.85% of total salaries

147
Q

How does the CSST personalize the cost for the employer

A

Accounts for claims having occurred in the past four years. Number of claims has less impact than severity of the accident.

148
Q

In the past 10 years what has happened to the physical injury statistics

A

Been reduced by 50%

149
Q

What are the most common physical injuries

A

Excessive efforts, substance exposure

150
Q

How many percent does mental health occupy of all the claims in Canada

A

75%

151
Q

What is the role of an employer for safety

A

Responsible to provide safe environment for employees. Educate and provide training in specific work hazards and use of equipment, provide protective clothing gear and sanitation facilities. Ensure the safety of equipment and tools. Take all possible precautions to avoid health hazards.

152
Q

What is the role of the employee in safety

A

Take necessary measures to protect your health and safety as well as the other others in your work environment, help identify and eliminate workplace risk, learn about prevention programs, collaborate with the health and safety committee, take the legally required medical exams, do not take risks, report any incidents.

153
Q

Who is responsible for client safety

A

The clinic.

154
Q

How do you prevent client trauma

A

Discourage clients from restraining their animals.

155
Q

In the parking area what should you have in case of dog fights

A

Animals on leash with clearly visible signs

156
Q

What are some chemical safety hazards for employees

A

Solvents or volatile products, antibiotics, chemotherapeutic agent, cleaning products, inhalant anesthetics

157
Q

What are the physical safety hazards for employees

A

Xrays, noise, heavy lifting, bad posture, bite wounds

158
Q

What are biological risks for employees

A

Zoonosis, bacteria, fungus, virus, parasite

159
Q

How do you reduce the spread of disease

A

Don’t let exotics room Fraley, no animals near food prep area, animal should be fed from dishes exclusively reserved for them, all food and water dishes should be washed and disinfected

160
Q

What are accident reports

A

Required by law. Alert employers and management of problem areas, help reduce risk of injury, and forms employees of potential hazards in the workplace.

161
Q

What type of accidents require a written report

A

Body injuries, body injuries requiring medical treatment, incident without body injury but could’ve resulted in serious injury, major toxic event/hazardous spill

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) (26 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions