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Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) > Nursing > Flashcards

Nursing Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is ataxia

A

Uncoordinated movements

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2
Q

What is enophthalmia

A

Recessed eye

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3
Q

What is exophthalmia

A

Protruding eye

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4
Q

What is buphthalmos

A

Enlarged eye

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5
Q

What is strabismus

A

Deviation of the eye

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6
Q

What is microphthalmia

A

Small eye

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7
Q

What is blepharospasm

A

Spasm of eyelid

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8
Q

What is blepharitis

A

Swelling of eyelid

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9
Q

What is entropion

A

Inward rolling of the eyelid

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10
Q

What is ectropion

A

Outward rolling of the eyelid

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11
Q

What is lagophthalmos

A

Incomplete closure of the eyelids

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12
Q

What is ptosis

A

Drooping of the upper eyelid

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13
Q

What are the two types of abnormal discharge

A

Mucoid and purulent

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14
Q

What is Epiphora

A

Excessive tear production

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15
Q

What is conjunctivitis

A

Inflammation of the conjunctiva

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16
Q

What is conjunctival hyperemia

A

Redness of the conjunctiva due to engorged vessels

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17
Q

What is chemosis

A

Edema of the conjunctiva

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18
Q

What is subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

Hemorrhage under the conjunctiva

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19
Q

What is stomatitis

A

Inflammation of mm. In mouth

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20
Q

What is hyperemia

A

Redness

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21
Q

What is miosis

A

Constricted pupil

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22
Q

What is mydriasis

A

Enlarged pupils

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23
Q

What is cherry eye

A

Everted third eyelid gland

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24
Q

What is Corneal edema

A

Cloudy cornea

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25
Q

How do you diagnose a corneal ulcer

A

Positive fluorescein test

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26
Q

What is neovascularisation

A

Excessive in growth of blood vessels into the cornea

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27
Q

What is scleral hyperemia

A

Redness of the sclera due to engorged vessels of the sclera

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28
Q

What is Icteric sclera

A

Yellow color due to hyperbilirubinemia

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29
Q

What can you auscultate on the left side

A

PulmonaryAorticMitral

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30
Q

What can you auscultate on the right

A

Tricuspid

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31
Q

What is glaucoma

A

High inter ocular pressure

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32
Q

What is uveitis

A

Low inter ocular pressure

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33
Q

What does it mean if the mucous membranes are pink

A

The animals normal

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34
Q

What does it mean if the mucous membranes are pale or white

A

Anemia, poor perfusion, vasoconstriction

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35
Q

What do blue mucus membranes mean

A

Inadequate oxygenation

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36
Q

What do brick red mucus membranes mean

A

Increased perfusion, vasodilation

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37
Q

What do yellow mucus membranes mean

A

Bilirubin accumulation

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38
Q

What do brown mucus membranes mean

A

Methemoglobinemia

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39
Q

What do petechia mucus membranes mean

A

Coagulation disorder

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40
Q

How do you do a fluorescein test

A

1 First the eye may or may not be anesthetized with a drop of topical anesthetic (lidocaine)2 The strips are moistened with saline and the dye allowed to flow out over the cornea. 3. The eye is then gently washed with saline to remove all the excess dye

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41
Q

How do you do a schirmers test

A

Do prior to administration of topical anesthetic. A standardized paper slip is gently placed on the eye. And allowed to absorb tears for one minute, wetting values of less than 15 mm/m are abnormal

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42
Q

What could prolonged capillary refill time indicate

A

The animal circulation is compromised due to cold, shock, cardiovascular disease, anemia

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43
Q

What organs are located in the cranial abdomen

A

Stomach, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, small intestine, two thirds of kidney, spleen

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44
Q

What organs are located in the mid abdomen

A

Small intestines, Caudal 1/3 of the kidneys, spleen, plus or minus ovaries and uterus

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45
Q

What organs are located in the caudal abdomen

A

Large intestine, colon, plus or minus uterus, bladder, prostate.

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46
Q

What should you be able to palpate in the abdomen

A

Stomach, liver, small intestine, kidney, large intestine, colon, bladder

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47
Q

What is wheezing

A

Breathing with a rasp or whistling sound. Results from construction of obstruction of the throat, pharynx, trachea or bronchi

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48
Q

What is dyspnea

A

Respiratory distress

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49
Q

What are the signs of respiratory distress

A

Posturing. Standing or sitting up with back arched, neck extended, and elbows out. Open mouth breathing

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50
Q

What do you call a bump in the skin

A

Intradermic

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51
Q

What do you call a lump under the skin

A

Subcutaneous

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52
Q

What is erythema

A

Redness/area of bruising

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53
Q

What are condomes

A

Blackheads

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54
Q

What are papules

A

Small circumscribed solid elevated lesion

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55
Q

What is a pustule

A

Small circumscribed elevated, pus containing lesion

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56
Q

What are squames

A

Scale, thin plate like structure

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57
Q

What is atrophia

A

Muscles that are wasting

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58
Q

How do you initiate palpebral reflex

A

Touch corner of eye.

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59
Q

How do you initiate menace reflex

A

Hide one eye with one hand, move your other hand close to the eye.

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60
Q

What is nystagmus

A

Involuntary movements of the eyeballs in unison

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61
Q

What is miosis

A

Excessive pupil construction

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62
Q

Excessive pupil dilation

A

What is mydriasis

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63
Q

What is anisocoria

A

Unequal size of pupils

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64
Q

What is Melena

A

Black, tarry, foul smelling stools which are digested blood

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65
Q

What is hematochezia

A

Red colored stools which is undigested blood

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66
Q

What are the normal temps for dogs

A

37.5-39.2*C

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67
Q

What are the normal temps for cats

A

38.1-39.2*C

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68
Q

What is the normal pulse for dogs

A

60-140bpm

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69
Q

What is the normal pulse for toy breeds

A

Up to 180 bpm

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70
Q

What is the normal pulse for puppies

A

Up to 220bpm

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71
Q

What is the normal pulse for cats

A

140-220bpm

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72
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for dogs

A

10-30bpm

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73
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for cats

A

24-43bpm

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74
Q

What are the 6 routes of drug administration

A

ParenteralOralTopicalIntranasalRectalAerosol

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75
Q

What does parenteral mean

A

Not through the alimentary canal. Aka by injection

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76
Q

What are the parenteral routes

A

InjectableIntraperitonealIntralesional Intradermal

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77
Q

What are the most common needle gauge sizes for injection

A

22,23,25g

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78
Q

What are the complications to injections

A

IrritationTissue necrosisInfection

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79
Q

Where can injections be given

A

Anywhere over the dorsal cervical, thoracic or lumbar regions.

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80
Q

Where is the ideal site for sub q injections

A

Over shoulders and neck

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81
Q

What is the exception to the ideal sq injection site

A

Vaccines, can cause sarcomas which have to be removed due to becoming cancerous

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82
Q

List a few drugs that can’t be given sub q

A

ThiopentalKetamine

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83
Q

If you get ️pain while injecting sub q what might be the case

A

You’re Intradermal

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84
Q

Why are solutions injected sub q absorbed more slowly than iv

A

It is not going straight into the bloodstream so it has to be absorbed through the smaller blood vessels

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85
Q

On which muscle group do you do im injections in the thigh

A

Semimembranous and Semitendinosis muscle

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86
Q

What are your im injection landmarks for the thigh

A

Distally: no lower than stifle

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87
Q

What are your landmarks proximally for the thigh

A

Don’t go more proximal than hip

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88
Q

What are your landmarks cranially for the thigh

A

Femur

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89
Q

What is the cranial epaxial muscle landmark

A

Last rib

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90
Q

What is the caudal epaxial muscle landmark

A

Crest of illium

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91
Q

What are the landmarks when injecting into the tricep muscles

A

Top of humerus (above elbow), go caudal to humerus

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92
Q

What are the landmarks when injecting in the quadriceps muscle group

A

Cranially to femur

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93
Q

What direction does venous blood flow

A

Toward the heart

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94
Q

How do you avoid phlebitis

A

Inflammation of vessels. Disinfect and change needle

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95
Q

How do you prevent vein collapse

A

Don’t withdraw plunger too fast

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96
Q

Which drugs can cause tissue necrosis if injected wrong

A

Thiopental KetamineDextrose

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97
Q

What is intraperitoneal

A

Into the peritoneal cavity

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98
Q

What is Intradermal

A

In the derm

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99
Q

What is intralesional

A

Into a lesion

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100
Q

Name a common clinician sign in cats and dogs where administering an oral drug is contraindicated.

A

Vomiting or severe diarrhea

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101
Q

What is the advantage of aerosol over traditional therapy

A

Less pancreatitis, diabetes, Polyuria, cystitis, innapropriate urination, behaviour changes

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102
Q

What are the feline core vaccines

A

RhinotracheitisCalici virusPanleukopenia Rabies ***

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103
Q

Give an example of the vaccine schedules for kittens

A

At 8 wk, 12wk, 16wk

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104
Q

Give an example of the vaccine schedule for a 16wk old cat

A

16wk, 20wk and then 1yr later

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105
Q

Why do we give boosters till 16 weeks of age

A

Due to the mda from the mom.

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106
Q

Where do you administer the fvrcp vaccine

A

Front Right shoulder

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107
Q

Where do you administer te rabies vaccine

A

Rhl

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108
Q

Where do you administer the felv vaccine

A

Lhl

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109
Q

What are the core dog vaccines

A

DistemperAdenovirusParvovirisParainfluenza (incl. in bottle)Rabies **

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110
Q

How do you check for cheyletiella

A

Scotch tape and microscope

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111
Q

How do you check for demodex mites

A

Skin scrapings. Alopecic area

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112
Q

How do you test for sarcoptoc mites

A

Skin lesions at ear margins. Do skin scrapings.

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113
Q

What do tapeworms look like

A

Rice

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114
Q

What do roundworms look like

A

Spaghetti

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115
Q

What do hookworms look like

A

Spaghetti with large head

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116
Q

What does using zinc sulfate allow the visualization of

A

Protozoa (giardia, cryptosporidium etc)Nematodes

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117
Q

What are the deworming schedule recommendations for puppies/kittens

A

2,4,6,8,10,12 wk then once a month until 6 months

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118
Q

What is the deworming schedule for adult dogs

A

Approx 4x/ year

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119
Q

What is the deworming schedule for a reproductive bitch

A

Once during mating, once after giving birth then 2,4 weeks after giving birth

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120
Q

What is the deworming schedule for outdoor cats

A

Every 3 months but if it’s a hunter cat then 1x/month

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121
Q

What is perfusion

A

The process in which blood carries oxygen and important nutrients to body tissues. Depends on many body compensatory responses but also on the administration of appropriate fluid volumes to maintain intravascular volume

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122
Q

What to mean conditions is fluid therapy used for

A

Hypovolemic shock and dehydration

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123
Q

What are six purposes of fluid therapy

A

Replace water loss, maintain normal hydration, restore electrolytes and nutrients, vehicle to administer IV medications, replenish blood loss, increase or maintain intravascular osmotic pressure

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124
Q

What percent of an animal’s total body weight is made up of water

A

60%

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125
Q

What percent of body weight is made up of water in neonate’s

A

80%

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126
Q

What are the three main components of total body water distribution

A

Intracellular fluid space. Interstitial fluid space. Intravascular fluid space.

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127
Q

What percent of total body water does intracellular fluid space make up

A

66%

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128
Q

What percent of total body water is interstitial fluid space make up

A

24%

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129
Q

What percent of total body water does intravascular fluid space make up

A

10%

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130
Q

What is considered extracellular fluid

A

Interstitial fluid space and intravascular fluid space

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131
Q

How much percent of total body water does extracellular fluid make up

A

34%

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132
Q

Describe intracellular fluid

A

Within cells

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133
Q

Describe interstitial fluid

A

Between cells

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134
Q

Describe intravascular fluid

A

Water within blood vessels and lymphatic system

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135
Q

What percent of body weight does the blood volume makeup in dogs

A

8 to 9% of body weight

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136
Q

What percent of body weight does blood volume make up in cats

A

6 to 7%.

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137
Q

What is the total body water in a healthy dog

A

534 to 660 mL per kilogram

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138
Q

What is the estimated intravascular water volume in dogs

A

90 mL per kilogram

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139
Q

What is the estimated intravascular water volume in cat

A

45 mL per kilogram

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140
Q

What separates extracellular and intracellular fluid

A

Cell membrane which is permeable to water but not to most solutes

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141
Q

What solutes does body water contain

A

Cations, anions and other solutes

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142
Q

What is responsible for generating concentration gradient across the membrane

A

The ion channels and the active solute pumps

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143
Q

What are the three normal inputs of H2O for an animal

A

Water, food, metabolism of carbohydrates and fat

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144
Q

What are the three things responsible for the loss of H2O in an animal

A

Peeing, pooping, sweating and hypersalivation

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145
Q

What is the estimated water loss over 24 hours from peeing

A

20ml/kg/24hr

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146
Q

What is the estimated water loss over 24hrs from pooping

A

10-20ml/kg/24hr

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147
Q

What is the estimated water loss over 24hrs from sweating and hyper salivating

A

20ml/kg/24hr

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148
Q

What is the total estimated loss per day on average

A

50-60ml/kg/24hr

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149
Q

What is the total estimated fluid loss for puppies/kittens in a day

A

80ml/kg/24hr

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150
Q

How do you calculate maintence

A

50-60ml/kg/day

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151
Q

What is osmotic pressure

A

The amount of pressure necessary to stop the flow of H2O across a semi permeable membrane

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152
Q

What is hydrostatic pressure.

A

It’s basically blood pressure. Pressure generated by the force of a fluid within a compartment

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153
Q

What is the colloid oncotic pressure

A

The power of intravascular protein to retain fluid within blood vessels. Opposite to hydrostatic pressure and pulls the fluid into the circulatory system

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154
Q

What is the capillary membrane composed of

A

Thin membrane of endothelial cells that contain tight or gap junctions through which fluid and Solutes can flow. Permeable to water and electrolytes but not to proteins

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155
Q

What are the two ways solutes dissolved in fluid can flow between compartments

A

By passive diffusion from an area of higher to lower concentration. Or From one compartment to another by active transport mechanism

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156
Q

What does the rate of fluid exchange depend on

A

The forces that favor fluid retention within compartments versus the forces that favor fluid movement or filtration from a compartment to another

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157
Q

How is the colloid oncotic pressure dictated

A

By the concentration of proteins within the space. Albumin mainly contributes to it. Proteins are large molecules so they remain within blood vessels, retaining fluid with them and thereby maintaining blood volume.

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158
Q

What happens when hydrostatic forces exceed oncotic colloid forces

A

Fluid will leave one compartment and go to the other

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159
Q

What determines how fluids are distributed during fluid therapy

A

The composition of the administered fluid, in conjunction with the hydrostatic pressure and the colloid oncotic pressure in the capillories and tissues

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160
Q

What does the movement of a particular fluid between compartments depend on

A

The permeability of the relevant barrier (capillary membrane versus cell membrane)The concentration of molecules contained within each compartment

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161
Q

What will happen to intravenous fluid containing small molecules

A

It will pass freely out of the capillaries and into the intracellular space. They will be distributed throughout both the intravascular space on the interstitial space

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162
Q

What happens to intervenous solutions containing large molecules

A

They will remain within the capillaries. They will expand the intravascular space more efficiently

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163
Q

What will happen to intervous solution that is more concentrated than plasma

A

It will draw water into the blood vessels from the intracellular and interstitial spaces

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164
Q

What two factors cause a disordered fluid balance

A

Decreased intake or increased output

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165
Q

How is the degree of dehydration estimated

A

History, physical exam, laboratory tests

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166
Q

When taking the animals history and checking for dehydration what questions do you need to ask about

A

Route of loss, duration of loss, type of loss, frequency and volume of loss, concurrent medical problems

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167
Q

When doing the physical examination of the animal how do you estimate dehydration

A

Bodyweight, skin elasticity, pulse quality, mucous membrane color, temperature, attitude, heart rate and respiratory rate

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168
Q

What are acute losses of bodyweight considered

A

Mostly fluid losses

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169
Q

What does .1 kg of weight lost equal in fluid lost

A

100 mL of fluid

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170
Q

What an animal is less than 5% dehydrated what are the physical examination findings

A

History of fluid loss but no physical examination abnormalities

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171
Q

What an animal is 5% dehydrated what are the physical examination findings

A

Slight decreased skin turgor, semi dry oral mucous membranes

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172
Q

When in animal is 7% dehydrated what are the physical exam findings

A

Mild to moderate decreased skin turgor, dry oral mucous membranes, slight tachycardia, capillary refill time greater than or equal to three seconds

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173
Q

What an animal’s 10% dehydrated what are the physical exam findings

A

Moderate to marked decreased skin turgor, Dry oral mucous membranes, moderate signs of shock Pale mucous membranes, tachycardia, capillary refill time greater than three seconds, decreased pulse

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174
Q

What an animal is 13% dehydrated what are the physical exam findings

A

Plus or minus marked loss of skin turgor, obvious signs of shock.

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175
Q

How do you perform a skin turgor test

A

Twist the skin in between shoulder blades, the time it takes reflects the dehydration of the animal

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176
Q

What are some points to keep in mind when estimating the degree of dehydration

A

Aged animals lose their skin elasticity, patients with third space losses have no change in bodyweight: aka pleural effusion or ascites, obese patients or neonates can have abnormally resilient skin even when dehydrated, nausea and salivation moistens dry mucous membranes

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177
Q

What are the laboratory tests to test for dehydration

A

Packed cell volume, total protein, BUN, glucose, urine specific gravity, electrolytes, CBC, biochem

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178
Q

What are the three phases of fluid therapy

A

Emergency phase (hypovolemic shock) replacement phase (dehydration), maintenance phase (maintenance volume)

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179
Q

Describe shock

A

Ineffective perfusion of tissues with blood. Results in cellular hypoxia

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180
Q

What are the six signs of shock

A

Pale mucous membranes, increased capillary refill time, tachycardia, weak pulse, depression, cool extremities

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181
Q

What is hypovolemia

A

Decreased fluid volume within the intravenous space due to hemorrhage or trauma.

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182
Q

What happens when more than 25% of intravenous volume is lost

A

Severe hypovolemia and hypotension. This leads to hypovolemic shock

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183
Q

What happens when 50 to 60% of intravenous volume is lost

A

Cardiac arrest

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184
Q

What are some common causes of hypovolemia

A

Significant hemorrhage, loss of plasma water during severe vomiting or diarrhea, end-stage dehydration, inadequate intake, hypoproteinemia

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185
Q

What is the goal of the emergency phase

A

To reverse hypotension and shock, not to correct dehydration

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186
Q

What happens if the clinical signs of shock resolve after the first bolus of fluid

A

Proceed to replacement face if the animal is dehydration or the maintenance phase if he is not dehydrated but not eating or drinking

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187
Q

How do you tell if the clinical signs of hypovolemia are resolved

A

Mucous membrane color improves, heart rate decreases, pulse quality improves, attitude of animal improves, capillary refill time improves, respiratory rate stabilizes, peripheral extremities are warm

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188
Q

What volume of fluid is needed for dogs in the emergency phase

A

60 to 90 mL/kg/hr

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189
Q

What amount of fluid is needed for a cat in the emergency phase

A

45 to 60 mL/kg/hr

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190
Q

How do you calculate how many milliliters of fluid you need for the replacement phase

A

Deficit volume (hydration deficit), maintenance volume, abnormal ongoing losses volume

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191
Q

What is the deficit volume or the hydration deficit

A

Amount of fluid to be replaced to bring audible back to normal hydration status

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192
Q

What is maintenance fluid

A

The volume of fluid and amount of electrolytes that must be taken in on a daily basis to keep the volume of total body water and electrolyte content normal.

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193
Q

Is Bordetella bronchiseptica vaccine considered a core vaccine

A

No

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194
Q

Is leptospirosis considered a non-core vaccine

A

Yes

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195
Q

True or false only 20% of puppies and kittens are infected with roundworms and hookworms

A

False

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196
Q

True or false puppies and kittens should be dewormed until four months of age

A

True

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197
Q

True or false leptospirosis vaccine should be given every year

A

True

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198
Q

True or false solution injected subcutaneously is more rapidly absorbed then intravenously

A

False

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199
Q

True or false while doing an intramuscular injection into the thigh, the needle must be directed toward the caudal aspect of the Limb

A

True

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200
Q

True or false the lingual vein is mainly used for emergency drug administration

A

True

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201
Q

True or false the F I V vaccine is considered a core vaccine

A

False

202
Q

What is the cranial landmark for the dorsal lumbar muscle IM injection

A

The last rib

203
Q

What is the Caudal landmark of the dorsal lumbar muscle Im injection

A

Crest of ilium

204
Q

Why does the American Association of feline practitioners recommend boosters until 16 weeks of age for the FVRCP vaccine in cats

A

To minimize vaccination failure that can occur due to the presence of maternal antibodies from the RCP vaccine

205
Q

True or false after recovery from feline rhinotracheitis the cats do not remain a carrier of the virus

A

False

206
Q

True or false the treatment for feline chlamydia is mainly oral and ocular antibiotics

A

True

207
Q

What are the four serovars present in the canine leptospirosis vaccine

A

Leptospira canicola, grippotyphosa, pomona, icterohaemorrhagie

208
Q

True or false the neurological signs of canine distemper can be tremors, paralysis, seizures

A

True

209
Q

What is a common clinical sign caused by Feline Calicivirus

A

Oral ulcer

210
Q

What type of diarrhea is a classic clinical signs of feline Panleukopenia

A

Bloody

211
Q

What is the incubation period for Lyme disease

A

2 to 5 months

212
Q

What canine infectious disease is characterized by a maximum intensity harsh and dry cough

A

Canine tracheobronchitis

213
Q

List three clinical signs that are associated with canine parvovirus

A

Lethargy, weight loss due to dehydration, diarrhea

214
Q

What is the goal of fluid therapy

A

To ensure the patient has an adequate amount of fluid distributed appropriately in the body to maintain homeostasis and perfusion

215
Q

What is a solute

A

Particles that are dissolved in sterile water of an IV fluid

216
Q

What is osmolarity

A

Concentration in terms of Oz moles of solute per kilogram of solvent. Largely determined by sodium and glucose

217
Q

What are the two main groups of fluids

A

Cristalloids, Colloids

218
Q

What is a cristalloid fluid

A

A substance in a solution that can pass through a semi permeable membrane. True solutions of homogeneous mixture of electrolytes with or without dextrose. Expand the intravenous space and cause better tissue perfusion, can replenish fluid losses within and outside blood vessels

219
Q

What is a disadvantage of cristalloids

A

Require 2 to 4 times the volume lost by patients with hypovolemia

220
Q

Define iso tonic high sodium crystalloid

A

Solution that contains a high amount of sodium, the exact same osmolarity as plasma and extracellular fluid’s.

221
Q

What happens when isotonic crystalloid is administered

A

Explains the intravenous space

222
Q

What are isotonic cristalloids usually used for

A

Replacement phase: due to readily available easily administered and inexpensive cost. I.e. parvovirus, gastric foreign body, hepatic lipidosisMaintenance phase: during anestheticEmergency phase: hypovolemic shock

223
Q

What are some commonly used isotonic Christalloids

A

.9% NaCl , lactated ringer, plasma lyte

224
Q

What is a hypotonic Cristalloid

A

Solution which the osmolarity is lower than that of plasma and extracellular fluid. Has a lower sodium ion concentration then serum. Causes cells to expand

225
Q

What are the common indications for hypotonic Christalloids

A

Intermittent sub Q fluid administration for cat with chronic renal insufficiency, cardiac patient

226
Q

What are some commonly used hypotonic Christalloids

A

.45% NACl plus or minus dextrose, dextrose 2.5%

227
Q

What is a hypertonic crystalloid

A

Solution with greater osmolarity than plasma in extracellular fluid. Solution of high sodium concentration. Causes cells to shrink

228
Q

Why would you use hypertonic crystalloid fluid

A

For hypovolemic shock patients

229
Q

What are some common hypertonic crystalloids

A

7.5% NaCl

230
Q

What is a colloud fluid

A

High molecular weight ingredient dissolved in a replacement solution, usually .9%

231
Q

Describe colloid movement

A

Most of the solution is retained within intervenous space where it increases osmotic pressure of blood, expands intravenous be sufficiently, asked to hold water in bloodstream and maintain blood pressure

232
Q

What is the advantage to colloid fluid

A

More effective than crystalloids at expanding blood volume when given at the same rate and volume

233
Q

What are the two categories of colloids

A

Natural colloids and synthetic colloids

234
Q

What are some natural colloids

A

Plasma product, whole blood product, hemoglobin-based product, albumin

235
Q

What is colloid fluid used for

A

Increasing COP of plasma in patients with Hypoalbuminemia, increasing the circulating blood volume when shock is present, hypovolemic patients to reduce edema

236
Q

During the emergency phase what type of fluid do you use

A

Iso tonic solution, hypertonic solution, Colloid solution

237
Q

During the replacement phase what type of fluids do you use

A

Isotonic solution, hypotonic solution

238
Q

During the maintenance phase what type of fluids do use

A

Isa tonic, hypotonic, colloid

239
Q

If there’s no patient between the film and the x-ray beam what color will the film be

A

Black

240
Q

What is the degree of blackness on a radiograph dependent on

A

The amount of x-rays reaching the film

241
Q

What is the emulsion layer of the film

A

Contains silver hollered crystals suspended and disbursed evenly throughout the layer. On both sides to increase film sensitivity, speed, density, contrast

242
Q

When the film is developed in developer solution the sensitized silver will be converted to what on the x-ray film after processing

A

Dark black dots

243
Q

If there is an object between the x-ray beam and the film, exposing the film to radiation will create a what image because not all x-rays will reach the film

A

Latent

244
Q

After producing the film the latent image will be converted to what

A

2-D image

245
Q

What is MA used for

A

To control the quality of x-rays produced by the x-ray beam. When MA is increased a higher number of x-rays are generated

246
Q

What is the length of exposure time

A

The period of time during which the x-rays are permitted to leave the x-ray tube.

247
Q

What is the general exposure time for dogs at Vanier

A

1/24

248
Q

What is the general exposure time for cats at vanier

A

1/30

249
Q

What does the MAS describes

A

The total quantity of x-rays produced by the x-ray tube at a given time.

250
Q

What is the KV P

A

Amount of electrical energy being applied to the anode and cathode to accelerate the radiation from the cathode toward the target

251
Q

What happens when KV P is increased

A

The penetrating power of x-ray through tissue is increased

252
Q

What are the three things that radiographic quality is dependent on

A

Radiographic density, radiographic contrast, radiographic detail

253
Q

What is radiographic density

A

The degree of blackness on a radiograph.

254
Q

What can the radiographic density be increased by

A

Increasing the MAS, increasing the KV P

255
Q

What is radiographic density also influenced by

A

Thickness and type of tissue

256
Q

Tissues. That have higher density absorb more x-rays and result in what color

A

White or light image

257
Q

What can you say about bones and x-rays in terms of density and contrast

A

They have a high density. But decrease the radiographic density. They are high contrast

258
Q

What is radiographic contrast

A

The difference in density between two adjacent areas on a radiographic image

259
Q

What is low contrast

A

Long scale of contrast. Many shades of gray

260
Q

What is a high contrast

A

Short scale of contrast. Few shades of gray. Ex: bones

261
Q

What is radiographic contrast affected by

A

Subject density, KV P level, scatter radiation, film fogging

262
Q

What is the definition of subject density in relation with radiographic contrast

A

The ability of the different tissue density us to absorb x-rays. Xers penetrate the various tissues depending on differences in atomic number and thickness

263
Q

What happens when you increase subject density

A

Will increase radiographic contrast.

264
Q

What can High KVP produce

A

A low curling trust radiograph. The higher the KV P, the longer the scale of contrast.

265
Q

What happens with low KVP

A

Produces a high contrast radiograph with a short scale of contrast.

266
Q

What anatomical regions require a high KVP setting

A

Thorax and abdomen

267
Q

What anatomical regions require low KVP setting

A

Bones

268
Q

What is scatter radiation

A

Radiation produced when x-rays from primary beam collide with objects in its path, I merge in all different directions.

269
Q

Why is scatter radiation undesirable

A

Fogs the film, contrast is decreased, you are exposed to radiation

270
Q

Why does high KV P produce more scatter radiation

A

Controls penetrating power of x-rays so more x-rays get through patient and through the film

271
Q

What is an important beam limiting device

A

Collimators or grids

272
Q

What are the causes of film fogging

A

Leaks in darkroom, scatter radiation, heat, improper processing

273
Q

What is a grid

A

Device placed between patient and film to absorb scatter radiation and improve image quality

274
Q

What is a Bucky

A

Device placed under the x-ray table that moves the grid back-and-forth. Placed in the cabinet beneath x-ray table with a trade to hold cassette. Decreases or eliminates white gridlines on radiograph

275
Q

What is Geo metric unsharpness due to

A

Patient motion, long exposure time

276
Q

How do you prevent geometric unsharpness

A

Have shortest possible exposure time

277
Q

What is foreshortening

A

When image seems smaller than really is not parallel to recording surface. Subject must be parallel to photo graphic plate

278
Q

What is the normal temperature for cats

A

38.1 to 39.2

279
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for dogs

A

60-140bpm

280
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for toy breeds

A

60-180bpm

281
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for puppies

A

60-220bpm

282
Q

What is the normal pulse rate for cats

A

140-220bpm

283
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for dogs

A

10-30bpm

284
Q

What is the normal respiratory rate for cats

A

24-42bpm

285
Q

In the field, if an animal stops breathing what Is the order of stuff you’re supposed to do

A

Check airwaysGive artificial breathing: mouth to snout 1 breath per 3 seconds Check circulation. *****get heart pumping before breathing.

286
Q

What is cardiac arrest

A

Absence of effective contraction of the heart.

287
Q

What is cardiorespiratory arrest

A

Complete stop of cardiac and respiratory activities that will lead to permanent damage and death if not addressed within 3-4 mins

288
Q

What is the warning signs of cardiorespiratory arrest

A

Signs of hypotension Shallow or rapid breathing Bleeding from wounds may stop Bladder and Anus may relaxPupils may begin to diliate

289
Q

What are the clinical signs of CRA

A

No heart beatNo femoral pulseNo respiration Blue or grey mucus membranesMydriasis of pupilsNo bleeding of wounds

290
Q

What position does the dog have to be in for cpr

A

Need to be in right lateral.

291
Q

What is the success rate of cpr in the field

A

0%

292
Q

What is the normal temperature for dogs

A

37.5-39.2

293
Q

What is the cranial and caudal landmark for the vd abdomen d

A

Diaphragm and greater trochanter of the femur

294
Q

What is the cranial and caudal landmark for right lateral thorax

A

Manubrium and diaphragm

295
Q

What are the 3 steps required to set up the automatic processor

A

Turn it on, make sure valves are closed, press run

296
Q

What is required by the omvq for X-ray labels

A

Vet clinic, date, clients first name, clients last name, pets name, r/L view, X-ray view

297
Q

Do you take abdomen on inspiration and expiration

A

Expiration

298
Q

Do you take thorax on inspiration or expiration

A

Inspiration

299
Q

What is the cranial and Caudal landmarks of the pelvic X-ray

A

Wings of ileum and stifle joint

300
Q

Explain how to take an X-ray of the mediolateral view of the right knee

A

Center over joint and collimating to view the whole joint

301
Q

Explain how to take an X-ray of the mediolateral view of the left elbow

A

Center over the joint and collimate to view the whole joint

302
Q

How do you know if it’s adequate penetration

A

Anatomic silhouettes are visible. The film appears grey around the patient and you can see your fingers behind it.

303
Q

What do you change if the X-ray has good penetration but lacks the blackness

A

Increase mas x2

304
Q

What do you do if the outlines are not visible in an X-ray

A

Increase KVP by 10%

305
Q

What are the two questions to ask yourself if a X-ray is good

A

Is the film too light or too dark?Is there proper penetration

306
Q

What are the qualities of a quality radiograph

A

Adequate penetration, sufficient density, good scale of contrast.

307
Q

What type of contrast do you want for soft tissue

A

Low contrast

308
Q

What type of contrast do you want for bone

A

High contrast

309
Q

What do radiopaque areas appear

A

White

310
Q

What color are radiolucent areas

A

Black

311
Q

Describe a positive contrast agent

A

Absorb more X-rays than soft tissue or bone. Contains element with a high density

312
Q

Describe negative contrast agents

A

Do not absorb X-rays. Appear black

313
Q

What are some advantages to barium sulfate as a positive contrast media

A

Insoluable and not diluted by gastric secretions ➡️ ideal for gi studies Inexpensive

314
Q

What is the disadvantage of barium sulfate

A

The body cannot eliminate it since it is insoluable so if there is GI perforation it will not be absorbed and can cause irritations and cause risk of peritonitis reactions. Can take 3 hrs or more to travel from stomach to colon.

315
Q

When can you not use barium sulfate

A

When there is a GI perforation

316
Q

What are organic iodides

A

Positive contrast mediumOpaque Easily injectedWell tolerated Water soluable: kidneys CAN BE EITHER IONIC OR NONIONIC

317
Q

Why would you use a PO formulation of a water soluable organic ionic iodide

A

For contrast studies of GI tract when GI tract perforation is suspected

318
Q

Why would you use an IV formulation of water soluable organic ionic iodides

A

To inject into a hollow organ such as bladder or an IV.

319
Q

Why isn’t iv formulation of water soluable organic ionic iodides used for myelography

A

Because it is irritating to the brain and the spinal cord

320
Q

What does rapid large IV bolus of water soluble organic ionic iodides cause

A

Vomiting and decreased blood pressure. Give a slow bolus

321
Q

What are water soluble organic non-ionic iodides used for

A

Myelography since it costs a lot of money

322
Q

What is myelography

A

To be injected into the sub arachnoid space the compartment within the spinal column which contains the cerebral spinal fluid

323
Q

What can be used as a negative contrast media with gas

A

Air, O2, N2, N2O, CO2

324
Q

Why must you not over inflate the organs when doing a negative contrast media with gas

A

Ulcerative lesions that causes the organ to rupture and cause an air embolism

325
Q

What are the negative and positive components to a double contrast procedure

A

Negative: airPositive: water soluble organic ionic iodide

326
Q

With what organs would you do a double contrast procedure

A

The urinary bladder, the stomach, the colon

327
Q

How do you perform a double contrast procedure

A

Inject the negative contrast medium first such as the air.

328
Q

Why do inject the negative contrast medium first in double contrast procedures

A

Can cause air bubbles to form and misinterpretation

329
Q

How do you introduce contrast media

A

Oral administration or orogastric tube to prevent aspiration

330
Q

Why are radiographs taken at intervals during contrast studies of the digestive system

A

Changes in morphology, rate of gastric emptying, small bowel transit time.

331
Q

What are the warnings in contrast studies

A

Aspiration pneumonia, if you suspect perforation use an organic ionic iodide

332
Q

How long should the patient be fasted before a contrast study

A

12 to 24 hours fasted

333
Q

Do you use an enema in the contrast study

A

You may or may not use it depending.

334
Q

Do use anesthetic in a contrast media

A

No because it alters gastric motility

335
Q

Why is atropine or glycopyrrolate contra indicated when you’re doing contrast studies

A

It’s an anti-cholinergic drug that increases heart rate and decreases saliva it also relaxes the smooth muscle so it slows down gastric motility

336
Q

Which anesthetic is okay for dogs in contrast studies

A

Ace promazine. Minimal facts on gastric motility in the dog. significantly shortened the transit time for cats. If gastric motility is a concern do not use Acepromazine in the cat.

337
Q

What sedative is okay to use in a cat for contrast studies instead of Acepromazine

A

Ketamine

338
Q

Why do you do a esophgography

A

To evaluate oesophageal function and structural alterations.

339
Q

Why would you do a esophagography

A

Regurgitation of undigested food, acute gagging, dysphasia

340
Q

Describe the contrast medium in an esophgography

A

Positive contrast medium. Barium sulfate paste mixed with canned food, if you suspect perforation use water soluble organic ionic iodide. Give it directly by the mouth with a syringe or an orogastric tube

341
Q

What x-ray views are required when doing an esophagography

A

Lateral and VD of cervical and thoracic area including total length of esophagus

342
Q

When do you do a ugi study

A

To evaluate stomach and small intestine, not the colon.

343
Q

Why would you do a ugi

A

In the presence of reoccurring chronic vomiting. when suspecting obstruction by radiolucent foreign body into the stomach or small intestines. when suspecting wall lesions such as neoplasia

344
Q

What is the contrast media used for the UGI study

A

Positive contrast agent barium sulfate 30% liquid diluted with one-to-one water. Water-soluble organic ionic iodide if suspected perforation

345
Q

What is the quantity of contrast media to give for a UGI study

A

3 to 5 mL per pound

346
Q

How do you give the contrast media for a UGI study

A

By Mouth or by an orogastric tube

347
Q

What materials do you need to perform a UTI a study by mouth

A

Large dose syringe filled with the barium and administer directly into the mouth.

348
Q

What materials are used for orogastric intubation for UTI study

A

Introduce an orange feeding tube into her stomach then connect the syringe filled with the appropriate quantity of barium

349
Q

Perform the procedure for UTI study

A

Radiographs are made during transit of contrast to the stomach and small intestine until it reaches the colon. You need to do multiple x-rays at zero, 15, 30, 60, 90 +/- 180 min. Must do vd and lateral each time

350
Q

Why do you do a Gastrography

A

To evaluate size shape and morphology of the stomach.

351
Q

Why do you do a Gastrography

A

Acute or chronic vomiting, mass, foreign body, obstruction, cranial abdominal pain

352
Q

Which contrast media do use for Gastrography

A

+ barium sulfate suspension 60% + water soluble in organic ionic iodide if suspected perforation - air. Double contrast agents

353
Q

What is an LG I study used for

A

Introduction of a contrast media into the rectum, colon or caecum to study their position or Contour

354
Q

Why do you do in LGI study

A

For diarrhea, tenesmus, blood, colitis, obstruction, neoplasia, to detect intussusceptions.

355
Q

What is tenesmus

A

Forcing to pAss stools

356
Q

What is intussuceptions

A

Intestines rolling inside itself

357
Q

What is the contrast media used for a LGI study

A

+ barium sulfate 20% (60% diluted with saline)- or double contrasts.

358
Q

How do you introduce the Contrast medium into the LGI study

A

By Foley catheter. Requires general anesthesia

359
Q

What composes the upper urinary tract system

A

The kidneys and ureters

360
Q

What composes the lower urinary tract system

A

Bladder and urethra

361
Q

Why do we do a contrast study of the urinary tract

A

Indicated in patients with chronic problems such as chronic hematuria, protein urea, Crystalluria, polyuria, dysuria

362
Q

What is a Cystography

A

Introduction of a contrast media into the bladder via the urinary catheter

363
Q

Why would you do his cystography

A

Cystic calculi, neoplasia, bladder rupture, bladder wall anomaly

364
Q

What does rapid large IV bolus of water soluble organic ionic iodides cause

A

Vomiting and decreased blood pressure. Give a slow bolus

365
Q

What are water soluble organic non-ionic iodides used for

A

Myelography since it costs a lot of money

366
Q

What is myelography

A

To be injected into the sub arachnoid space the compartment within the spinal column which contains the cerebral spinal fluid

367
Q

What can be used as a negative contrast media with gas

A

Air, O2, N2, N2O, CO2

368
Q

Why must you not over inflate the organs when doing a negative contrast media with gas

A

Ulcerative lesions that causes the organ to rupture and cause an air embolism

369
Q

What are the negative and positive components to a double contrast procedure

A

Negative: airPositive: water soluble organic ionic iodide

370
Q

With what organs would you do a double contrast procedure

A

The urinary bladder, the stomach, the colon

371
Q

How do you perform a double contrast procedure

A

Inject the negative contrast medium first such as the air.

372
Q

Why do inject the negative contrast medium first in double contrast procedures

A

Can cause air bubbles to form and misinterpretation

373
Q

How do you introduce contrast media

A

Oral administration or orogastric tube to prevent aspiration

374
Q

Why are radiographs taken at intervals during contrast studies of the digestive system

A

Changes in morphology, rate of gastric emptying, small bowel transit time.

375
Q

What are the warnings in contrast studies

A

Aspiration pneumonia, if you suspect perforation use an organic ionic iodide

376
Q

How long should the patient be fasted before a contrast study

A

12 to 24 hours fasted

377
Q

Do you use an enema in the contrast study

A

You may or may not use it depending.

378
Q

Do use anesthetic in a contrast media

A

No because it alters gastric motility

379
Q

Why is atropine or glycopyrrolate contra indicated when you’re doing contrast studies

A

It’s an anti-cholinergic drug that increases heart rate and decreases saliva it also relaxes the smooth muscle so it slows down gastric motility

380
Q

Which anesthetic is okay for dogs in contrast studies

A

Ace promazine. Minimal facts on gastric motility in the dog. significantly shortened the transit time for cats. If gastric motility is a concern do not use Acepromazine in the cat.

381
Q

What sedative is okay to use in a cat for contrast studies instead of Acepromazine

A

Ketamine

382
Q

Why do you do a esophgography

A

To evaluate oesophageal function and structural alterations.

383
Q

Why would you do a esophagography

A

Regurgitation of undigested food, acute gagging, dysphasia

384
Q

Describe the contrast medium in an esophgography

A

Positive contrast medium. Barium sulfate paste mixed with canned food, if you suspect perforation use water soluble organic ionic iodide. Give it directly by the mouth with a syringe or an orogastric tube

385
Q

What x-ray views are required when doing an esophagography

A

Lateral and VD of cervical and thoracic area including total length of esophagus

386
Q

When do you do a ugi study

A

To evaluate stomach and small intestine, not the colon.

387
Q

Why would you do a ugi

A

In the presence of reoccurring chronic vomiting. when suspecting obstruction by radiolucent foreign body into the stomach or small intestines. when suspecting wall lesions such as neoplasia

388
Q

What is the contrast media used for the UGI study

A

Positive contrast agent barium sulfate 30% liquid diluted with one-to-one water. Water-soluble organic ionic iodide if suspected perforation

389
Q

What is the quantity of contrast media to give for a UGI study

A

3 to 5 mL per pound

390
Q

How do you give the contrast media for a UGI study

A

By Mouth or by an orogastric tube

391
Q

What materials do you need to perform a UTI a study by mouth

A

Large dose syringe filled with the barium and administer directly into the mouth.

392
Q

What materials are used for orogastric intubation for UTI study

A

Introduce an orange feeding tube into her stomach then connect the syringe filled with the appropriate quantity of barium

393
Q

Perform the procedure for UTI study

A

Radiographs are made during transit of contrast to the stomach and small intestine until it reaches the colon. You need to do multiple x-rays at zero, 15, 30, 60, 90 +/- 180 min. Must do vd and lateral each time

394
Q

Why do you do a Gastrography

A

To evaluate size shape and morphology of the stomach.

395
Q

Why do you do a Gastrography

A

Acute or chronic vomiting, mass, foreign body, obstruction, cranial abdominal pain

396
Q

Which contrast media do use for Gastrography

A

+ barium sulfate suspension 60% + water soluble in organic ionic iodide if suspected perforation - air. Double contrast agents

397
Q

What is an LG I study used for

A

Introduction of a contrast media into the rectum, colon or caecum to study their position or Contour

398
Q

Why do you do in LGI study

A

For diarrhea, tenesmus, blood, colitis, obstruction, neoplasia, to detect intussusceptions.

399
Q

What is tenesmus

A

Forcing to pAss stools

400
Q

What is intussuceptions

A

Intestines rolling inside itself

401
Q

What is the contrast media used for a LGI study

A

+ barium sulfate 20% (60% diluted with saline)- or double contrasts.

402
Q

How do you introduce the Contrast medium into the LGI study

A

By Foley catheter. Requires general anesthesia

403
Q

What composes the upper urinary tract system

A

The kidneys and ureters

404
Q

What composes the lower urinary tract system

A

Bladder and urethra

405
Q

Why do we do a contrast study of the urinary tract

A

Indicated in patients with chronic problems such as chronic hematuria, protein urea, Crystalluria, polyuria, dysuria

406
Q

What is a Cystography

A

Introduction of a contrast media into the bladder via the urinary catheter

407
Q

Why would you do his cystography

A

Cystic calculi, neoplasia, bladder rupture, bladder wall anomaly

408
Q

What is the positive contrast medium used in a cystography

A

Water soluable organic ionic iodide.

409
Q

What is the negative contrast media used in a cystography

A

Air.

410
Q

What is a urethrography

A

Filling the urethra with a contrast medium

411
Q

Why would you do a urethrography

A

Calculus, to detect urethral trauma. Stricture, obstruction.

412
Q

What is the positive contrast media used in a urethrography

A

Water soluable organic ionic iodide

413
Q

What is the negative contrast medium use in a urethrography

A

Air

414
Q

What is an excretory urography

A

Iv injection of a cm into venous blood gets filtered out and collected by kidneys.

415
Q

Why do you do an excretory urography

A

To evaluate renal function and ureters. To see kidney structure and kidney capacity to concentrate and excrete urine

416
Q

What is the contrast medium used in an excretory urography

A

Sterile water soluable iodinated contrast medium

417
Q

What are 5 typical properties of an ideal contrast medium

A

Non irritating or toxic side effects. Accurate delineation of the organ. Persistence for sufficient time to take radiographs, total expulsion from body.

418
Q

Why do you do a negative contrast studies

A

Show the location, size and wall thickness of the organ.

419
Q

What is a positive contrast study

A

Best way of detecting a small defect in the wall of the organ as minor contrast leakage is easily seen

420
Q

What is a double contrast study

A

Uses a small amount of positive contrast medium to coat the mucosal surface of a hollow organ such as the bladder. Followed by the distension with air.

421
Q

What is cr

A

Computed radiography

422
Q

What is computed radiography

A

Uses storage phosphor image plates that are exposed and then undergo a seperate image readout process. The image plate is contained in a cassette

423
Q

What is Dr

A

Direct radiography

424
Q

What is direct radiography

A

Convert X-ray into electrical charges more or less directly, enabling almost instantaneous readout. Uses no cassette.

425
Q

What is a fluroscopy

A

Uses X-rays to obtain real time moving images

426
Q

What is a cat scan

A

X-ray generating tube that makes a continuous circular movement around the patient. Mathematically reconstruct a cross sectional image of a body area

427
Q

What is a mri

A

Magnetic resonance imaging. Uses magnets and radiowaves to make the image. No X-ray produced.

428
Q

What is ultrasound used for

A

Displays the soft tissue textures and dynamics of some organs.

429
Q

How are sound waves classified

A

By wavelength Frequency Velocity

430
Q

What is a wavelength

A

Distance from one band of compression to the next. Have a shorter wavelength than audible sound.

431
Q

What is the frequency defined as

A

Number of complete waveforms per unit of time

432
Q

Describe the relationship between frequency and wavelength

A

Inversely proportional . As the frequency increases the wavelength decreases

433
Q

Describe the sound waves used by an ultrasound

A

High frequency sound waves

434
Q

What does an ultrasound transducter probe do

A

Produces the ultrasound beam. Produces low intensity, high frequency sound waves.

435
Q

Describe how the ultrasound probe works

A

It has piezoelectric crystals. When an electrical current runs through the crystals they vibrate and produce sound waves. When they’re stuck by the returning echoes the crystals convert the echoes to electrical energy

436
Q

What type of energy is ultrasound based on

A

Reflected energy

437
Q

What type of energy is radiology based on

A

Transmitted energy

438
Q

What does echogenic mean

A

That most of the sound is reflected back to the transducter. Appears white on the screen.

439
Q

What does anechoic mean

A

Describes the tissues that transmit the sound to the deeper tissues and reflecting none of the sound back to the transducter. The area appears black on the screen and they’re usually an organs fluids

440
Q

What does hypoechoic mean

A

Describes tissues that reflect less sound back to the transductor than the surrounding tissues. They appear darker than the surrounding tissues and have a low level of grey compared to adjacent tissues.

441
Q

What is hyperechoic

A

Describes tissues that reflect more sound back than the surrounding tissues. Reflects very white echoes and causes acoustic shadowing

442
Q

What is an example of a hypoechoic item

A

Hematoma

443
Q

What is an example of a hyperechoic item

A

Air, bone, bladder stones etx.

444
Q

What is isoechoic items

A

Items with the same echo texture as the surrounding tissues.

445
Q

Why do we clip an animals hair for ultrasound

A

Interferes with image and decreases quality

446
Q

Why do we use acoustic gel on the ultrasound probe

A

To increase contact surfaces

447
Q

Why do you avoid barium or topical products with zinc when doing an ultrasound

A

Will interfere with sound transmission

448
Q

If you’re doing an abdominal ultrasound do you have to fast

A

Yes for 12hr to allow visualization of stomach.

449
Q

What can an ultrasound be used to see

A

Abdominal organsHeartEye and surrounding structures Soft tissues around spine and extremitiesTendons and muscles.

450
Q

What are some advantages to ultrasound

A

Provide information about organ architecture. Helpful is debilitated or young patients where you Cannot use contrast medium. Able to distinguish solid masses from ones containing fluid. Can do cytology

451
Q

What are some disadvantages to ultrasound

A

Gas gets in the way of imaging. Approach is more difficult in a big dog Great equipment cost Require lots of training

452
Q

What is the second stage of fibroplastic healing

A

Collagen phase. Collagen is created and layed down in wound to close it

453
Q

What is the 3rd stage of fibroplastic healing

A

Maturation phase. Scar eventually forms and becomes flatter, paler and softens dramatically.

454
Q

What is epithelial regeneration and when does it occur

A

Starts within hours of wound appearing but can take up to 5 days before cells completely migrate across the wound itself to attach to each other. Occurs in fibroblastic stage

455
Q

What are systemic factors that affect wound healing

A

AgeNutritional status Disease

456
Q

What are local factors that affect wound healing

A

Extent of damage in wound. Dessication of woundVascularity of area effected. Infection of wound Bleeding of woundForeign material in wound

457
Q

What does dessication of the wound cause

A

Tissue destruction and delayed healing

458
Q

What does the vascularity of an area affect

A

Highly vascular areas heal more quickly than others

459
Q

What does infection do to the wound healing

A

Mechanically seperation of wound margins or cellular disruption by toxins.

460
Q

What does bleeding do to slow wound healing

A

Clots must be absorbed or liquified. Best hemostasis is with pressure, clamping and tying and finally cautery

461
Q

What is the first stage of fibroplastic healing

A

Exudative stage. Acute inflammation and release of chemical mediators.

462
Q

What does a foreign body do to slow the healing

A

Will form a drainage tract as long as some remains.

463
Q

What are some external factors that affect wound healing

A

Drugs such as corticosteroidsRadiotherapy

464
Q

If a wound has been exposed for less than 6-8 hrs what is it considered

A

Uncomplicated and uninfected.

465
Q

If a wound is open more than 8hrs what is it considered

A

Complicated and infected

466
Q

What are the three types of wound healing

A

First intention Second intentionThird intention

467
Q

What is healing by first intention

A

Primary closure and has a small scar

468
Q

What is healing by second intention

A

Granulation tissue with a scab and a large scar

469
Q

What is third intention healing

A

Suturing once granulation tissue has formed.

470
Q

What are the three c’s of wound treatment

A

CleansingClosing Covering

471
Q

How do you prepare uncomplicated wounds

A

Protect while shaving areaCleanse skin with antiseptic Flush wound with saline or chlorexidine Excise dead tissue and suture wound Apply dressing or bandages as needed

472
Q

How do you prepare complicated wounds

A

Protect while shaving areaCleanse skin with antiseptic Flush wound with chlorhexidine. Apply wet saline dressings Cover with tefle pad Bandage.

473
Q

How does fluid drain with a penrose drain

A

Drains around them rather than through them.

474
Q

Generally when do you remove sutures

A

Between 7-14days

475
Q

What are some topical antibiotics

A

Polysporin, neomycin, silver sulfadiazine, nitrofurazone.

476
Q

What are some enzymatic debriefing agents

A

Castor oil, preparation H

477
Q

What do hydrophilic agents do

A

Cause diffusion of fluids through wound tissues into a bandage and allows easier absorption

478
Q

What are some lavage solutions you can use

A

Chlorhexidine solution, tris EDTA, povidone iodine, acetic acid

479
Q

Why do we use bandages

A

Prevent contamination of woundPrevent mutilation Maintain clean environment for wound healing Control edema (swelling) and seromaPrevent use of limbSupport weak tissue Secure catheters

480
Q

What are the ten primary indications for bandages

A

AbsorptionProtectionAntisepsisPressure Immobilization DebridementPackingInformationComfortAesthetic

481
Q

Describe the absorption of a dressing

A

Acts as a passageway and storage for wound draining.

482
Q

Describe the first layer of a bandage

A

Tefle pad to prevent adhesion.

483
Q

Describe te second layer of a bandage

A

Cling or cotton roll

484
Q

Describe the third layer of a bandage

A

Cling or vet wrap

485
Q

What is the protection role of a bandage

A

Protect the wound from further trauma

486
Q

What is the immobilization function of a bandage

A

Places the wound and rest and thereby decreases ️pain present and allows healing to occur without disruption from mechanical trauma. Also decreases the amount of scar tissue formation

487
Q

Describe the pressure aspect of a bandage

A

May exert a slight amount of pressure upon a wound. Reducing the amount of transudate collected in a dead space. Reduces the possibility of a seroma or a hematoma which become an excellent culture media for bacteria.

488
Q

What do you have to check the bandage for

A

Swelling, coolness, dryness and odour.

489
Q

What is debridement

A

Wet wound dressings are indicated to decrease the viscosity of the thick wound secretions thus aiding in their removal.

490
Q

What are some materials for bandaging

A

Gauze squaresKing /conform bandageRoll cotton and roll paddingDifferent types of tape and Elastoplast Vet wrap Tefla pads

491
Q

What is the contact layer

A

Touches wound surface and remains in contact during movement Should minimize pain and prevent excess loss of body fluidsAdherant - debridement required. Nonadherant - used when granulation tissue has formed and does not stick to wound.

492
Q

Describe the intermediate layer to bandages

A

Absorbent layer, removes and stores exudate, should be thick enough to collect fluid. Pads the wound against trauma. Limits movement and holds the contact layer in place

493
Q

What is the outer layer use for

A

Holds the other parts in place

494
Q

What are adherant bandage

A

Assist in debriding by liquefying necrotic debris.

495
Q

What are stabilizing bandages used for

A

Used to minimize further tissue damages, these are heavily padded such as a Robert Jones

496
Q

What are pressure bandages used for

A

Used to facilitate control of minor hemorrhage, edema. Goods for those spays that bleed, also for animals in shock

497
Q

What are pressure relief bandages used for

A

Used to prevent pressure, usually over a bony prominence. Donut shaped and well padded and difficult to maintain in place

498
Q

Describe an eye surgery bandage

A

Slip 2 fingers under

499
Q

Describe an aural hematoma bandage

A

If tight don’t remove, just snip and retape loosely.

500
Q

Describe a pharyngostomy tube

A

If it slips and restricts respiration or swells neck then remove

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) (26 decks)

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