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Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) > Cell Biology > Flashcards

Cell Biology Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is biophilia?

A

The love of living things

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2
Q

What is biology ?

A

The science of the study of life

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3
Q

What are Cyanobacteria ?

A

Bacteria capable of photosynthesis

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4
Q

What is life?

A

Made up of at least 1 cell. Way of capturing and using energy and raw materials

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5
Q

When did life begin?

A

3.8 billion years ago with chemical origin of the first living cell

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6
Q

Prokaryotic cells contain :

A

Plasma membraneCytoplasmDNANucleoidRibosomes

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7
Q

Eukaryotic cells contain

A

Plasma membraneCytoplasmDNANucleusRibosomes

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8
Q

Cyanobacteria means what

A

Capable of photosynthesis

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9
Q

What is nature?

A

Everything in the universe except for what humans have manufactured

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10
Q

What are atoms?

A

Fundamental building blocks of all substances

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11
Q

What are molecules?

A

Consisting of two or more atoms

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12
Q

What is a cell?

A

Smallest unit of life

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13
Q

What is an organism ?

A

An individual consisting of one of more cells

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14
Q

What is a population?

A

Individuals of the same species in the same area

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15
Q

What is a community?

A

Populations of all species in same area

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16
Q

What is an ecosystem?

A

A community and it’s environment

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17
Q

What is a biosphere?

A

All regions of the earth where organisms live

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18
Q

What is an emergent property?

A

A characteristic of a system that does not appear in any of its component parts

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19
Q

What is an animal?

A

Multicellular consumer, life stages , mobile

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20
Q

What is an archaeon ?

A

Single celled, no nucleus, closely related to eukaryotes

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21
Q

What is a bacterium?

A

Single celled, no nucleus

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22
Q

What is biodiversity?

A

Variation among organisms

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23
Q

What is a prokaryote?

A

Cell with no nucleus

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24
Q

What is a fungus?

A

Single celled/multicelled, digests outside body, absorbs released nutrients, decomposer

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25
Q

What is a nucleus?

A

A sac that encloses DNA

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26
Q

What is a plant?

A

Multicelled producer by photosynthesis

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27
Q

What is a protist

A

Part of group of eukaryotes

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28
Q

What is a genus?

A

A group of species that share unique features

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29
Q

What is a species?

A

Individuals that share one or more heritable traits and can interbreed.

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30
Q

What are the three domains that organisms are classified into?

A

Bacteria, archaea, eukarya

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31
Q

What is energy?

A

The capacity to do work

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32
Q

What is a nutrient?

A

Atom/molecule that has an essential role in growth and survival that an organism cannot make for itself

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33
Q

What are producers?

A

Acquire energy and simple raw materials from environmental sources to make their own food

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34
Q

What is photosynthesis?

A

Sunlight energy to make sugars from carbon dioxide and water

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35
Q

What are consumers?

A

Cannot make their own food, get energy and nutrients indirectly by eating producers and other organisms

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36
Q

What are decomposers?

A

Feeds on waste or remains of organisms

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37
Q

What is a receptor?

A

Molecule or cellular structure that responds to a specific form of stimulation.

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38
Q

What is homeostasis

A

Adjustment to change allows organisms to keep conditions in their internal environment within a range that favors cell survival

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39
Q

What is DNA?

A

Nucleic acid and source of each individual’s distinct figures

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40
Q

What is inheritance

A

Transmission of DNA from parents to offspring

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41
Q

What is reproduction?

A

Actual mechanisms by which parents transmit DNA to offspring

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42
Q

What is development ?

A

The orderly transformation of the first cell of a new individual into an adult

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43
Q

What is a species?

A

A kind of organism

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44
Q

What is a genus?

A

First part of a two part name for a species

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45
Q

What is a bacteria?

A

Single celled organism

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46
Q

What does prokaryotic mean?

A

Bacteria containing no nucleus.

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47
Q

What are archaeons?

A

They are the same as prokaryotes but evolutionally closer to eukaryotes

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48
Q

What are eukaryotes?

A

An organism with a nucleus

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49
Q

What are Protists?

A

Simplest kind of eukaryotes

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50
Q

What are fungi

A

Multicelled and eukaryotic organisms

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51
Q

What are plants?

A

Multicelled eukaryotes

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52
Q

What are animals?

A

Multicelled eukaryotes that ingest tissue or juices of other organisms

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53
Q

What are mutations ?

A

Small scale changes in DNA

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54
Q

What is an adaptive trait?

A

Trait that has changed in a way that makes an individual better suited to his environment

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55
Q

What is natural selection?

A

Differential survival and reproduction of individuals in a population that differ in the details if their heritable traits

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56
Q

What is evolution

A

Change in the line of decent

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57
Q

What is critical thinking?

A

Judging information before accepting it

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58
Q

What is science?

A

The systematic study of nature

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59
Q

What is scientific theory

A

A hypothesis that has not been disproved after years of tests

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60
Q

What are experiments

A

Tests that can support or falsify a prediction

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61
Q

What is a variable?

A

Characteristics that differs among individuals or events

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62
Q

What is an experimental group :

A

Group of individuals that recieve a certain treatment

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63
Q

What is a control group?

A

Identical to experimental groups but missing one characteristic

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64
Q

What is a sampling error

A

What is a sampling error?

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65
Q

What are atoms ?/

A

Particles that are the building blocks of all substances

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66
Q

What are protons?

A

Subatomic particles carrying a positive charge

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67
Q

What are neutrons?

A

Subatomic particles carrying no charge

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68
Q

What are electrons?

A

Subatomic particles carrying a negative charge

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69
Q

What is a charge?

A

An electrical property that attracts/repels other subatomic particles

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70
Q

What is an atomic number?

A

An amount of protons an element contains

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71
Q

What is an element?

A

Pure substance containing only of atoms with the Same amount of protons

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72
Q

What is a mass number?

A

Total number of protons/neutrons in a nucleus

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73
Q

What is a periodic table?

A

All elements known in a table based on their chemical properties

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74
Q

What is a radioisotope ?

A

Radioactive isotope

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75
Q

What is radioactive decay?

A

The spontaneous emission of energy when their nucleus breaks down

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76
Q

What is a tracer?

A

Any molecule with a detectable substance attached

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77
Q

What is a shell model?

A

Used to check an atom for vacancies

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78
Q

What is an ion?

A

Atom with a different amount of electrons and protons

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79
Q

What is electro negativity?

A

Measure of an atoms ability to pull electrons from other atoms

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80
Q

What is a chemical bond?

A

Attractive force that arises between two atoms when their electrons interact.

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81
Q

What is a molecule?

A

Formation when two or more atoms of the same or different elements join in chemical bonds

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82
Q

What are compounds?

A

Molecules that consist of two or more different elements in proportions that do not vary

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83
Q

What is a mixture?

A

Two or more substances intermingle. Does not bond

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84
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

Two atoms sharing a pair of electrons

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85
Q

What is non polar?

A

Atoms participating in bond share electrons equally

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86
Q

What is polar?

A

Atoms participating in a bond do not share electrons equally

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87
Q

What is polarity?

A

Separation of charge into distinct positive and negative regions

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88
Q

What is a hydrogen bond?

A

Weak attraction between a highly electronegative atom and a hydrogen atom

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89
Q

What is a solvent?

A

Liquid that can dissolve other substances

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90
Q

What is a solute?

A

The substance being dissolved

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91
Q

What does hydrophilic mean?

A

Polar molecules that are water loving

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92
Q

What does hydrophobic mean?

A

Water dreading substances ie.oils

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93
Q

What is temperature?

A

Way to measure energy of a molecular motion (vibration)

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94
Q

What is evaporation?

A

Molecules move faster and individual molecules at the waters surface escape into the air

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95
Q

What is cohesion ?

A

Molecules resist separating from one another

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96
Q

What is ph?

A

The measure of the amount of hydrogen ions in a solution

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97
Q

What are acids?

A

They donate hydrogen ions as they dissolve in water

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98
Q

What do bases do?

A

They accept hydrogen atoms

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99
Q

What is a salt?

A

Something that dissolves easily in water and releases ions other than h+ and oh-

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100
Q

What is a buffer system ?

A

Weak acid or base and it’s salt that can keep the ph of a solution stable

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101
Q

What is a functional group?

A

A cluster of atoms covalently bonded to a carbon atom of an organic molecule

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102
Q

What is metabolism?

A

Activities by which cells acquire and use energy as they construct, rearrange, and split organic compounds.

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103
Q

What is condensation ?

A

Two molecules covalently bonded into a larger one

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104
Q

What is a monomer?

A

Molecule that is used to build larger molecules that are the structural and functional parts of cells

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105
Q

What is a polymer?

A

Large chains of monomers

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106
Q

What is cleavage?

A

When a molecule splits into two smaller ones. Hydrolysis is an example

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107
Q

What is a functional group transfer?

A

When a functional group is transferred from one molecule to another

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108
Q

What is electron transfer ?

A

When electrons are transferred from one molecule to another

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109
Q

What is rearrangement?

A

Juggling of covalent bonds converts one organic compound into another

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110
Q

What are carbohydrates?

A

Organic compounds that consist of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen in a 1:2:1 ratio

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111
Q

What are lipids?

A

Fatty, oily, or waxy organic compounds that are insoluble in water

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112
Q

What are fatty acids?

A

Simple organic compounds that have a carboxyl group joined to a backbone of four to thirty six carbon atoms

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113
Q

What are fats?

A

Fats are lipids with one, two, or three fatty acids that dangle like tails from a small alcohol called glycerol

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114
Q

What are triglycerides?

A

Fats with three fatty acid tails linked to the glycerol

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115
Q

What are phospholipids ?

A

Have a polar head with a phosphate in it and two non polar fatty acid tails

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116
Q

What are waxes?

A

Complex, varying mixtures of lipids with long fatty acid tails bonded to long chain alcohols or carbon rings

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117
Q

What are steroids?

A

Lipids with a rigid backbone of four carbon rings and no fatty acid tails

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118
Q

What is a protein?

A

Organic compound composed of one or more chains of amino acids

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119
Q

What are Polypeptides ?

A

Bonded amino acids in chains

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120
Q

What is to denature?

A

To have the shape unravel and to no longer function

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121
Q

What is ATP?

A

A nucleotide called adenosine triphosphate

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122
Q

What are Nucleic acids?

A

Polymers - chains of nucleotides in which the sugar of one nucleotide is joined to the phosphate group of the next

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123
Q

What is RNA?

A

Ribonucleic acid

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124
Q

What is DNA?

A

Deoxyribonucleic acid

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125
Q

What are monosaccharides?

A

Simple sugars

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126
Q

What are oligosaccharides?

A

Short chain carbohydrates

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127
Q

What are polysaccharides?

A

Complex carbohydrates

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128
Q

What are glycerides?

A

Glycerol backbone with one,two or three fatty acid tails ie. triglycerides

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129
Q

What are mostly fiberous proteins?

A

Long strands or sheets of polypeptide chains ; often strong and water insoluble

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130
Q

What are mostly globular proteins?

A

One or more polypeptide chains folded into globular shapes; many roles in cell activities

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131
Q

What four generalizations make up cell theory?

A
  1. Every living organism consists of one or more cells 2. The cell is the structural and functional unit of all organisms. A cell is the smallest unit of life, individually alive even as part of a multicelled organism3. All living cells come from a division of other pre-existing cells 4. Cells contain hereditary material which they pass on to their offspring during division
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132
Q

What is a cell?

A

A cell is the smallest unit that shows the properties of life

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133
Q

What is a eukaryotic cell?

A

A cell containing a nucleus

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134
Q

What is a prokaryotic cell?

A

A cell without a nucleus

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135
Q

What is a plasma membrane?

A

Cells outer membrane

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136
Q

What is a nucleus?

A

Double membraned sac holding a eukaryotic cells DNA

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137
Q

In prokaryotic cells where is the DNA found?

A

In a region of cytoplasm called the nucleoid region

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138
Q

What is a cytoplasm?

A

A semi fluid mixture of water, sugars, ions, and proteins between the plasma membrane and the region of DNA

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139
Q

What are ribosomes?

A

Structures on which proteins are built and suspended in cytoplasm

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140
Q

What is surface to volume ratio?

A

A physical relationship

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141
Q

What is a lipid bilayer?

A

The structural foundation of all cell membranes

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142
Q

What is a cell wall?

A

A rigid wall surrounding the plasma membrane of nearly all prokaryotes.

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143
Q

What is flagella?

A

Slender cellular structures used for motion

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144
Q

What is a pili?

A

Protein filaments that helps cells cling to or move across surfaces

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145
Q

What are biofilms?

A

Communial living arrangements in which single celled organisms live in shared mass of slime

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146
Q

What does the endoplasmic reticulum do?

A

Routes and modifies new polypeptide chains and synthesizes lipids

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147
Q

What does a Golgi body do?

A

Modifies new polypeptide chains and sorts and ships proteins and lipids

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148
Q

What do vesicles do?

A

Transport, store and digest substances in a cell

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149
Q

What do mitochondrion do?

A

Make ATP by sugar breakdown

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150
Q

What do chloroplast do?

A

Make sugars in plants and some Protists

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151
Q

What does a lysosome do?

A

Intracellular digestion

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152
Q

What does peroxisome do?

A

Inactivates toxins

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153
Q

What does a vacuole do?

A

Stores things

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154
Q

What is an organelle?

A

Structure that carries out a specialized function in a cell

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155
Q

What does a ribosome do?

A

Assembles polypeptide chains

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156
Q

What does a centriole do?

A

Is an anchor for cytoskeleton

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157
Q

What is a nuclear envelope?

A

The membrane of a nucleus

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158
Q

What is a nucleoplasm?

A

A viscous fluid similar to cytoplasm

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159
Q

What is a nucleolus?

A

A dense irregularly shaped region where subunits of ribosomes are assembled from proteins and RNA

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160
Q

What is chromatin?

A

Name for all of the DNA together with its associate proteins in the nucleus

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161
Q

What is a chromosome?

A

Each molecule of DNA together with it’s many attached proteins

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162
Q

What is the endomembrane system?

A

Series of interacting organelles between the nucleus and the plasma membrane

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163
Q

What is endoplasmic reticulum ?

A

Extension of the nuclear envelope

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164
Q

What are peroxisomes?

A

Containing enzymes that digest fatty acids and amino acids

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165
Q

What are vacuoles?

A

They isolate and dispose of waste, debris or toxic materials

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166
Q

What is a Golgi body

A

Attach phosphate groups or sugars and cleave certain polypeptide chains

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167
Q

What are lysosomes?

A

Vesicles that contain powerful digestive enzymes

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168
Q

What is a mitochondrion?

A

Type of organelle that specializes in making ATP

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169
Q

What are plastids ?

A

Membrane enclosed organelles that function in photosynthesis or storage in plants and algal cells

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170
Q

What are chloroplasts?

A

Organelles that are specialiZed for photosynthesis

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171
Q

What is a central vacuole?

A

An area where amino acids, sugars, ions, wastes, and toxins accumulate

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172
Q

What is a primary wall?

A

Plasma membrane cemented together by pectin and is then covered in cellulose

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173
Q

What is a secondary wall?

A

The secretion of material onto the primary walls inner surface forms the secondary wall

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174
Q

What is lignin?

A

A complex polymer of alcohols that makes up as much as 25% of the secondary wall of cells in older stems and roots

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175
Q

What is an extra cellular matrix?

A

Non living complex mixture of fiberous proteins and polysaccharides is secreted by cells and varies with the type of tissue.

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176
Q

What are cell junctions?

A

Structures that connect cells to other cells and to the environment

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177
Q

What are microtubules?

A

Long, hollow cylinders that consist of subunits of the protein tubulin

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178
Q

What are microfilaments?

A

Fibers that consist primarily of subunits of the globular protein actin

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179
Q

What is a cell cortex?

A

A reinforcing mesh under the plasma membrane

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180
Q

What are intermediate filaments ?

A

Stable parts of a cells cytoskeleton that strengthen and maintain cell and tissue structures

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181
Q

What are motor proteins?

A

Accessory proteins that move cell parts in a sustained direction when they are repeatedly energized by ATP

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182
Q

What are eukaryotic flagella and cilia?

A

Whiplike structures that propel cells through fluid

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183
Q

What is a centriole?

A

Barrel shaped organelle which remains below the finished area as a basal body

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184
Q

What are psuedopods?

A

False feet

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185
Q

What is ATP?

A

The energy currency of the cell

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186
Q

What does DNA tell organisms to do?

A

To grow, develop and reproduce using information in their DNA

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187
Q

What molecules are cells composed of?

A

Carbohydrates - sugarsLipids - fatsProteinsNucleic acids - DNA and RNA

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188
Q

Compare life’s three domains

A
  1. Bacteria - single celled , prokaryotic2. Archaea - single celled, prokaryotic. Evolutionarily closer to eukaryotes3. Eukarya - eukaryotic cell. Both single celled and multicelled
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189
Q

Name the six kingdoms

A
  1. Bacteria2. Archaea3. Protists4. Plants5. Fungi6. Animals
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190
Q

What happens to adaptive traits over generations?

A

They tend to become more common in a population and less adaptive forms of traits become less common

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191
Q

Give an example of artificial selection?

A

Dog breeds

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192
Q

What is a vestigial structures and what is it an example of?

A

It is a structure that loses it’s original function and becomes something else. Ie hair of a chimp standing up to show fear ➡️ goosebumps on a human

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193
Q

What is science limited to?

A

Science is limited to that which is observed

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194
Q

Give an example of an observation

A

People get cancer

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195
Q

Give an example of a hypothesis

A

Smoking cigarettes may cause cancer

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196
Q

What is probability?

A

The measure expressed as a percentage of the chance that a particular outcome will occur

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197
Q

What does statistically significant mean?

A

It refers to a result that is statistically unlikely to have courses by chance

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198
Q

What atoms are life’s chemical basis?

A

Protons, neutrons , electrons

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199
Q

Why do electrons matter?

A

Whether an atom will interact with other atoms depends on how many electrons it has

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200
Q

How to electrons move around the nuclei?

A

They move in orbitals

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201
Q

What are the three most common types of bonds?

A

Ionic, covalent and hydrogen

202
Q

What is an ionic bond?

A

Weak bond. Ions stay together because of mutual attraction of opposite charges, have a large difference in electronegativity

203
Q

What is a covalent bond?

A

Two atoms with similar electronegativity and unpaired electrons sharing a pair of electrons. Stronger than ionic bond. Can share one, two or three pairs of electrons

204
Q

What are the two types of covalent bonds and give a short explanation

A
  1. Non polar covalent bond : share electrons equally. Formed between atoms with identical electronegativity2. Polar covalent bond :Atoms with different electronegativity do not share electrons equally. One atom is more neg other is more pos
205
Q

What is polarity?

A

Separation of charge into distinct positive and negative regions in a polar covalent molecule

206
Q

What is a hydrogen bond

A

A weak attraction between a highly electronegative atom and a hydrogen atom taking part in a seperate polar covalent bond. Not a chemical bond. Not a molecule. Stabilizes structures of proteins and DNA

207
Q

Where did life originate ?

A

Life originated in water.

208
Q

Does water have a charge?

A

No water does not have a charge

209
Q

Is a water molecule polar or non polar? And why

A

Water molecule is polar because oxygen atom is slightly negative and hydrogen atom is slightly positive

210
Q

Are polar molecules hydrophobic or hydrophilic?

A

Hydrophilic

211
Q

Are non polar molecules hydrophilic or hydrophobic?

A

They’re hydrophobic

212
Q

Are nonpolar molecules able to be dissolved by water?

A

No, only polar molecules

213
Q

What is specific heat?

A

Heat needed to raise temp by 1 degree

214
Q

What is cohesion?

A

When molecules resist separating from each other

215
Q

Why don’t marine life forms freeze in the winter?

A

Because ice is less dense than water and freezes ontop of the water

216
Q

What do trans fats do to the body?

A

Raise levels of cholesterol in our blood and directly alter blood vessel function

217
Q

What are trans fats?

A

Partially hydrogenated vegetable oils formed by a chemical hydrogenation process. Double bond

218
Q

Bonds can be both…

A

Cis or trans

219
Q

What molecules are considered organic molecules?

A

Carbohydrates, lipids , proteins and Nucleic acids

220
Q

Give four properties of organic molecules

A
  1. Always contain c and h2. Always covalently bonded3. May be quite large4. Often associated with living organisms
221
Q

Give four properties of inorganic molecules

A
  1. Usually contain metals and non metals2. Usually ionic bonds 3. Relatively smaller4. Often associated with non living organisms
222
Q

What are carbon ring structures represented as and what do they imply?

A

Represented as polygons and carbon atoms are implied

223
Q

Describe the hydroxyl group

A

PolarFound in alcoholsFound in sugars and amino acids

224
Q

Describe the methyl group

A

NonpolarFound mainly in fatty acids

225
Q

Describe the carbonyl group

A

Found in sugars, amino acids and nucleotide bases

226
Q

Describe the carboxyl group

A

Found in amino acids and fatty acidsHighly polarHas ability to donate h+ hence acid

227
Q

Describe the amine group

A

Found in amino acidsGives organic molecule ability to absorb h+ hence weak base

228
Q

Describe the phosphate group

A

Found in ATP, phospholipids, DNA, RNA Water soluble

229
Q

Describe sulfhydryl group

A

Sulphur is highly electronegativeStrong factor in giving shape by forming disulfide bridges

230
Q

What does the metabolism require?

A

Enzymes

231
Q

What are the five categories of reactions

A
  1. Functional group transfer2. Electron transfer3. Rearrangement4. Condensation5. Cleavage
232
Q

What do carbohydrates contain?

A

A carbonyl functional groupSeveral hydroxyl groupsMany c-h bonds

233
Q

What are the four types of carbohydrates in living systems?

A

Monosaccharides DisaccharidesOligosaccharidesPolysaccharides

234
Q

What is a monosaccharide called if it has 3 carbons?

A

Trioses : Ex. Glyceraldehyde

235
Q

What are monosaccharides called if they have 5 carbons?

A

Pentoses:Ex. Deoxyribose, ribose

236
Q

What are monosaccharides called if they have 6 carbons?

A

HexosesEx. Glucose, galactose, fructose

237
Q

What disaccharide is formed when glucose is bonded with fructose?

A

Sucrose

238
Q

What disaccharide is created when glucose is bonded with glucose?

A

Maltose

239
Q

What disaccharide is formed when glucose is bonded with galactose?

A

Lactose

240
Q

What are the four most common polysaccharides?

A

Cellulose, starch, glycogen and chitin

241
Q

What is cellulose used for?

A

In plant cell walls

242
Q

What is chitin used for?

A

Nitrogen containing groups attached to glucose monomers in insects and fungal cell walls

243
Q

What is a peptidoglycan used for?

A

Forms a mesh like layer outside the plasma membrane of bacteria, forming the cell wall

244
Q

What is starch used for?

A

In plants, branched chains

245
Q

What is glycogen used for?

A

In animals is stored in muscle and liver cells

246
Q

Describe saturated fatty acids

A

No double bonds between carbons and is saturated with hydrogen atoms

247
Q

Describe both types of unsaturated fatty acids

A

Some double bonds in carbon chainMonounsaturated: one double bondPolyunsaturated: more than one

248
Q

What is eater linkage?

A

The connection between a head and a fatty acid tail

249
Q

What does amphipathic mean?

A

Have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties

250
Q

What is a polypeptide?

A

Chain of amino acids bonded together by peptide bonds in a condensation reaction between the amine group of one amino acid and the carboxyl group of another amino acid

251
Q

List the four levels of protein structure

A

PrimarySecondaryTertiaryQuaternary

252
Q

What is a primary structure (protein)

A

Unique amino acid sequence of a protein

253
Q

What is a secondary structure ?(protein)

A

The polypeptide chain folds and forms hydrogen bonds between amino acids

254
Q

What is a tertiary structure (protein)?

A

Secondary structure is compacted into structurally stable units called domainsForms a functional protein

255
Q

Describe a quaternary structure(protein)?

A

Some proteins consist of two or more folded polypeptide Chains in close association

256
Q

What are prion diseases caused by?

A

Caused by misfiled proteins

257
Q

What do nucleotides consist of?

A

One or more phosphate groupsA pentose sugarA nitrogenous base

258
Q

In DNA a,t,c,g pairs with what?

A

A with TG with C

259
Q

What is the formula for image magnification ?

A

Objective power x ocular power

260
Q

What is the ocular lens?

A

Lenses you look through

261
Q

What is the objective lens?

A

The lens that is closest to the object

262
Q

What is the revolving nose piece?

A

It holds the objectives

263
Q

What is the coarse focus knob?

A

Raises and lowers the stage allowing you to focus the image

264
Q

What is the fine focus knob?

A

Raises the stage by tiny amounts and brings the image into sharp focus

265
Q

What is the stage?

A

Holds the glass microscope slide containing the specimen

266
Q

What is the light source

A

Built into the microscope

267
Q

What is the arm?

A

Let’s you carry the microscope with one hand, while the other holds the microscope underneath

268
Q

What is the iris diaphragm?

A

Controls the amount of light entering the lens system

269
Q

What is the substage condenser?

A

Focuses light on the subject

270
Q

What objective is the nosepiece supposed to be on when you remove a slide?

A

4x

271
Q

What is the objective power of the scanning objective?

A

4x

272
Q

What is the objective power of a medium power objective?

A

10x

273
Q

What is the objective power for a high power objective?

A

40x

274
Q

What is the objective power of an oil immersion objective?

A

100x

275
Q

What microscope allows for the largest image magnification?

A

Compound

276
Q

What happens to the field of view as you change it from low to high magnification!

A

The higher magnification the smaller the field of view

277
Q

What is the body tube

A

The body tube is the tube part of the oculars

278
Q

What is the shape of cocci?

A

Small spheres

279
Q

What is the bacilli shaped as?

A

Rod shaped

280
Q

What is spirilla shaped like?

A

Corkscrew shaped

281
Q

What color is gram positive bacteria?

A

Violet

282
Q

What color is gram negative bacteria?

A

Pink/red

283
Q

What is the formula for Magnification of a drawing?

A

Drawing size (um)________________Measured cell size (um)

284
Q

How do you convert from mm to um?

A

Multiply by 1000. Ex: 2.7mm x 1000 = 2700um

285
Q

How do you measure the length of something?

A

Put it on leftmost side and see how much space is takes up and multiply it by how big the field diameter is.

286
Q

How do you calculate field diameter?

A

4(x) x 5mm = 10(next objective) x fd10xFd10x = 4 x 5mm /10x = 2mm

287
Q

How do you calculate grams of solute?

A

Molecular weight (grams/mole) x volume (litre) x molarity (moles/litre)

288
Q

What is the formula for preparing dilutions?

A

M1v1 = m2v2Final m solution x final liter Divided by stock solution

289
Q

What is the law of diffusion?

A

Molecules move from areas of higher chemical potential to areas of lower chemical potential

290
Q

What is chemical potential?

A

Measure of free energy available to do the work of moving a mole of molecules from one location to another

291
Q

Give an example of a time chemical potential is used

A

To move a molecule through a cell membrane

292
Q

The relationship between concentration of dissolved substance and chemical potential is what?

A

Proportional

293
Q

Molecules move from areas of _____ concentration to areas of _____ concentration

A

High concentration to Low concentration

294
Q

What is osmosis?

A

Movement of water molecules from regions if higher water potential to regions of lower water potential across a selectively permeable membrane

295
Q

What is water potential?

A

Measure of the chemical potential of water molecules

296
Q

What is water potential affected by?

A

Amount of other substances dissolved in water

297
Q

The ______ the concentration of a dissolved solute in water, the _____ the water potential

A

Greater, lower

298
Q

What is the water potential of pure water?

A

0

299
Q

When solute is added to pure water, does the water potential become negative or positive

A

Negative

300
Q

Water moves across membranes toward areas with ______ concentration of solutes, where the water potential is ______

A

Higher, lower

301
Q

Give two examples of passive transport

A

DiffusionOsmosis

302
Q

What does passive transport mean?

A

Molecules are moving down concentration or free energy gradients

303
Q

What is active transport?

A

Moving a molecule against a gradient and requiring energy

304
Q

What movement is exhibited in Brownian movement?

A

Jiggling

305
Q

Can you see water molecules in a microscope ?

A

No

306
Q

Would an increase in temperature increAse or decrease the rate of Brownian movement?

A

Increase

307
Q

Why are molecules in liquids in constant movement?

A

Due to their kenetic energy

308
Q

What is the rate of diffusion controlled by? (4 things)

A

The size of the diffusing particleThe temperatureThe viscosity of the mediumThe concentration gradient

309
Q

Does the net movement of molecules slow down as equilibrium is reached? Why?

A

Yes, because the concentration gradient is smaller

310
Q

What can you say about the chemical potential of pigment molecules at different distances from the center of a spreading pigment spot

A

At the center the chemical potential is higher, away from the center is lower

311
Q

How is chemical potential of pigment molecules related to their rate of movement?

A

As the chemical potential decreases, the rate of movement slows down.

312
Q

Does net diffusion eventually come to an end? Why?

A

Yes, because equilibrium was reached

313
Q

What type of membrane does a cell membrane have?

A

Semi permeable

314
Q

What molecules can move freely through the cell membrane?

A

Hydrophobic solute molecules, water, small polar uncharged molecules

315
Q

Solutes diffusing through a selectively permeable membrane diffuse from an area of ______ chemical potential to an area of _____ chemical potential

A

High,Lower

316
Q

What happens it two solutions diffusing contain equal concentrations of solute?

A

Their chemical potentials are equal and no net movement of particles occurs

317
Q

In a laboratory how can molecules of different sizes be separated?

A

Molecules of different sizes can be separated by dialysis using artificial semipermeable membranes

318
Q

How do living membranes select molecules of differing sizes to go through them?

A

They change their pore size by altering lipid and protein content

319
Q

What can you say about the effects of molecular size on the diffusion of molecules across a semi permeable membrane?

A

If the molecule is very big then it won’t go through the membrane

320
Q

What is an isosmotic/isotonic medium?

A

Medium that has the same concentration of osmotically active particles as are present inside the cell

321
Q

What is a hyperosmotic/hypertonic medium?

A

Medium that has higher concentration of osmotically active particles that forces a cell to lose water by osmosis to the medium

322
Q

What is plasmolysis and what does it occur in?

A

Plasmolysis is when a cell becomes dehydrated and shrinks and it occurs in plants

323
Q

What is crenation and what does it occur in?

A

Crenation is when a cell becomes dehydrated and shrinks. It occurs in red blood cells

324
Q

What is a hypoosmotic/hypotonic medium?

A

Medium that has a lower concentration of osmotically active particles.

325
Q

What is turgidity and in what does it occur?

A

Turgidity is when a cell gains water by osmosis and swells

326
Q

What is hemolysis? And in what does it occur?

A

Hemolysis is when a cell gains water and swells and can continue to gain water until it bursts. It occurs in red blood cells

327
Q

What does lysed mean?

A

The cell burst

328
Q

What is the relationship between the increase in mass and the molarity of sucrose in the dialysis bag?

A

There’s a proportional relationship

329
Q

If two solutions are isotonic to each other, how do their solute concentrations compare?

A

They are the same

330
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Proteins that control reactions in cells

331
Q

What are biological catalysts?

A

Accelerate metabolic reactions to a biologically useful rate by lowering activation energy.

332
Q

Enzymes are ______ proteins

A

Globular

333
Q

Enzymes folds create the _____ site

A

Active

334
Q

Each amino acid has one specific _______

A

Substrate

335
Q

What is the alteration of the active site called?

A

An induced fit

336
Q

Any structural change in an enzyme will __________ it by altering its ________ and _______ the reaction rate

A

DenatureActive site Slowing down/stopping

337
Q

What is an inhibitor?

A

A molecule that binds to the active site preventing a substrate from bonding and prevents chemical reactions

338
Q

Enzymes function best at optimal _______ and ______

A

Temperature pH

339
Q

What enzyme is found in living tissues?

A

Catalase

340
Q

What does the enzyme catalase do?

A

Breaks down hydrogen peroxide in cells

341
Q

What is hydrogen peroxide broken down into?

A

Oxygen and water

342
Q

The presence/absence of what gas will determine if a reaction is taking place

A

O2

343
Q

What is the enzyme responsible for the browning process of fruits?

A

Catecholase

344
Q

What is the substrate of catecholase?

A

Catechol

345
Q

When does the browning reaction begin?

A

When the enzyme and substrate are brought together by cell damage in the presence of oxygen.

346
Q

Why does oxygen start the browning process in fruit? What molecule does it form?

A

Oxygen promotes the exchange of electrons and pulls electrons from catechole which forms benzoquinone.

347
Q

What does heat do to an enzymatic reaction?

A

Denatures the protein and decreases/stops reaction

348
Q

Explain what happens when a protein is denatured

A

It loses shape, substrate can no longer go in it, no more active area = no rx

349
Q

What is solid milk called?

A

Curd

350
Q

What is liquid part of milk called?

A

Whey

351
Q

What enzyme is required to produce cheese curd?

A

Rennin

352
Q

What is the major protein in milk?

A

Casein

353
Q

What does rennin do to casein?

A

Converts it to paracasein

354
Q

What does para casein do?

A

Clots or curds the milk.

355
Q

What is velocity?

A

Rate of rx

356
Q

Why is there no increase in reaction rate once the saturation level of the substrate is reached?

A

All enzymes activation sites are occupied so no further substrate can be used

357
Q

Does an increase in enzyme concentration influence the mass of curd produced?

A

Yes the more concentrated the more curd produced

358
Q

What is an endergonic reaction?

A

A rx that requires a net energy input to proceed

359
Q

What is an exergonic reaction?

A

A reaction that ends with a net release of energy

360
Q

What are the three key players in a chemical reaction

A

Reaction, reactant and product

361
Q

What is the role of etc?

A

Consists of enzymes and other molecules that accept or give up electrons one after another, at a cell membrane

362
Q

In the etc: electrons enter at _____ energy level ➡️ leave cycle with ______ energy level

A

High Low

363
Q

In terms of etc: what is the role of coenzymes in etc?

A

They deliver electrons to etc in photosynthesis and aerobic respiration

364
Q

Energy released during the etc cycle does what?

A

Drives the synthesis of ATP

365
Q

What are enzymes?

A

Proteins, one specific substrate, metabolic catalyst

366
Q

What is a substrate?

A

The specific reactant acted upon by an enzyme

367
Q

What is an active site?

A

Location on enzyme molecule where substrates bind and reaction proceeds

368
Q

What is the overall reaction for photosynthesis ?

A

Co2+h20+sunlight ➡️ c6h12o2 + o2 + h2o

369
Q

What happens in light dependent reactions ?

A

Light energy is transferred to ATP and nadph. Water molecules split and release o2

370
Q

Where do light dependent reactions occur?

A

In thylakoids

371
Q

What happens in a light independent reaction?

A

ATP and nadph (from previous stage) is used to convert co2 to glucose and then to sucrose, starch and cellulose.

372
Q

Where do light independent reactions occur?

A

Occur in stroma

373
Q

What is the role of pigment in photosynthesis?

A

The pigment captures the light energy necessary for photosynthesis

374
Q

Who uses the anaerobic metabolic pathway?

A

Prokaryotes, Protists and muscle cells

375
Q

Who uses the aerobic metabolic pathway?

A

Eukaryotic cells

376
Q

What are the two mitochondrial membranes?

A

Outer and inner

377
Q

What is it called to be between two mitochondrial membranes?

A

Outer compartment

378
Q

Where does the second stage of aerobic respiration take place?

A

The inner compartment

379
Q

What are the two steps that glycolysis is divided into?

A

ATP requiring steps and ATP generating steps

380
Q

What does the ATP requiring step of glycolysis involve?

A

phosphorylation

381
Q

What does the ATP generating step of glycolysis involve?

A

1 fructose and 6 bisphosphate is cleaved into 2 pyruvates

382
Q

What is the net result for glycolysis?

A

2 net ATP 2 Nadh2 pyruvates

383
Q

Describe what happens in the Krebs cycle?

A

Break down 1 acetyl coA into 2 co23 Nadh and 1 fadh2 are formed2 ATP is formed and regenerates acetyl coA

384
Q

Where does electron transfer happen?

A

Inner mitochondrial membrane

385
Q

What happens in the electron transfer phosphorylation?

A

Attaches phosphate group to ADP to form ATP

386
Q

How many net ATP does glycolysis yield?

A

2 ATP

387
Q

How many net ATP does Krebs cycle yield?

A

2 ATP

388
Q

How many net ATP does the electron transfer yield?

A

32 ATP

389
Q

What are the two fermentation pathways?

A

Alcoholic fermentation and lactate fermentation

390
Q

What happens in alcoholic fermentation?

A

Pyruvates is split into acetaldehyde and co2. Acetaldehyde receives electrons and hydrogen from Nadh, forming nad+ and ethanol

391
Q

What happens in lactate fermentation?

A

Pyruvate receives electrons and hydrogen from Nadh, forming nad+ and lactate

392
Q

How are fats used for energy?

A

Enzymes cleave fats into glycerol and fatty acids when glucose levels fall

393
Q

What metabolic cycle does glycerol enter once cleaved from fat?

A

Glycolysis

394
Q

What metabolic cycle do fatty acids enter once cleaved from fat?

A

Krebs cycle

395
Q

How are proteins used for energy?

A

Enzymes split dietary proteins into amino acids which enter the bloodstream and are used to build proteins or other molecules

396
Q

What is mitosis?

A

Growth and replacement of dead or worn out cells, tissue repair

397
Q

Where does mitosis occur ?

A

Somatic cells

398
Q

What is meiosis?

A

The formation of gametes

399
Q

Where does meiosis occur?

A

Germ cells

400
Q

Describe the g1 phase of interphase:

A

Uncondensed, no sister

401
Q

Describe the s phase from interphase:

A

Uncondensed but duplicated

402
Q

Describe the g2 phase from interphase:

A

Condensed and duplicated

403
Q

Describe prophase

A

Condense, nuclear membrane breaks down, centrioles move to opposite poles

404
Q

Describe metaphase:

A

Chromosomes align between poles, chromosomes condensed

405
Q

Describe anaphase

A

Sister chromatids seperate to opposite poles, each chromatid is now a seperate chromosome

406
Q

Describe telophase

A

Chromosomes decondense. Nuclear envelope reforms around 2 clusters of chromosomes

407
Q

Describe cytokinesis in plants

A

Cell plate formation, cellulose accumulates, thickens, forms a wall

408
Q

Describe cytokinesis in animals

A

Cleavage furrow formation ➡️ cytoplasm pinches in two

409
Q

What are the 5 functions of a cell membrane?

A

SemipermeableHelps vesicles formSeparates contents of cell from surroundings Controls in/out movement through protein channelsInteracts with outside environment

410
Q

What is a passive transporter?

A

Allow small molecules through a membrane

411
Q

What is the function of an active transporter?

A

goes against a concentration gradient, requires ATP

412
Q

What is the function of a receptor?

A

Initiate change in cells activity by responding to an outside signal

413
Q

What is the function of a cell adhesion molecule?

A

Helps cell stick to one another

414
Q

What is the function of recognition proteins?

A

Identify cells as self

415
Q

What is the function of an enzyme?

A

Speed up rx

416
Q

What is a concentration gradient and from what to what do molecules move to?

A

Difference in concentration between two adjacent regions. Moves from high ➡️ low

417
Q

What is diffusion?

A

A substance diffuses across a lipid bilayer

418
Q

What is endocytosis

A

Vesicle movement brings substances in bulk into the cell

419
Q

What is exocytosis

A

Vesicle movement ejects substances in bulk from cell

420
Q

What is osmosis?

A

High water potential ➡️ low water potential

421
Q

What does isotonic mean?

A

Same concentration inside and outside

422
Q

What does hypertonic mean?

A

More concentration outside cell

423
Q

What does hypotonic mean?

A

More concentration inside cell

424
Q

What does asexual reproduction produce

A

Genetically identical copies of a parent

425
Q

What does sexual reproduction do that doesn’t happen in asexual reproduction ?

A

Introduces a variation in the combinations of traits among offspring

426
Q

What are genes

A

Regions in an organisms DNA that encode information about heritable traits

427
Q

What are alleles?

A

Different forms of the same gene

428
Q

What is meiosis

A

A cytoplasmic division (sexual reproduction)

429
Q

What does meiosis result in

A

4 haploid cells

430
Q

What is a zygote

A

First cell of a new individual

431
Q

What happens in meiosis 1

A

Homologous chromosomes separate

432
Q

What happens in meiosis 2

A

Sister chromatid separate

433
Q

What is the key stage of meiosis 1 and what happens in it

A

Prophase 1. Synapsis (homologous chromosomes) to form tetrads and pairing at chiasmata. Crossing over.

434
Q

What is the name of the process of sperm creation

A

Spermatogenesis

435
Q

What is the name of the process of egg creation (females)

A

Oogenesis

436
Q

What is the result of Spermatogenesis

A

4 haploid spermatids are formed

437
Q

What is the result of oogenesis

A

1 haploid ovum and 3 haploid polar bodies

438
Q

Describe how sperm are formed

A

Diploid male sex cell ➡️ (meiosis 1 and cytoplasmic division) primary spermatocyte [diploid] ➡️ (meiosis 2) secondary spermatocytes [haploid] ➡️(cytoplasmic division) spermatids [haploid] ➡️ 4 sperm

439
Q

Describe how ovum are formed

A

Oogonium (female sex cell) [diploid] ➡️ (meiosis and cytoplasmic division) primary oocyte [diploid] ➡️ (meiosis 2) first polar body [haploid] and secondary oocyte [haploid] ➡️ three polar bodies [haploid] and one ovum [haploid]

440
Q

What is fertilization

A

The fusion of two haploid gametes to result in a diploid zygote

441
Q

Where does mitosis occur

A

Somatic cells

442
Q

Where does meiosis occur

A

Germ line cells

443
Q

Meiosis takes a cell that’s ________ and makes it _________

A

Diploid, haploid

444
Q

What is a spermatozoan

A

A mature sperm.

445
Q

Describe a spermatozoan

A

Head with DNA and enzyme cap. Mid piece with mitochondria. Flagellum for movement.

446
Q

Who did the pea plant experiment

A

Gregor Mendel

447
Q

Describe why the garden pea was a good model for genetics studies

A

True breeding Both self and cross fertilization possible Short generation time Easy to work with

448
Q

What is a mutation

A

A permanent change in a gene

449
Q

What is a true breeding lineage

A

Offspring inherit identical alleles for a trait

450
Q

What is a hybrid

A

Has non identical alleles for a trait

451
Q

What does heterozygous mean

A

Non indentical alleles of a gene

452
Q

What does homozygous mean

A

Identical alleles of a gene

453
Q

What does a dominant allele do ?

A

Masks the effect of a recessive allele paired with it

454
Q

Capital letters signify what

A

Homozygous dominant

455
Q

Lower case letters signify what

A

Homozygous recessive

456
Q

What is a gene called if it is Aa

A

Heterozygous

457
Q

What is gene expression

A

The process by which information in a gene is converted to a structural or functional part of a cell or body

458
Q

What is a genotype

A

Particular alleles an individual carries ie. Ww

459
Q

What’s a phenotype?

A

An individual’s observable traits Ie. widows peak

460
Q

What does P stand for

A

Parents

461
Q

What does F stand for

A

Filial (offspring)

462
Q

What does F1 stand for

A

First generation offspring of parents

463
Q

What does F2 stand for

A

Second generation offspring of parents

464
Q

What are monohybrid experiments

A

Crosses that check for a dominance relationship between two alleles at a single locus

465
Q

What is a locus

A

A location

466
Q

Give an example of a cross between homozygous individuals

A

AA x aa

467
Q

Give an example of a cross between heterozygous individuals

A

Aa x Aa

468
Q

What is probability

A

A measure of the chance that a particular outcome will occur

469
Q

What is a Punnett square

A

A grid used to calculate the probability of genotypes and phenotypes in offspring

470
Q

What is Mendels law of segregation

A

Two genes of each pair seperate during meiosis and end up in different gametes

471
Q

What is a test cross

A

A method of determining if an individual is heterozygous or homozygous dominate

472
Q

How do you perform a test cross

A

Individual of an unknown genotype is crossed with one that is homozygous recessive Ie. AA x aa or Aa x aa

473
Q

How many traits do dihybrid experiments involve

A

2

474
Q

What is a dihybrid experiments

A

Tests for dominance relationships between alleles at two loci

475
Q

What is Mendels law of independent assortment

A

Many genes are sorted into gametes independently of other genes

476
Q

What is an incomplete dominance

A

Intermediate phenotype (what you see ) ie. red + white = pink

477
Q

What is codominance

A

Two non identical alleles of a gene are both fully expressed in heterozygotes so neither is dominant or recessive Ie. abo blood group system

478
Q

What is pleiotropy

A

One gene product influences two or more traits

479
Q

What is continuos variation

A

Traits with a range of small differences

480
Q

What is a bell curve

A

When continuos phenotypes are divided into measurable categories and plotted as a bar chart, they form a bell shaped curve

481
Q

What sex chromosomes do males have

A

XY

482
Q

What sex chromosomes do females have

A

XX

483
Q

What are autosomes

A

Chromosomes that are the same in makes and females

484
Q

What is a karyotype

A

Micrograph of all metaphase chromosomes in a cell arranged in pairs by size, shape and length

485
Q

What stops dividing cells at metaphase

A

Colchicine

486
Q

Can a dominant autosomal allele be expressed in homozygotes and heterozygotes

A

Yes

487
Q

What is progeria

A

Genetic disorder that results in accelerated aging

488
Q

What are some x linked recessive disorders

A

Hemophilia, red-green color blindness and duchenne muscular dystrophy

489
Q

What are the 4 types of chromosomes structural changes

A

DuplicationInversionTranslocationDeletion

490
Q

What is aneuploidy

A

Too many or too few copies of one chromosome

491
Q

What is polyploidy

A

Three or more copies of each chromosome

492
Q

What is nondisjunction

A

When a pair of chromosomes fails to seperate properly during mitosis or meiosis

493
Q

What is monosomy

A

N-1 gamete

494
Q

What is trisomy

A

N + 1 gamete

495
Q

What is trisomy 21

A

Down syndrome

496
Q

What is a pedigree

A

A standardized chart of genetic connections

497
Q

What are the three types of inheritance

A

Autosomal recessiveAutosomal dominantX- linked recessive inheritance

498
Q

In autosomal recessive does the trait skip a generation

A

Typically

499
Q

What is autosomal dominant

A

Trait appears in every generation. Allele is expressed even in heterozygotes

500
Q

In an x linked recessive who is the carrier

A

Females

Veterinary Technician Complete (3 years) (26 decks)

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